SB-19 What should be avoided when anchoring?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: throwing the anchor as far away from the boat as possible and backing up

Explanation:


Related Questions

Whole milk has 3.25% milk fat in it. Knowing that you just had 10 grams of milk fat, how many grams of milk did you drink?

Answers

Answer:

307.69 grams

Explanation:

hope it's useful to you

Whole milk has 3.25 % milk fat in it. That means 100 grams has 3.25 % of milk fat. so,10 grams of milk has 0.325 milk fat in it.

What is milk fat?

Milk is important for the growth of the body. It plays for the growth and development of the body. 100 grams of milk fat has 3.25 % milk fat in it.

100 grams = 3.25 % of milk fat.

10 grams = x

x = 10 * 3.25 / 100

 =0.325  %

Milk contains lots of proteins and minerals. It is essential for the growth of the body. It also contains important minerals such as calcium and proteins.

Therefore, Whole milk has 3.25 % milk fat in it. That means 100 grams has 3.25 % of milk fat. so,10 grams of milk has 0.325 milk fat in it.

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A Mental Health professional reads signs in the patient's body language to recognize if he or she is beginning to relax and open up. Which of the following is a sign of trust?
The patient is seated facing away from therapist with legs and arms crossed
The patient maintains eye contact and sits facing the therapist
The patient appears fidgety and nervous, and answers simple questions in a short and vague manner
The patient spends most of appointment looking down at hands or away from the therapist

Answers

Answer:

The patient maintains eye contact and sits facing the therapist.

Explanation:

Mr. Baze is 71 years old and is being seen in the clinic for hypertension. His primary care provider wants him to follow a low-sodium diet. He asks you about foods that he should avoid. What is your response?

Answers

Hello there,

Mr. Baze should try to avoid high soduim intake.

26-month-old boy is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination 2 weeks after completing a 10-day course of amoxicillin for an ear infection

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The solution is For 5 days, children over 2 years old will take an antibiotic. To ease the child's discomfort, the doctor can advise ibuprofen or acetaminophen.

The first-line antibiotic for the majority of kids with acute otitis media should be amoxicillin, given at a dose of 80 to 90 mg per kg per day. Many doctors will advise taking an antibiotic like amoxicillin for seven to ten days. In order to treat heat and pain, your doctor may also suggest over-the-counter painkillers like acetaminophen or ibuprofen, as well as eardrops. Make sure your child has received all recommended immunizations in order to avoid toddler ear infections. According to studies, children who receive vaccinations experience fewer ear infections. The frequent middle ear infection-causing streptococcus pneumonia is shielded from pneumococcal immunization.

What is Amoxicillin?

Amoxycillin is an antibiotic of the penicillin family that is used to treat different bacterial infections. It works well for infections of the nose, sinuses, urinary system, skin, soft tissues, typhoid fever, and respiratory tract (such as pneumonia).

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which of the following is associated with intensified brain signals that lead to positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and paranoia?

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A hyper-responsive dopamine system is associated with intensified brain signals that lead to positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and paranoia.

A severe mental illness called schizophrenia causes people to have aberrant perceptions of reality. The symptoms of schizophrenia may include hallucinations, delusions, and incredibly abnormal thought and behaviour that make it difficult to go about daily activities and can even be incapacitating. Schizophrenia sufferers need ongoing care. Hallucinations, strange physical behaviour, disorganised thinking, and delusions are typical symptoms of schizophrenia. Paranoid thoughts and voice hearing are frequent symptoms of schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is characterised by delusions, hallucinations, disorganised speech, disorganised behaviour, and the so-called "negative" symptoms, which are one of five skeletal system categories of symptoms. But both in pattern and severity, schizophrenia symptoms differ greatly from person to person.

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what is backing material for ultrasound

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Answer:

The backing material comprises a composite of tungsten powder, cerium oxide powder in an amount of 1.0 to 4.5% by weight tungsten, and an epoxy in a weight proportion to powder of from 4:1 to 50:1.

Please select the word from the list that best fits the definition

How information is structured

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The word from the list that best fits the definition of giving the information is structured is the content from the option.

What is the term Accuracy ?

Accuracy refers to how accurate or proper the statistics is. Authority has to do with who wrote or got here up with the statistics and whether or not or now no longer the writer is trustworthy. Finally, foreign money refers to while the statistics changed into written, whether or not it changed into a long term or recently.

Content refers to what the statistics is saying, and consequently it consists of how it's miles structured. An instance could be a desk of contents that specifies how the statistics is structured. obj*epsilon has to do with the neutrality of the statistics concerning a selected topic.

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parents attack teachers antiparasitic africa because their children were given medication without consent

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Parents have expressed concern and anger towards teachers in Africa for administering antiparasitic medication to their children without obtaining proper consent. This incident has resulted in a conflict between parents and teachers regarding the decision-making process and communication about medical interventions.

The administration of antiparasitic medication to children without consent has led to a breach of trust between parents and teachers. Parents have raised objections regarding the lack of communication and involvement in the decision-making process regarding their children's health. This incident highlights the importance of informed consent and clear communication between schools and parents when it comes to medical interventions. It is crucial for educational institutions to establish transparent policies and procedures regarding the administration of medication, ensuring that parents are adequately informed and have the opportunity to provide consent or voice any concerns.

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the boy is lethargic but responds to verbal stimuli. which of the following is the most important when providing care to the patient?

Answers

Determine whether the patient is getting better, becoming worse, or responding to therapy by keeping an eye on the AVPU as well as other vital signs.

What level of consciousness is lethargic?

Different ALOC levels include: Lethargic refers to being sleepy, uninterested in, or less conscious of your surroundings. If nothing or no one wakes you up, you are somnolent, which indicates you are sleeping. You can typically communicate and follow instructions, although you could have a hard time sleeping.

Is it possible to be awake and drowsy at same time?

alert: conscious and receptive. Noting that disorientation can appear anytime somewhere along spectrum and isn't always present before the patient becomes drowsy, lethargic, etc., is important. It is feasible to treat patients who are alert but sleepy or even lethargic.

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Maintenance rather than restoration of function is specifically the domain of
a. custodial care
b. restorative care
c. skilled nursing care
d. personal care

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Maintenance rather than restoration of function is specifically the domain of custodial care. The correct answer is a. custodial care.

Custodial care refers to the provision of assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs) and general supervision for individuals who are unable to perform these tasks independently. The focus of custodial care is on maintaining a person's existing level of functioning rather than restoring lost abilities.

Custodial care typically includes assistance with tasks such as bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, mobility support, meal preparation, and medication management. It is often provided to individuals who have chronic illnesses, disabilities, or conditions that result in a loss of independence or functional decline.

On the other hand, restorative care focuses on rehabilitation and aims to improve or restore a person's physical, cognitive, or functional abilities. Restorative care may involve therapies, exercises, or interventions designed to enhance a person's strength, mobility, or cognitive skills. The goal of restorative care is to help individuals regain their previous level of functioning or achieve the highest level of independence possible.

Skilled nursing care involves providing medical care and interventions that require the skills and expertise of licensed healthcare professionals, such as registered nurses. Skilled nursing care may include wound care, administration of medications, monitoring vital signs, and managing complex medical conditions.

Personal care refers to the assistance provided with ADLs, similar to custodial care. However, personal care can be provided by both professional caregivers and family members or friends without specific healthcare training.

Therefore, among the given options, (A) custodial care is specifically associated with maintenance rather than restoration of function.

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PLEASE HELP!
[Is this classical conditioning, or operant conditioning?]

Your psychology teacher decided that dissecting a sheep brain would be beneficial. You decided that it was absolutely gross. At dinner, your mom put mashed potatoes on your plate and then put a platter of a steamed cauliflower on the table. You looked at both the potatoes and cauliflower and imagined the sheep brain and left the table screaming.

Answers

Answer:

This is also an example of classical conditioning because the person associated the act of dissecting a sheep’s brain to the mashed potatoes and cauliflower on the table. The result of the experience is the act of ‘screaming’ at the sight because the association of the two stimuli is the reminder of the gruesome sheep brain dissection.

Explanation:

Why is Leonardo DaVinci's work Important for those interested in body mechanics?
A.
He identified the relationship between force and momentum.
B.
He was the first to apply principles of mechanics to machines.
He was one of the first to study the mechanics of the body in motion.
D.
He was a talented athlete who wanted to use mechanics to increase speed.

Answers

A. I’m sure of it. Pls mark me brainliest.

How are critical-thinking skills used when following hydration recommendations for two different clients with dehydration issues, one due to a gastrointestinal virus and one with kidney dysfunction?

Answers

Critical-thinking skills are essential when determining hydration recommendations for clients with dehydration due to different causes.

Critical thinking and hydration recommendations

When addressing hydration recommendations for clients with dehydration, critical-thinking skills are vital due to varying underlying causes.

By assessing each client's condition, understanding the specific issues (such as a gastrointestinal virus or kidney dysfunction), and applying knowledge of hydration guidelines, nurses can develop individualized care plans.

These plans may include appropriate fluid replacement strategies, electrolyte management, and monitoring. Ongoing evaluation of hydration interventions is necessary to assess the effectiveness and make necessary adjustments.

By utilizing critical-thinking skills, nurses can provide targeted and effective hydration interventions for improved client outcomes.

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A nurse is teaching a client who is beginning fluticasone propionate/salmeterol therapy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
a. Take the drug as needed for acute asthma.
b. Follow a low-sodium diet.
c. Use an alternate-day dosing schedule.
d. Increase weight-bearing activity.

Answers

The instruction that should be taught to the client who is beginning  fluticasone propionate/salmeterol therapy is to take the drug as needed for acute asthma. So, the answer is (a).

A glucocorticoid called fluticasone propionate is used to treat nonallergic rhinitis, inflammatory pruritic dermatoses, and asthma. Fluticasone propionate/salmeterol is a combination medication that is used to prevent the attacks of asthma.

Your airways may narrow, swell, and create additional mucus if you have asthma. Breathing may be challenging as a result.

As, fluticasone propionate enters the airways it binds to glucocorticoid receptors. These receptors are located in the cells that line the airways.

Inflammatory substances including histamine and leukotrienes cannot be released when fluticasone propionate binds to these receptors. This reduce inflammation and swelling in the airways, which makes it easier to breathe.

Therefore, option (a) is correct.

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A newborn male with a gestational age of 38 weeks and weighing 3.8kg had a prenatal diagnosis of a left sided congenital diaphragmatic hernia with bilateral fetal lung hypoplasia. At birth, the baby had a right pneumothorax for which a chest tube was placed. On day 4 of life, the hernia was repaired during surgery via a subcostal incision. The abdominal viscera, including multiple loops of small bowel, spleen, stomach, and part of the colon, were easily reduced into the peritoneal cavity. Postoperatively, the patient was noted to have hyperbilirubinemia and a cholangiopancreatography confirmed the diagnosis of choledochal cyst. With his rising bilirubin levels, concern for incomplete biliary drainage resulted in the patient returning to surgery for a hepaticojejunostomy. Excision of the choledochal cyst went well and he was extubated, resumed on enteral feeding, and was discharged home with a nasogastric tube for feeds.

1. Which of the following disorders was the baby born with:
a. Excessive lung growth
b. One lung
c. Underdeveloped lungs
d. Stiff lungs

2. What procedure did the infant have postoperatively to diagnose the choledochal cyst:
a. Recording of the gallbladder
b. Recording of the pancreas and liver
c. Recording of the bile duct and pancreas
d. Recording of the pancreas and kidney vessel

3. The infant was confirmed to have a diagnosis of a ________________cyst:
a. Liver
b. Gallbladder
c. Bile duct
d. Hepatic vessel

4. To fix the problem, what surgery was performed:
a. Removal of the liver and the jejunum
b. Surgical opening between the liver and the second part of the small intestines
c. Surgical opening between the bile duct and the jejunum
d. Surgical connection between the liver duct and first part of the small intestines

5. During the surgery which of the following were performed:
a. Choledochostomy
b. Choledochectomy
c. Choledochotomy
d. choledocholithotomy

Answers

1. The baby was born with c) Underdeveloped lungs.

2. The procedure performed postoperatively to diagnose the choledochal cyst was c) Recording of the bile duct and pancreas.

3. The infant was confirmed to have a diagnosis of a b) Gallbladder cyst.

4. To fix the problem, the surgery performed was d)  Surgical connection between the liver duct and first part of the small intestines

5. During the surgery, the procedure performed was a) Choledochostomy.

1. The baby was born with c) Underdeveloped lungs. This is indicated by the presence of bilateral fetal lung hypoplasia, which is a condition where the lungs do not fully develop, often associated with congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

2. The procedure performed postoperatively to diagnose the choledochal cyst was c) Recording of the bile duct and pancreas. Cholangiopancreatography is a radiographic procedure that visualizes the bile ducts and pancreas to assess their structure and function.

3. The infant was confirmed to have a diagnosis of a b) Gallbladder cyst. A choledochal cyst refers to a cystic dilation of the bile ducts, usually involving the common bile duct, and it is often associated with abnormalities of the gallbladder.

4. To fix the problem, d. A surgical connection between the liver duct and the first part of the small intestines, known as a hepaticojejunostomy, was performed to address the incomplete biliary drainage caused by the choledochal cyst. This procedure allows for the proper flow of bile from the liver to the small intestine, ensuring adequate drainage and preventing complications associated with the cyst.

5. During the surgery, a) Choledochostomy was performed. Choledochostomy refers to the surgical creation of an opening into the common bile duct, allowing for drainage and bypassing the obstructed or damaged area. This procedure facilitates the proper flow of bile from the liver to the small intestine, restoring normal bile flow and preventing further complications.

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Describe an instance where you would go to the emergency room instead of scheduling an appointment to see your primary care physician

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An instance where you would go to the emergency room will be when someone's health is in immediate jeopardy and urgent care is required, emergency room visits are preferred.

Visits to the emergency room are favored when a person's health is in immediate danger and urgent care is required.

A primary care physician (PCP) or primary care provider is a general practitioner of medicine. A PCP is the first place we go for medical care. While physicians make up the bulk of PCPs, nurse practitioners and physician assistants can also work as PCPs on occasion.

If your child needs ongoing therapy or is admitted to the hospital, the PCP may oversee the care, help you with treatment decisions, or refer you to additional experts if necessary.

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Hat modifier is used for medically-directed crna services?

Answers

no.

This is because no is the correct explanation of no.

Which measurement of height versus weight status provides a better indicator of health for the whole U.S. population

Answers

Both measurements of height and weight status, when considered together, provide a more comprehensive indicator of health for the entire U.S. population.

While height and weight measurements are essential factors in assessing health status, relying on a single measurement alone may not provide a complete picture. Body Mass Index (BMI), which compares weight and height, is commonly used as a proxy for overall health. However, it has limitations as it does not consider individual variations in body composition, muscle mass, and distribution of fat. Therefore, using BMI alone may not accurately reflect an individual's health status.

By considering both height and weight measurements, a more nuanced understanding of an individual's health can be obtained. Additional factors such as body fat percentage, waist circumference, and overall body composition can be taken into account. This comprehensive approach provides a more accurate assessment of health, as it considers individual variations and the distribution of weight in relation to height.

Moreover, focusing solely on weight or BMI can lead to stigma or discrimination, as it does not account for other important indicators of health. It is crucial to promote a holistic approach to health assessment that recognizes the complexity of individual bodies and factors beyond height and weight. Therefore, a combination of height and weight measurements, along with other relevant health indicators, provides a better indicator of overall health for the entire U.S. population.

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Describe the four functional classifications of muscle actions and give an example of each.

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Answer:  Skeletal Muscle. Skeletal muscle, attached to bones, is responsible for skeletal movements. ...

Smooth Muscle. Smooth muscle, found in the walls of the hollow internal organs such as blood vessels, the gastrointestinal tract, bladder, and uterus, is under control of the autonomic nervous system. ...

Cardiac Muscle.

Explanation: In the answer

If a provider got paid for referring patients to a particular specialist, this would violate:

Answers

If a provider gets paid for referring patients to a particular specialist, then it would violate Stark Law, which is also called Self-referral law.

The Physician Self-Referral Law, also referred to as the Stark law, prohibits physicians from referring patients to businesses with which they or a member of their close family has a financial relationship in order to obtain "designated health services" paid for by Medicare or Medicaid unless an exception is made.

Paying a doctor or medical facility only for referring a patient is considered fee splitting and is unethical. Physicians are prohibited from accepting any form of compensation for suggesting a patient, save payments made from the revenue of healthcare organizations as permitted by law.

Referring a client to a facility in which a healthcare provider (or a member of their family) has a financial stake is a type of healthcare fraud and abuse.

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vitmain b12 is essential for the development and maintenance of

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Vitamin B12 is essential for the development and maintenance of several bodily functions, particularly those related to the nervous system and red blood cell production.

It plays a crucial role in the synthesis of DNA, the genetic material in cells, and is necessary for the normal functioning of nerve cells. Vitamin B12 is also involved in the production of red blood cells, which carry oxygen throughout the body.

Without adequate levels of vitamin B12, individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, tingling or numbness in the extremities, difficulty in maintaining balance, and impaired cognitive function.

Therefore, vitamin B12 is vital for overall neurological health and blood cell production.

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Which social media activity would most likely have a negative influence on body image?

Answers

Answer: Probably Instagram because there a pictures of models and people with low self esteem will look at the pictures and say "i wish i was like her"

Explanation:

Answer:

A. Getting a dislike on a recent picture

Explanation:

Correct on EDGE 2020

Susan knows that there are laws that govern the refilling of diazepam, which is a controlled substance. How do these laws affect Mr. Lehmke?

Answers

Answer:

Schedule 2 pharmaceuticals include diazepam. Because of its addictive nature, this scheduling drug often does not allow refills. Mr. Lehmke may be affected because obtaining medication without a provider's order will be difficult.

Explanation:

Exercising Pearson Physicians Group's medicine refill line is managed by Susan Schultz, CMA (AAMA). Adam Lehmke has asked for a diazepam refill. When she looks over Mr. Lemke's chart, she discovers that Dr. Penningworth wrote a prescription for diazepam three months ago with two refills, and she realizes that Mr. Lemke should still have two weeks of medication left based on the date.

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Helena is creating a Python program to teach a younger sibling how to tell time. Helena begins by writing a very general pseudocode and then adds more elements to it. She reviews it and changes a few aspects. Which term describes the process that is being used?

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The process being used in this scenario is iterative development, where Helena starts with general pseudocode and progressively adds more elements while reviewing and making changes.

The process described here is iterative development. Iterative development is an approach in software development where a program is built incrementally through repeated cycles of planning, designing, implementing, and reviewing. In this case, Helena starts with a general pseudocode, which serves as a rough outline of the program's functionality.

She then adds more elements to it, possibly refining the logic or introducing new features. After each addition or modification, Helena reviews the code and makes necessary changes based on her evaluation. This iterative process allows her to refine and improve the program gradually, ensuring that each step builds upon the previous one.

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the client expressed to the nurse feelings of guilt and shame for contracting hiv/aids from an ex-partner 8 years ago, and although the client is feeling well, cannot develop healthy relationships. what priority action will the nurse implement during the client assessment?

Answers

The nurse should make it her top priority to: evaluate the child, keep an eye on him or her, record the negative event, and reassure the child's parents that the child is safe.

Empathy, active listening, and nonverbal cues like keeping eye contact, using open body language, and being present at the moment are all ways to accomplish this.

The client's knowledge of HIV/AIDS, their current health status, and any ongoing medical or psychological treatments should also be evaluated by the nurse. This may assist in identifying any potential misreadings about the condition or obstacles to receiving support and care.

Moreover, the medical caretaker ought to investigate the client's socially encouraging group of people and recognize any likely wellsprings of help, like family, companions, or care groups. It is essential to provide the client with information about local support groups and other community resources and to encourage them to connect with these resources.

In general, the nurse should make it a top priority to build trust and rapport with the patient, offer emotional support, and gather data for a comprehensive care plan that is specific to the patient's needs. The client may gain a sense of empowerment, be supported, and be better equipped to manage their condition and build healthy relationships as a result of this.

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1. a portable chest x-ray is taken at 90 cm sid, and the patient exposure is 280 mgy. what will the new
exposure be if the distance is increased to 180 cm and there is no accompanying technique change?

Answers

Answer:

I believe this is what your looking for 70 uGya

Explanation:

Of the controlled substances, which schedule of drugs is the average person most likely to have in their homes? How are the controlled substances in this group different from those in the other schedule levels?

Answers

The schedule of drugs is the average person most likely to have in their homes are Schedule III, IV, and V.

The controlled substances in this group different from those in the other schedule levels as they lower potential for abuse.

What is a controlled substance?

Generally speaking, a controlled substance is a drug or chemical whose production, possession, and use are governed by a government, such as illegally used drugs or legally prescribed medications.

Schedule III, IV, and V controlled substances are the most likely to be found in the average person's home. These schedules include drugs that are commonly prescribed for medical conditions, such as certain painkillers, sedatives, and stimulants. These drugs have a lower potential for abuse compared to Schedule I and II drugs and have an accepted medical use. They have a lower potential for addiction, but still, have some potential and have a higher risk of dependence compared to Schedule V drugs.

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What three (3) teaching points should the nurse include about furosemide with the client that hasheart failure?

Answers

The nurse should include the following three teaching points about furosemide with the client who has heart failure: Dosage: The nurse should explain the appropriate dosage of furosemide for the client.

In which may vary depending on the client's weight, kidney function, and the severity of their heart failure. The nurse should also explain that the client should take the medication at the same time every day and should not adjust the dosage without consulting their healthcare provider.

Side effects: The nurse should inform the client about the potential side effects of furosemide, such as electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, and dizziness. The nurse should also explain how to recognize and manage these side effects, such as by increasing fluid intake and monitoring electrolyte levels.

Precautions: The nurse should inform the client about any precautions they should take while taking furosemide, such as avoiding alcohol and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which can increase the risk of side effects. The nurse should also explain that the client should inform their healthcare provider if they experience any symptoms of worsening heart failure, such as shortness of breath or swelling.  

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Start by selecting measles at 0% vaccination from the settings panel. Run the simulation several times. Then click on the compare tab and select another disease along with the measles both at 0% vaccination and run the simulation. What do you observe? select all that apply.

Answers

The total number of infected individuals fluctuates depending on the disease and the particular simulation run. It appears that the measles is a more contagious illness if vaccination is not done.

It is not acceptable to self-report vaccination dosages without supporting documentation for measles. The DS-3025 Form, which will serve as the applicant's permanent vaccination record for measles, must be filled out by panel physicians and include a complete list of all permitted vaccinations and immunity.

The applicants must be immunized against the following diseases alone; they are not obliged to be immunized against all the diseases for which the CDC and ACIP recommend immunization against domestically in the US apart from measles.

DiphtheriaTetanus\PertussisPolio\sMeasles\sMumpsRubellaRotavirusType B of the influenza virus (Hib)Viruses Hepatitis A and BMeningococcus infectionVaricellaPneumococcal infectionInfluenza.

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Gavin would like to apply the gate-control theory of pain to reduce his experience of pain following a sports injury. Which of the following could he do?
Group of answer choices

Answers

Answer: Increase Sensory Input (Rubbing, Touching, Feeling Cold Water etc) At the injury location

Explanation: The gate-control theory suggests that pain is sent through the spinal cord to the brain and along with sensory information, there are certain times where pain should be felt more than sensory inputs and vice versa. This comes into play when we talk about the 'gates,' or areas where the spinal cord and brain decide that pain or sensory input should be filtered out or enhanced. If the sensory information and pain information travel at the same time, it is thought that enough sensory information could lessen the feeling of pain; this is thought to be the cause of rubbing a scrapped knee or injury when we fall.

Anyways, since the choices weren't given, just know that any amount of sensory input near the injury location will reduce Gavin's experience of pain, according to the gate-control theory. I hoped this helped!

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