Solve for x. -5(-x - 4) - 3x – 5 = 13

Yes, The formula [(n+1)²/2] = [n²/n] + n holds true for any positive integer n.

To explain, when n is added to both sides of the equation, the left side becomes (n+1)²/2, while the right side becomes n²/n + n.

Simplifying the left side, (n+1)²/2 can be rearranged to n²/2 + n/2.

When n is added to both sides of the equation again, the left side becomes n²/2 + n/2 + n, which is equivalent to n²/2 + n + n/2, which is the same as the right side of the equation, n²/n + n. Therefore, the equation [(n+1)²/2] = [n²/n] + n is true.

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The interest rate your friend is charging you for the $20,000 loan is 20% per year.

The simple interest is expressed as;

A = P( 1 + rt )

Where A is accrued amount, P is principal, r is the interest rate and t is time.

Given that;

The Principal P = $20,000

Accrued amount A = $40,000

Elapsed time t = 5 years

Interest rate r =?

Plug these values into the above formula and solve for the interest rate r:

\(A = P( 1 + rt )\\\\r = \frac{1}{t}( \frac{A}{P} -1 ) \\\\r = \frac{1}{5}( \frac{40000}{20000} -1 ) \\\\r = \frac{1}{5}( 2 -1 ) \\\\r = \frac{1}{5}\\\\r = 0.2 \\\\\)

Converting r decimal to R a percentage

Rate R = 0.2 × 100%

Rate r = 20% per year

Therefore, the interest rate is 20% per year.

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Answer:o,kl,,k,

Step-by-step explanation:,,,k,

Answer:

The answer would be 51x^5 y^3 z^6

Step-by-step explanation:

Its basically purely multiplying the expressions for example i got 51X because I multiplied -17 by -3 making it an even 51 :)).

Hope this helps:)) Please mark Brainliest :)

Answer:

T

Step-by-step explanation:

Go to the right 1/4 of a unit and down 1/2 of a unit

The point is T

The rate of change of the angle of elevation is -2π/3 radians/second.

We can use the tangent ratio to solve this problem. Since the rope is attached to the boat, we can draw a right triangle with the rope as the hypotenuse. The angle of elevation is the angle formed by the rope and the horizon.

The pulley is 5 feet above the water level, so the length of the opposite side (the side adjacent to the angle) is 5 feet. The length of the hypotenuse is 12 feet, since the boat is 12 feet from the dock.

Using the tangent ratio, we can calculate the angle of elevation:

tan(θ) = opp/hyp = 5/12

θ = arctan(5/12) = 0.927 rad

Now, since the rope is being pulled in at 3 ft/sec, the length of the hypotenuse is decreasing at a rate of 3 ft/sec. Therefore, the rate of change of the angle of elevation is:

rate of change of θ = -(3 ft/sec) / (12 ft) = -2π/3 radians/second

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LCL for the p-control chart: 0.033

UCL for the p-control chart: 0.287

To calculate the Lower Control Limit (LCL) and Upper Control Limit (UCL) for the p control chart, we need to use the formulas:

LCL = p - 3√(p(1-p)/n)

UCL = p + 3√(p(1-p)/n)

Where p is the overall proportion of defective items, and n is the number of observations in each sample.

First, let's calculate p:

Total defective items = 2 + 5 + 3 + 4 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 + 2 + 4 = 32

Total observations = 10 * 20 = 200

p = Total defective items / Total observations = 32 / 200 = 0.16

Next, let's calculate the LCL and UCL:

LCL = 0.16 - 3√(0.16(1-0.16)/20)

UCL = 0.16 + 3√(0.16(1-0.16)/20)

Now we can calculate the values:

LCL = 0.16 - 3√(0.160.84/20) = 0.16 - 0.127 = 0.033

UCL = 0.16 + 3√(0.160.84/20) = 0.16 + 0.127 = 0.287

The LCL for the p-control chart is 0.033 and the UCL is 0.287.

To draw the p chart, you can use the number of defective items (red chocolates) in each sample (s1 to s10) divided by the total observations in each sample (20). Plot these proportions on the y-axis and the sample number (s1 to s10) on the x-axis.

To determine if there are any points out of control, you need to check if any data points fall outside the calculated control limits (LCL and UCL). If any point falls outside these limits, it indicates a potential out-of-control situation.

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The value of conversion of 100 minutes to hours is equal to  1 ( 2/ 3 ) hours.

Conversion of minutes to hours is :

One hour is equal to sixty minutes

⇒ 1 minutes = ( 1 / 60 ) hours

Substitute the required value to convert into hours we get ,

⇒ 100 minutes ( 100 / 60 ) hours

⇒ 100 minutes = 1  40 / 60 hours

⇒ 100 minutes = 1 2 / 3 hours

Therefore, after converting minutes into hours the value of 100 minutes is equal to 1 ( 2 / 3 ) hours.

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Answer:

c = 5cm

Step-by-step explanation:

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

4^2 + 3^2 = c^2

16 + 9 = c^2

25 = c^2

do the square root of 25 and c to solve for c

the square root of c^2 is c

therefore, c= 5cm

The cube with the larger surface area is with side A = 2.134 m or the cube with side length of 7 feet

The formula for surface area of a cube is equal to six times of square of length of the sides of cube. It is represented by 6a2, where a is the side length of cube.It is basically the total surface area.

Surface area S = 6a² ,

where a is the side of the cube

Given data ,

Let the side length of the first cube be A

Now , the value of A is A = 7 feet

Let the side length of the second cube be B

Now , the value of B = 2 m

On simplifying A with the conversion factor , we get

Side length A = 7 ( 1 / 3.28 ) m = 2.13 m

And , the surface area of cube A is = 6 ( 2.13 )²

The surface area of cube A = 27.327 m²

The surface area of cube B = 6 ( 2 )² = 24 m²

Hence , the surface area of the cube with larger side length is greater

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Answer:

Mean = 13.3 pounds.

Median = 13 pounds

Explanation:

The weight of the 6 cats are given below:

16, 16, 15, 11, 11, 11

(a)Mean

The mean weight of the cats is 13.3 pounds.

(b)Median

To calculate the median, first, we arrange in ascending order.

11, 11, 11, 15, 16, 16

Next, we pick the term in the middle.

In this case, we have two numbers in the middle: 11 and 15

Therefore:

The median weight of the cats is 13 pounds.

The reason why Lagrange interpolation is preferred over Hermite interpolation when approximating the derivative of a function using difference schemes is that Hermite interpolation involves calculating both the function value and its derivative at each data point.

This can be computationally expensive and may not always be possible if the function's derivative is not known or difficult to calculate.

On the other hand, Lagrange interpolation only requires knowledge of the function's values at the data points, making it a simpler and more practical choice for many applications.

Additionally, Lagrange interpolation produces a polynomial function that is continuous and differentiable, which is ideal for approximating derivatives.

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Answer:

$5 is the answer.......

Answer:

one box cost is $5

Step-by-step explanation:

$25 - $5 = $20 - this is the cos of four cereal boxes

$20 / 4 = $5 each box cost

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

\(-9x+1=80\)

\(-9x=79\)            (-1 both sides)

  \(x=-\frac{79}{9} =-8\frac{7}{9}\)     (÷ -9 both sides)

Answer:

3x³ - 3y - 3   or     3(x³ - y - 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

3 - 3 + x³ + 6x³ - 3y - 3 - 4x³

group like terms

= x³ + 6x³ - 4x³ - 3y + 3 - 3 - 3

add similar terms

= 3x³ - 3y - 3   or     3(x³ - y - 1)

Answer:

the 4th and 6th one

Step-by-step explanation:

A function is when there are x- and y-values but each x value has only 1      y-value

Simple: If the x-value is repeated its not a function

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1,2,3

Answer:

22

13

4

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

This should be it

Answer:

1. When x=-6, y=22.

2. When x=-3, y=13.

3. When x=0, y=4.

4. When x=3, y=-5

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve the table, you have to plug in the x values on the left individually into the function of y=-3x+4.

Plugging in the first x value in the table (-6) will result in the equation y=-3(-6)+4. To solve, you first multiply the -3 with the (-6), which will will equal 18. So, the equation will now look like this: y=18+4. Then, solving the equation (18+4) you get 22. Which means, when x=-6, y=22.

Do this same process with the other three x values plugged into the function as x, and this is what you should get:

2. y=-3(-3)+4    

   y=9+4

   y=13

When x=-3, y=13.

3. y=-3(0)+4

   y=0+4

   y=4

When x=0, y=4.

4. y=-3(3)+4

   y=-9+4

   y=-5

When x=3, y=-5

The given equation is (tan²(θ) - 9)(2cos(θ) + 1) = 0. To solve it, we can set each factor equal to 0: 1) tan²(θ) - 9 = 0 2) 2cos(θ) + 1 = 0 Solving each equation: 1) tan²(θ) - 9 = 0 tan²(θ) = 9 tan(θ) = ±3 θ = arctan(±3) 2) 2cos(θ) + 1 = 0 2cos(θ) = -1 cos(θ) = -1/2 θ = arccos(-1/2) The solutions for θ are the angles where either tan(θ) = ±3 or cos(θ) = -1/2.

To solve the equation (tan2(θ) − 9)(2 cos(θ) + 1) = 0, we need to use the zero product property, which states that if the product of two factors is equal to zero, then at least one of the factors must be zero.
First, let's solve for tan2(θ) − 9 = 0. We can add 9 to both sides to get tan2(θ) = 9. Then, we can take the square root of both sides to get tan(θ) = ±3.
Next, let's solve for 2 cos(θ) + 1 = 0. We can subtract 1 from both sides to get 2 cos(θ) = -1. Then, we can divide both sides by 2 to get cos(θ) = -1/2.
Therefore, our solutions are θ = arctan(±3) and θ = arccos(-1/2). Note that the ± sign in the first solution gives us two different angles, since tangent is periodic with a period of π.
In conclusion, the equation (tan2(θ) − 9)(2 cos(θ) + 1) = 0 has solutions at θ = arctan(±3) and θ = arccos(-1/2).

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We need the angle AOD to find the x value

What is the solution to an equation?

In order to make the equation's equality true, the unknown variables must be given values as a solution. In other words, the definition of a solution is a value or set of values (one for each unknown) that, when used as a replacement for the unknowns, transforms the equation into equality.

Missed data: ABCD is a QUADRILATERAL

'O'  is a point in the middle joining OA,OB,OC and OD , find the angle AOD  which is x here

Adding 3 angles we get 11x+22,

Equation is :

11x+22 + AOD = 360

=> AOD = 360 - 22- 11x

     AOD= 338- 11x  

We need the angle AOD to find the x value

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Answer:

2500000000

Step-by-step explanation:

→ Multiply 1 by 25000

1 × 25000 = 25000

→ Convert into metres

2500000

→ Convert into centimetres

2500000000

Answer:

2.00 cm

1 km on the ground = 2.00 cm on the map.

This means that 1 cm on the map is 25000 cm in real life, which is 250 m or 0.25 km. It is also useful to note that if 1 cm is 0.25 km, then 4 cm will represent 1 km in real life.

Answer:

SAS, because vertical angles are congruent.

Answer:

13

Step-by-step explanation:

The length of the line segment is 13 unit.

A line segment is a straight line with finite length, and thus, have to endpoints(points on either ends).

If the ray lies onto the considered line segment(overlapping), then it can be said belonging to the considered line segment.

(line segment has 2 fixed ends, whereas a ray has one end only, other end is not fixed)

We are given that coordinate plane shows Line A B.

We need to find the length of the line segment.

We can see that the graph has 1 unit equal to 1 cm.

Then the coordinate for Point B is (5, 13)

The length of the line segment is 13 unit.

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An experiment usually has three kinds of variables: independent, dependent, and controlled. The independent variable is the one that is changed by the scientist.

In mathematical modeling, statistical modeling, and experimental sciences, there are dependent and independent variables. Dependent variables get their name because, during an experiment, their values are investigated under the presumption or requirement that they are dependent on the values of other variables due to some law or rule.

The variable you alter, regulate, or change in an experimental study to examine its effects is known as an independent variable. It is named "independent" because it is unaffected by any other study variables.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First you start with -5+3/4 which is -4.25 then you subtract 1/8 which is 4.375

Then you subtract it by 1 to find x. So your answer is 3 3/8

Brainlest please

Convert the inequality to interval notation: a > 10:

(10, ∞)

After 15 more years of contributions of $4,000 at the end of each quarter, the retirement account will be worth approximately $760,514.47.

To calculate this, we need to use the formula for the future value of a lump sum. A lump sum is a one-time payment made at the beginning or end of a specific period. In this case, we're looking at the future value of the retirement account after 15 more years of contributions.

Using the given information, we can plug in the values and solve for FV:

PV = $150,000

Pmt = $4,000

r = 10%

n = 4 (since interest is compounded quarterly)

t = 15 years

First, we need to calculate the future value of the current investment of $150,000:

FV1 = $150,000 x (1 + 0.1/4)⁴ ˣ ¹⁵ = $548,534.24

Then, we can calculate the future value of the quarterly contributions of $4,000 over 15 years:

FV2 = $4,000 x [(1 + 0.1/4)⁶⁰ - 1] / (0.1/4) = $211,980.23

Finally, we can add FV1 and FV2 to get the total future value of the retirement account after 15 more years:

Total FV = FV1 + FV2 = $548,534.24 + $211,980.23 = $760,514.47

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Answer:

Help me with my Physics lol

Answer:

For each inequality, show it on the number line and write all one-digit integers that satisfy it a_<0

Answer:

Use the Rational Zero Theorem to find rational zeros

Step-by-step explanation:

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Since they form corresponding Angle pair ~