if we remove the oxygen for 2 sec from all the world so some things will happen
Answer: Earth's crust would crumble since Oxygen constitutes 45% of the Earth’s crust. also, everyone's inner ear will explode- We would lose about 21% of the air pressure in an instant, which would be similar to jumping from sea level to nearly 2000m almost instantly. This would prevent the eardrums from becoming acclimated to the changes in pressures. We would experience something called barotrauma (refers to injury sustained from failure to equalize the pressure of an air-containing space with that of the surrounding environment).
Explanation:
how many atoms make up the head of a pin
Answer:
About five million million hydrogen atoms could fit.
Explanation:
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Suggest and explain what happens to glucose uptake by red blood cells if an experiment was run for 60 minutes
If an experiment was conducted to study glucose uptake by red blood cells over a 60-minute period, several possible scenarios could occur, depending on the experimental conditions and the specific mechanisms involved in glucose uptake.
Here are a few potential outcomes:
Initial rapid uptake followed by saturation: Red blood cells (RBCs) typically rely on a facilitated diffusion mechanism to take up glucose.
At the beginning of the experiment, when glucose concentration is high, RBCs will rapidly take up glucose until they reach a point of saturation.
Once the glucose transporters on the RBC membrane are fully occupied, the uptake rate will level off, and further increases in glucose concentration will have minimal impact on uptake. This behavior is known as saturation kinetics.
Steady-state uptake: After an initial rapid uptake phase, if the glucose concentration in the external environment remains constant and within a physiologically relevant range, the RBCs will establish a steady-state where glucose uptake equals glucose efflux.
At this stage, the rate of glucose uptake remains relatively constant throughout the 60-minute period, as long as the external glucose concentration remains unchanged.
Decreased uptake due to glucose depletion: If the experiment involves incubating RBCs in a glucose-containing medium without replenishment, glucose concentration in the external environment will gradually decrease as RBCs continue to consume glucose.
As the glucose concentration decreases, the rate of glucose uptake by RBCs may progressively slow down. This reduced uptake could occur due to diminishing concentration gradients or limited availability of glucose transporters.
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How is the transcription start site determined in bacteria?.
Answer:
by the binding of RNA polymerase to the consensus sequences of the promoter
Explanation:
BTW: a promoter is a DNA Sequence on to which transcription machinery bind and initiate transcription .
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have an awesome day - TJ
For earthquakes of the same magnitude, which of these would you expect to cause greater damage?.
The earthquakes of the same magnitude causing greater damage, it's important to consider factors such as depth, distance from populated areas, local geological conditions, and building infrastructure.
For earthquakes with the same magnitude, you would expect greater damage in the following scenarios:
1. Shallow earthquakes: Earthquakes that occur at a shallow depth (closer to the Earth's surface) tend to cause more damage than deeper ones because the energy released is closer to the surface and affects structures more directly.
2. Proximity to populated areas: An earthquake of the same magnitude will cause greater damage if it occurs near densely populated areas with more buildings and infrastructure to be affected.
3. Geological conditions: Some local geological conditions, like soft soils, can amplify ground shaking and increase the potential for damage during an earthquake. Areas with solid bedrock tend to experience less damage.
4. Building infrastructure: In areas with poor building construction or outdated infrastructure, an earthquake of the same magnitude would likely cause more damage compared to an area with well-constructed, earthquake-resistant buildings.
In summary, for earthquakes of the same magnitude, the factors that contribute to greater damage include shallow depth, proximity to populated areas, local geological conditions, and the quality of building infrastructure.
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What genotype goes in the ?? box
S
S
S
SS
Ss
S
Ss
??
Answer:
It's ss....................
Help me with this please
Two question about the T. Rex:
T. Rex do not have an amniotic egg because there is no history of closely related animals having an amniotic egg.A ground-breaking new study reveals that ferocious predators like T. rex and tall, telescope-necked dinosaurs like Brachiosaurus were warm-blooded animals like birds and mammals.It is possible to provide the answers by using cladogram, if the given data in the cladogram correctly describe the feature of the animal (T. Rex).
T. Rex do not have an amniotic egg because there is no history of closely related animals having an amniotic egg.
A hypothesis is a theory put up to explain a phenomenon. A hypothesis must be testable according to the scientific method for it to be considered a scientific hypothesis.
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Humans have
chromosome pairs.
DONE
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes.
match the following descriptions to the appropriate lichen that it is describing. group of answer choices flat, adheres tightly to substrate surface [ choose ] leaf-like, curled edges away from the substrate [ choose ] shrub-like growth
We looked into the effect of surface chemistry on the orientation of Escherichia coli cells captured from flow onto surfaces that were cationic, hydrophobic, or anionic.
Our research was motivated by observations of cell orientation at biofilm-substrate interfaces and reports that cell orientation and adhesion play important roles in biofilm evolution and function. We identified the initial directions of non-motile cells ejected from mild shear in relation to the surface and flow directions.
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place the following immunoglobulin genes in the order in which they rearrange.
The correct order of rearrangement for the immunoglobulin genes is B) IgD A) IgM C) IgG & D) IgE.
Option (3) is correct.
The rearrangement of immunoglobulin genes occurs during the development of B cells in the bone marrow. The rearrangement process determines the specificity of the antibodies produced by B cells. The order in which the immunoglobulin genes rearrange is as follows:
IgD: IgD gene rearrangement occurs first during B cell development.
IgM: After IgD rearrangement, IgM gene rearrangement takes place. IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced by mature B cells.
IgG: After IgM rearrangement, IgG gene rearrangement occurs. IgG is a secondary antibody isotype that is produced during the immune response.
IgE: Lastly, IgE gene rearrangement occurs. IgE is involved in allergic and hypersensitivity reactions.
Therefore, the correct order of rearrangement for the immunoglobulin genes is B, A, C, D, which corresponds to answer choice 3.
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The complete question is:
Place the following immunoglobulin genes in the order in which they rearrange:
A) IgM
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgE
Options:
1. A, B, C, D
2. D, C, B, A
3. B, A, C, D
4. C, D, B, A
It is commonly believed that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is 98.6∘F. You are not entirely convinced. You believe that it is not 98.6∘F. You collected data using 54 healthy people and found that they had a mean body temperature of 98.26∘F with a standard deviation of 1.16∘F. Use a 0.05 significance level to test the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. a) Identify the null and alternative hypotheses? H0: ?
H1: ? b) What type of hypothesis test should you conduct (left-, right-, or two-tailed)? i. left-tailed ii. right-tailed
iii. two-tailed c) Identify the appropriate significance level. d) Calculate your test statistic. Write the result below, and be sure to round your final answer to two decimal places. e) Calculate your p-value. Write the result below, and be sure to round your final answer to four decimal places. f) Do you reject the null hypothesis? 1. We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level.
2. We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is not less than the significance level. 3. We fail to reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level. 4. We fail to reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is not less than the significance level. g) Select the statement below that best represents the conclusion that can be made. 1. There is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. 2. There is not sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. 3. The sample data support the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
4. There is not sufficient sample evidence to support the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
The conclusion of the hypothesis test regarding the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
What is the conclusion of the hypothesis test regarding the mean body temperature of a healthy adult?a) Null Hypothesis (H0): The mean body temperature of a healthy adult is 98.6∘F.
Alternative Hypothesis (H1): The mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
b) The hypothesis test should be two-tailed.
c) The appropriate significance level is 0.05.
d) The test statistic is calculated using the formula: (sample mean - hypothesized mean) / (sample standard deviation / sqrt(sample size)). The result is -5.86.
e) The p-value is calculated by finding the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme or more extreme than the observed value under the null hypothesis. The p-value is 0.0000.
f) We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level.
g) The phrase "There is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6F" best summarises the finding.
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During which two months do both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres receive the same amount of energy from the Sun?
Answer:
in March and September
Explanation:
it is
Answer:
its c
Explanation:
they both get the same amount of sun
: many plants exhibit thermoperiodism, such that they grow and develop better under conditions of rhythmically fluctuating temperatures. : the optimum temperature for a species will remain consistent across its lifetime. : the prevailing temperatures in a region are approximately proportional to the growth of field crops in that region. : every species has a minimum temperature and maximum temperature, below or over which (respectively) growth will not occur. : higher night temperatures often results in higher sugar content in many plants.
A) The statement " Many plants exhibit thermoperiodism, such that they grow and develop better under conditions of rhythmically fluctuating temperatures" is true because it indicates that many plants grow better under rhythmically fluctuating temperatures.
B) The statement " The optimum temperature for a species will remain consistent across its lifetime." is false because the optimum temperature for a species can vary depending on its growth stage and environmental conditions.
C) The statement "The prevailing temperatures in a region are approximately proportional to the growth of field crops in that region." is true because the prevailing temperatures in a region can directly impact crop growth and yield.
D) The statement "Every species has a minimum temperature and maximum temperature, below or over which (respectively) growth will not occur." is true because each plant species has specific temperature limits for their growth and development.
E) The statement " Higher night temperatures often result in higher sugar content in many plants" is true because higher night temperatures can increase photosynthesis rates, leading to higher sugar production in plants.
Plants are highly influenced by temperature fluctuations, and many species exhibit thermoperiodism, which means they grow and develop better under rhythmically fluctuating temperatures.
The optimum temperature for a plant species remains consistent throughout its lifetime. However, different species have different optimum temperatures for growth and development, and they can adapt to specific temperature regimes.
Additionally, every species has a minimum and maximum temperature below or above which, respectively, growth will not occur.
Many plants exhibit thermoperiodism, such that they grow and develop better under conditions of rhythmically fluctuating temperatures.
A) True. Many plant species exhibit thermoperiodism, where they perform better under fluctuating temperatures, with a warmer day and a cooler night temperature. This phenomenon is essential for the development and growth of many plants.
The optimum temperature for a species will remain consistent across its lifetime.
B) False. While the optimum temperature for a particular species can remain constant, it is not always true across its lifetime. The optimal temperature for growth and development can vary depending on the plant's stage, environmental conditions, and growth conditions.
The prevailing temperatures in a region are approximately proportional to the growth of field crops in that region.
C) True. The prevailing temperatures in a region can have a direct impact on crop growth and yield. Regions with warmer temperatures can have a longer growing season, allowing for more significant crop yields.
Every species has a minimum temperature and maximum temperature, below or over which (respectively) growth will not occur.
D) True. Every plant species has a minimum and maximum temperature below or above which growth and development cannot occur. These temperature limits are crucial in determining the plant's geographical distribution and the climatic conditions required for growth.
Higher night temperatures often result in higher sugar content in many plants.
E) True. Higher night temperatures can result in increased sugar content in many plant species, as higher temperatures can lead to higher rates of photosynthesis, resulting in increased sugar production.
In summary, temperature plays a crucial role in the growth and development of plants. Different species have different temperature requirements, and fluctuations in temperature can have a significant impact on crop yields.
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Question
Determine whether each of the following statements are True or False.
A) Many plants exhibit thermoperiodism, such that they grow and develop better under conditions of rhythmically fluctuating temperatures
B) The optimum temperature for a species will remain consistent across its lifetime.
C) The prevailing temperatures in a region are approximately proportional to the growth of field crops in that region.
D) Every species has a minimum temperature and maximum temperature, below or over which (respectively) growth will not occur. :
E) Higher night temperatures often result in higher sugar content in many plants. False True
Someone please help me
The organism that would have the greatest amount of energy stored is the protozoa.
Does the organism at the bottom of the food web have the greatest energy?The organisms at the bottom of the food web (producers) typically have the greatest energy input, as they are the primary source of energy in the ecosystem. They capture the energy from the sun and convert it into organic compounds.
They may not have the greatest biomass or individual energy content compared to higher trophic levels.
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What are the roles for theropods in the food cycle?
Answer:
any of a suborder (Theropoda) of carnivorous, bipedal, saurischian dinosaurs (such as a tyrannosaur or velociraptor) having hollow, thin-walled bones and usually small forelimbs. Note: Birds are descended from one lineage of small theropods.
Explanation:
please help me out with these, which is mitosis and which is meiososis?
Answer:
I think 1. is Mistosis and 2. is Meiosis
Which branch of the internal carotid artery supplies blood to the eyeball
if a particular stain shows the localization of a substance in the mitochondria, does this mean that it was necessarily produced there? explain.
The localization of a substance in the mitochondria is a useful indicator of its cellular distribution, but it does not necessarily provide information about its origin or production site.
No, the localization of a substance in the mitochondria does not necessarily mean that it was produced there. Mitochondria are organelles found in eukaryotic cells that are involved in various cellular processes such as energy production, metabolism, and apoptosis. They are responsible for generating ATP, the energy currency of the cell, through the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
Mitochondria contain their own DNA and ribosomes, which allows them to produce some of their own proteins. However, many of the proteins found in mitochondria are actually produced in the cytoplasm and then transported into the mitochondria. Similarly, many of the small molecules and metabolites found in mitochondria are produced elsewhere in the cell and transported into the mitochondria.
Therefore, if a stain shows the localization of a substance in the mitochondria, it could indicate that the substance was produced there, but it could also indicate that the substance was produced elsewhere in the cell and transported into the mitochondria. Additionally, the substance could be a byproduct or waste product of a reaction that occurred elsewhere in the cell, but was subsequently transported into the mitochondria for disposal or further processing.
In summary, the localization of a substance in the mitochondria is a useful indicator of its cellular distribution, but it does not necessarily provide information about its origin or production site.
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in a recessive disorder, a person will only have the disorder if they have one copy of the allele
True or False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Since it's a recessive disorder that means the presence of the dominant allele will overshadow the recessive if it's present. Two recessive alleles have to be present in order for the person to have the disorder.
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Recreate the path of the pollen from anther to ovule.
The process of pollen transfer from the anther to the ovule is called pollination. The path of pollen from the anther to the ovule is described as follows: Pollen is produced in the anthers, which are the male reproductive organs of flowering plants.
Afterward, the pollen will be transported from the anthers to the stigma, which is the female reproductive organ. The pollen will then begin to grow down the style, a long, thin tube that connects the stigma and the ovary, until it reaches the ovary. It will then enter the ovule, where it will fertilize the egg cell inside the ovule.
The pollen grain's journey from the stigma to the ovule is divided into three stages. The first stage is stigma recognition and adhesion, in which the pollen grain sticks to the stigma's surface. The second stage is the formation of the pollen tube. The pollen tube then elongates down through the style to the ovule, where it reaches the embryo sac.
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Coupled transport of glucose and na into the intestinal epithelial cell is an example of:________
Coupled transport of glucose and Na into the intestinal epithelial cell is an example of secondary active transport. In secondary active transport, the transport of a particular solute is coupled with the movement of another ion or molecule down its concentration gradient.
Here, the movement of Na is coupled with the transport of glucose, which is against its concentration gradient. Both sodium and glucose are transported into the intestinal epithelial cell with the help of a Na+–glucose symporter protein, located in the membrane of the cell. This transport protein binds Na+ and glucose from the lumen side of the small intestine, and then they are transported into the cytoplasm of the cell. This symporter is known as SGLT1, which is present in the apical membrane of the cell. SGLT1 protein is a member of the Solute Carrier 5 family, also known as Sodium/glucose cotransporter (SGLT).It is important to note that the transport of Na+ and glucose is dependent on each other. Therefore, the transport of Na+ into the cell provides the energy needed for glucose transport.
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Where do I put the 4 protons
Answer:
Protons and Neutrons go in the middle
Explanation:
Multiple Choice Question If the original diploid mother cell had eight chromosomes, a cell in telophase of mitosis would have ______ nuclei, each with ______ chromosomes.
If the original diploid mother cell had eight chromosomes, a cell in telophase of mitosis would have two nuclei, each with eight chromosomes. The correct option is A.
The chromosomes are duplicated and split into two daughter cells during mitosis. The divided chromosomes reach the cell's poles in telophase, the last phase of mitosis, and nuclear envelopes begin to develop around each set of chromosomes.
As a result, two nuclei are created, each of which has the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
Since the original diploid mother cell in this instance had eight chromosomes, each of the two daughter cells in telophase of mitosis would also have eight chromosomes, retaining the same chromosome number.
Thus, the correct option is A
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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:
If the original diploid mother cell had eight chromosomes, a cell in telophase of mitosis would have ______ nuclei, each with ______ chromosomes.
A. two; eight
B. four; eight
C. two; eight
D. two; six.
Which of the following are purposes in naturalistic research? o Meta-analysis, ethnography, heuristic inquiry o Explanatory, phenomenology, predictive o Descriptive, ethnography, grounded theory o Participatory action reserach, critical theory, explanatory.
The purposes in naturalistic research are: descriptive, ethnography, and grounded theory.
Let's discuss each one of them one by one.1. Descriptive: Descriptive research is an important kind of naturalistic research that aims to depict real-time scenarios, individuals, objects, and their natural environment.2. Ethnography: Ethnography is a type of naturalistic research that is used to understand cultures, communities, and societies.3. Grounded theory: Grounded theory is a research approach that includes observing a social phenomenon and creating a theory that explains and predicts what the data is telling us.
The answer to the question is option C, descriptive, ethnography, and grounded theory.
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Find the reasoning sentences and evidence in the paragraph with exact quotes.
“A common type of asexual reproduction found in nature is called mitosis. mitosis requires less energy than sexual reproduction does. Mitosis can occur in seconds and does not require a mate to reproduce. Sexual reproduction requires two compatible parents. It also requires time to produce the egg and sperm cells and then for fertilization to occur. Energy is required to find a compatible mate, produce sex cells and for fertilization. Therefore Mitosis requires less energy than sexual reproduction does.”
The sentence; "Mitosis requires less energy than sexual reproduction does." is a reasoning sentence.
What is the reason?Reasoning sentence 1: "Mitosis requires less energy than sexual reproduction does."
Evidence 1: "mitosis requires less energy than se--xual reproduction does."
Reasoning sentence 2: "Mitosis can occur in seconds and does not require a mate to reproduce."
Evidence 2: "Mitosis can occur in seconds and does not require a mate to reproduce."
Reasoning sentence 3: "Se---xual reproduction requires two compatible parents. It also requires time to produce the egg and sperm cells and then for fertilization to occur."
Evidence 3: "Se---xual reproduction requires two compatible parents. It also requires time to produce the egg and sperm cells and then for fertilization to occur."
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Based on the graphs of the rate of photosynthesis, answer both parts below.
A company in Salt Lake City is trying to build an indoor farming facility to help people in the city and surrounding areas have more access to fresh food. However, they are realizing that it takes a lot of electricity to grow plants indoors. They have heard that they can save money using LED lights with specific color wavelengths to help save money. Specific colors can help to make sure the electricity being paid for is energy that is then used by the plants being grown.
Part A
Which color light(s) are the best for plants to grow indoors?
A) white
B) red
C) yellow
D) green
E) blue
Part B
Choose the explanation(s) below that support your answer from Part A.
A) It is the same as the light plants receive outside.
B) The absorption spectrum of plants shows those colors as the most effective.
C) Green plants will reflect the green light.
The color of light(s) that are the best for plants to grow indoors are violet-blue light with a 400 – 520 nanometer range (Option E). They are best for chlorophyll absorption and photosynthesis. The option that supports the answer above is: "The absorption spectrum of plants shows those colors as the most effective" (Option B).
What is the Absorption Spectrum of light?This spectrum is made up of light frequencies communicated with dark bands when electrons absorb energy in the ground state in order to reach higher energy levels. When atoms absorb energy, they form this sort of spectrum.
An absorption spectrum is made up of the frequencies of light transferred with dark bands when electrons in the ground state absorb energy to attain higher energy states.
The absorption spectrum of chlorophylls comprises wavelengths of blue and orange-red light, as evidenced by maxima at 450-475 nm and 650-675 nm, respectively.
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if a driver needs to compensate for a limited range of neck motion he she can
Drivers with limited neck mobility can compensate for their range of motion limitations by adjusting mirrors, increasing seat height, using assistive devices, practicing situational awareness, and making informed route choices. These strategies can improve visibility, enhance safety, and help drivers with limited neck mobility navigate the road with greater confidence.
If a driver needs to compensate for a limited range of neck motion, there are several strategies they can employ to enhance their ability to see and navigate their surroundings while driving.
1. Adjusting mirrors: By properly adjusting the side and rearview mirrors, drivers can expand their field of view and reduce blind spots. This can compensate for limited neck mobility by providing additional visual information from different angles.
2. Increasing seat height: Raising the seat height can improve visibility by allowing the driver to see over the dashboard and have a better view of the road ahead. This can be particularly helpful when approaching intersections or navigating through traffic.
3. Using assistive devices: There are various assistive devices available that can aid drivers with limited neck mobility. These may include wide-angle mirrors, blind-spot mirrors, or panoramic rearview mirrors. These devices can provide a wider field of view and enhance situational awareness.
4. Practicing situational awareness: Drivers with limited neck mobility should pay extra attention to their surroundings and maintain a higher level of situational awareness. This involves scanning the road ahead, checking blind spots, and anticipating potential hazards. Being proactive and alert can help compensate for any limitations in neck mobility.
5. Making informed route choices: When planning a route, drivers can opt for roads with wider lanes, better visibility, and fewer complex maneuvers. Choosing routes that minimize the need for frequent head-turning can help drivers with limited neck mobility feel more comfortable and confident behind the wheel.
It's important for drivers with limited neck mobility to consult with healthcare professionals or occupational therapists who specialize in driving rehabilitation.
These experts can provide personalized advice, recommend appropriate modifications or adaptations, and offer exercises or techniques to help drivers compensate for their specific limitations.
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Select the sequence below that places these layers of a developing tooth into the proper order from deepest layer to most superficial layer 1. dentin, predentin, ameloblasts, odontoblasts 2. dental pulp, odontoblasts, predentin, dentin, enamel prisms, ameloblasts, enamel reticulum 3. enamel prisms, ameloblasts, dental pulp, odontoblasts 4. dental pulp, predentin, dentin, ameloblasts
The correct sequence that places the layers of a developing tooth into the proper order from deepest layer to most superficial layer is:
4. dental pulp, predentin, dentin, ameloblasts
Explanation:
1. The dental pulp is the deepest layer and is composed of connective tissue containing blood vessels, nerves, and other cellular components.
2. Predentin is the layer that is secreted by odontoblasts, located adjacent to the dental pulp. It is an unmineralized matrix that serves as a precursor to dentin.
3. Dentin is the hard, mineralized tissue that forms the bulk of the tooth structure. It is secreted by odontoblasts and lies external to the predentin.
4. Ameloblasts are cells that secrete enamel, the outermost and hardest layer of the tooth. Ameloblasts are located on the outer surface of the developing tooth, after dentin formation.
Therefore, the correct order is dental pulp, predentin, dentin, ameloblasts (option 4).
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The amount of kinetic energy an object has depends on which feature of the object?
O its motion
O its position
its gravity
O its height
Answer:
A. Motion......
The amount of kinetic energy an object has depends on its motion.
WHAT IS KINETIC ENERGY?Kinetic energy is the energy of an object that is due to its motion.
The kinetic energy of an object is denoted by the following expression:
K.E = ½ × mass × velocity.Therefore, this shows that amount of kinetic energy an object has depends on the motion of the object.
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