please help thanks.







.___________.​

Jamie's annual interest rate is 5%.

To find Jamie's annual interest rate, we need to consider the relationship between the quarterly interest payments and the loan amount. Let's break it down step by step:

1. We know that Jamie's quarterly interest payments are $150. Since there are four quarters in a year, the total annual interest payments can be calculated by multiplying the quarterly payments by four: $150 * 4 = $600.

2. Now, let's determine the interest rate. We have the annual interest payment, but we need to express it as a percentage of the loan amount. The formula to calculate interest rate is (Interest Payment / Loan Amount)  100.

3. Substituting the values into the formula, we have ($600 / $12,000)

100 = 0.05  100 = 5%.

Therefore, Jamie's annual interest rate is 5%.

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Answer:

y = -3x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

We will use the form y = mx + b

m is the slope

b is the y intercept

y = -3x +2

\([Hello,BrainlyUser]\)

Since your question is incomplete.. I'll try my best to help you.

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

A supplementary angles is a angles that equal 180°.

A complementary angles is an angles that equal 90°.

Vertical angles are a pair of opposite angles formed by intersecting lines.

\([CloudBreeze]\)

Answer:  £6.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of one jumper be x, and since Kara buys 5 jumpers, she pays for 4 and gets 1 free.

Therefore, she effectively pays for 4 jumpers. Now we can form the equation to find the value of x: (4x / 5) = (5.20)

Now solving the equation, we get; x = £6.50

Hence, the regular cost of one jumper when not in this offer is £6.50.

Answer:

c bye  have a good day

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: w can be 1,2,4,5

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's recap the formula of Area:
Area = width x length = w x l
Area = 40 = w x l

The definition of a whole number: is a number without fractions; an integer such as 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,...

Let's start with 0. 0 times anything is equal to 0, so we cannot make 40 out of zero. Cross this out.

Next, let's try with 1:

a. 1x40 = 40

Then, applying the same concept to the rest we have these multiplications:

b. 2x20 = 40

c. 4x10 = 40

d. 5x8 = 40

e. 8x5 = 40

f. 10x4 = 40

g. 20x2 = 40

h. 40x1 = 40

Let's recap the formula of Perimeter:

P = 2 x (w + l)

So, we have the calculated perimeters (according to the above finding):
a. P= 2x(1+40)=82

b. P= 2x(2+20)=44

c. P= 2x(4+10)=28

d. P= 2x(5+8)=26

The below answers do not fit the [width < length]

e. P= 2x(8+5)=26 [not an answer]

f. P= 2x(10+4)=28 [not an answer]

g. P= 2x(20+2)=44 [not an answer]

h. P= 2x(40+1)=82 [not an answer]

The correct answer is D.

The variable of time that could cause a student’s GPA to increase is studying.

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Answer:

10. 3.75 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

10. (5x-5)/56=(3x-5)/32

                 x=1.75

AC=5x-5

    =5*1.75-5

    =3.75 cm

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According to the given information the integral of the quantity g(x) - f(x) from 1 to 5 is -10.

Addition is a mathematical operation that involves combining two or more numbers or quantities to obtain a total or sum. In basic arithmetic, addition is represented by the plus sign (+), and is typically performed by adding the individual values together. For example, the sum of 2 and 3 is 5, which can be written as 2 + 3 = 5. Addition can also be performed with negative or decimal numbers, and can be extended to more complex mathematical structures such as matrices and vectors.

In calculus, the linearity property of integrals states that the integral of a sum or difference of functions is equal to the sum or difference of their integrals. That is, for any two functions f(x) and g(x) and constants a and b, we have:

∫[a,b] (f(x) ± g(x)) dx = ∫[a,b] f(x) dx ± ∫[a,b] g(x) dx

Using this property, we can rewrite the given integral as:

∫[1,5] (g(x) - f(x)) dx = ∫[1,5] g(x) dx - ∫[1,5] f(x) dx

We are given that ∫[1,5] f(x) dx = 6 and ∫[1,5] g(x) dx = -4. Substituting these values, we get:

∫[1,5] (g(x) - f(x)) dx = (-4) - 6 = -10

Therefore, according to the given information the integral of the quantity g(x) - f(x) from 1 to 5 is -10.

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Answer:

D. it passes through the point (-12)

Answer:

13.8

Step-by-step explanation:

the required constant can be calculated as:

\(c=\frac{FinalWages-InitialWages}{FinalTime-InitialTime} ;\)

according to the formula above:

\(c=\frac{82.8-27.6}{6-2} =13.8.\)

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

If Sabrina is 5 & Michael is 7. (5×7=35)

Michael is 7, & he is 3 yrs younger than Meghan, who is 10. And Meghan is twice as old as Sabrina, when Sabrina is 5 (5×2=10).

Answer:

Meghan is 10 years old

Step-by-step explanation:

We can write out the information with equations and then combine the information. Then, we can solve for x and hence solve for Meghan's age.

We write our first variable, x. Meghan (m) is twice as old as Sabrina (x). So we write:

m = 2x

Michael (M) is 3 years younger than Meghan. So we write:

M = m - 3

The product (multiplication) of Sabrina's and Michael's age is 35. So we write:

Mx = 35

To solve for x, we can substitute Meghan's age (2x) into the equation for Michael.

M = 2x - 3

Then, we can substitute this for M in the final equation to solve for x. This will be a quadratic so we factorise to solve it:

x(2x - 3) = 35

2x² - 3x = 35

2x² - 3x -35 = 0

(2x - 7)(x - 5) = 0

x = ⁷⁄₂ or 5

we know it is 5 since ⁷⁄₂ does not work and it is not a whole number. Hence:

m = 2(5)

m = 10

John Kemeny, while chair of the Mathematics Department at Dartmouth College, wanted to determine the probability of having at least one day without mail in a ten-year period. around 0.0025.

Assuming the number of letters he received each day followed a Poisson distribution.

To calculate this probability, he applied the Poisson distribution twice. First, he found the probability of having at least one day without mail in 3000 days, assuming each year had approximately 300 days of mail delivery. The probability he found was approximately 0.0025.

Let's denote the average number of letters John Kemeny received per day as λ. Since he received an average of ten letters each day, we have λ = 10.

To find the probability of having at least one day without mail in 3000 days, we can use the Poisson distribution. The Poisson distribution provides the probability of a certain number of events occurring in a fixed interval, given the average rate of occurrence.

The probability of having no mail on a particular day can be calculated using the Poisson distribution formula:

\(P(X = 0) = (e^(-λ) * λ^0) / 0!\)

Since we want to find the probability of having at least one day without mail, we can find the complement of this probability:

P(at least one day without mail) = \(1 - P(X = 0)\)

For a single year, with approximately 300 days of mail delivery, we can calculate the probability of at least one day without mail using the given λ:

P(at least one day without mail in a year) = \(1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - (e^(-λ) * λ^0) / 0!\)

Substituting λ = 10, we get:

P(at least one day without mail in a year) =\(1 - (e^(-10) * 10^0) / 0!\)

Now, to find the probability of at least one day without mail in ten years (3000 days), assuming each year has 300 days of mail delivery, we raise the yearly probability to the power of 10:

P(at least one day without mail in ten years) = \([1 - (e^(-10) * 10^0) / 0!]^10\)

Evaluating this expression, we find that the probability John Kemeny calculated was approximately 0.0025.

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Answer:

The answer is A:81

Step-by-step explanation:

3 times 3 times 3 times 3= 81

Hopes this help.

The word problems shows that Brianna billed $725.63 for all four sessions last month.

For the first session: 5 hours and 23 minutes = 5 x 4 quarters + 3 quarters = 22 + 0.75 = 22.75 quarters.

For the second session: 4 hours and 12 minutes = 4 x 4 quarters + 3 quarters = 16 + 0.75 = 16.75 quarters.

For the third session: 5 hours and 38 minutes = 5 x 4 quarters + 2 quarters = 20 + 0.5 = 20.5 quarters.

For the fourth session: 1 hour and 49 minutes = 1 x 4 quarters + 2 quarters = 4 + 0.5 = 4.5 quarters.

Total time = 22.75 + 16.75 + 20.5 + 4.5 = 64.5 quarters.

Total bill = 64.5 x $11.25 = $725.63.

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Answer:

b (5x+4y=32) is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

if it is parallel then the slop has to be the same which means you can eliminate choices a and c. then, you can plug in the points they give you to see if the statement holds true.

5x+4x

5(12)+4(-7)

60-28

32

therefore, option b is correct

Answer:

The third answer is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

You are going to translate the smaller quadrilateral (4 sided figure) to the larger quadrilateral.  Then you need the scale factor from the smaller figure to the larger.  

Side EF times the scale factor will give you side AB.  Let's call the scale factor s then our equation would be:

EF x s = AB  To find s divide both sides by EF

\(\frac{EF(s)}{EF}\) = \(\frac{AB}{EF}\)

s = \(\frac{AB}{EF}\)  This is our scale factor.

Helping in the name of Jesus.

Answer:

A sample is a subset of the population.

To determine the optimal order size for tomato sauce for Mama Rosa, we need to use the economic order quantity (EOQ) formula. This formula is given as:

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) = sqrt(2DS/H)

Where: D = Annual demand

S = Cost per order

H = Holding cost per unit per year

Since the EOQ is the optimal order size, Mama Rosa should order 4,648 quarts of tomato sauce each time she orders.  For Mama Rosa's tomato sauce ordering:

D = 360*120

= 43,200 Cost per order,

S = $50 Holding cost per unit per year,

H = 20% of

$1 = $0.20 Substituting the values in the EOQ formula,

we get: EOQ = sqrt(2*43,200*50/0.20)

= sqrt(21,600,000)

= 4,647.98 Since the EOQ is the optimal order size, Mama Rosa should order 4,648 quarts of tomato sauce each time she orders.  

LT = Lead time

V = Variability of demand during lead time Lead time is given as 5 days and variability of demand is the standard deviation, which is given as 50 quarts.

To determine the reorder point, we Using the z-score table, the z-score for a 2% service level is 2.05. Substituting the values in the safety stock formula. use the formula: Reorder point = (Average daily usage during lead time x Lead time) + Safety stock Average daily usage during lead time is the mean, which is given as 120 quarts. Substituting the values in the reorder point formula, we get: Reorder point = 622.9 quarts Therefore, Mama Rosa should order tomato sauce when her stock level reaches 622.9 quarts.

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Answer: you can go get this book to help you hope this help love ya dear

Step-by-step explanation:

Approximately, there are total 50 national parks is the United states.

The United States has approximately 50 national parks, which are congressionally designated procted areas operated by the National Park Service, an agency of the Department of the Interior.

National Parks are designated for their natural beauty, unique geological features, diverse ecosystems, and recreational opportitinies.

Some of the major national parks are Yesomite National Park, Bryce Canyon National Park, Acadia national park, National park of America Samona, Arches National park etc.

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Answer:

The answer is 50

Step-by-step explanation:

yes

Answer:

8 - 4 (-x + 5)

= 8 + 4x - 20

= -(20 - 8)

= -12

= -12 + 4x

?

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 16 3/8 in 6

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The median for the data given is 20.5

2. The mean given for the data is 22

3. The range given for the data is 39

ADDITIONAL INFO:

4. The IQR for the given data is 19

5. The minimum for the data given is 2

6. The maximum for the data given is 41

7. There are no outliers.

Answer to 1:

\(\frac{x^3}{2y^25}\)

First thing you want to do is combine like terms on the bottom. Since it's multiplication, all you have to do is add the exponents. So for x you'd get x raised to the -9 power and for y you'd get 2y raised to the power of 7

Second thing is the numerator of the fraction. Since this is raising what is inside the paranthesis to a power, you must multiply this power by the powers of x and y, respectively. You should get x raised to the power of -6 and y raised to the power of -18

Here's where it gets complicated. to rationalize the problem, you must add parts from the numerator and denominator or vice versa. You cannot have any negative exponents anywhere in the fraction.  So that means for x you have to add 9 to the x on the top to cancel out the -6 and rationalize the remaining x's. You should end up with x^3.

For y, you work the opposite way. Since the negatives are only on the top, you simply add 18 to the bottom y's and it remains rationalized.

If done correctly this should come out to x^3/2y^25

Answer to 2:

(x^20y^12)/256

First thing you can do on this one is to cancel out the x^0s. Anything to the power of 0 equals one so only the coefficients will remain. Multiply those together and you'll get 4.

Next you will rationalize the ys. Add the bottom 3 to the top to cancel out the denominator and you're left with y^-3. Leave it like this for now.

Now is the difficult part. You must take everything that is inside the parenthesis to the power of -4. That includes the coefficients and the exponents. 4^-4 = 1/256. This means that you now must move the coefficients to the bottom. You should currently have y^-3/(256x^5).

Now take the exponents to the power using the same rules as question 1. -3*-4 = 12 and 5*-4 = -20. You should now have y^12/(256x^-20)

Lastly, we must rationalize the denominator. To do so, move the x^-20 to the numerator and make the exponent positive. After doing this, you have the answer: (x^20y^12)/256

Answer:

an = -3 · an - 1 where a1 = -1.

Step-by-step explanation:

The first term a1 = -1 and the common ratio is -3 so ecah term is formed form the previous one by multiplying by -3.

Answer:

t<4

Step-by-step explanation:

a. The probability that all three rolls are 1 is 0.004630.

b. The probability that it comes up 3 at least once is 0.421296.

(a) To find the probability that all three rolls result in a 1, we need to calculate the probability of rolling a 1 on each individual roll and then multiply these probabilities together.

Since the die is fair, the probability of rolling a 1 on a single roll is 1/6.

Therefore, the probability that all three rolls are 1 is:

P(all three rolls are 1) = (1/6) * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/216

Rounded to six decimal places, the probability is approximately 0.004630.

(b) To find the probability that the die comes up 3 at least once, we can calculate the probability of the complement event (i.e., the event that the die never comes up as 3) and subtract it from 1.

The probability of not rolling a 3 on a single roll is 5/6, since there are five other outcomes on a fair six-sided die.

Therefore, the probability of not rolling a 3 on any of the three rolls is:

P(no 3 in three rolls) = (5/6) * (5/6) * (5/6) = 125/216

The probability of the complement event (at least one 3) is:

P(at least one 3) = 1 - P(no 3 in three rolls) = 1 - (125/216) = 91/216

Rounded to six decimal places, the probability is approximately 0.421296.

Thus, the probability that the die comes up 3 at least once is approximately 0.421296.

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These box plots show the basketball scores for two teams Bulldogs & Wolvernies.

Here we have to compare the spread of scores by Interquartile Range.

The interquartile range defines the difference between the third and the first quartile

It express as : Upper Quartile - Lower Quartile

For the Bulldogs :

Upper Quartile is 90

Lower Quartile is 70

So, Interquartile Range = Upper Quartile - Lower Quartile

Interquartile Range = 90 - 70

Interquartile Range = 20

For the Wolveniers :

Upper Quartile is 85

Lower Quartile is 55

So, Interquartile Range = Upper Quartile - Lower Quartile

Interquartile Range = 85 - 55

Interquartile Range = 30

as : 20 < 30

So, The Interquartile Range for bulldogs, 20 is less than the IQR for the Wolveniers, 30.

Answer : B) The Interquartile Range for bulldogs, 20 is less than the IQR for the Wolveniers, 30.