Pellagra occurs when corn is the staple grain in the diet and the diet does not provide a mixture of different foods.
Pellagra is a disease that occurs when a person does not get enough niacin, or vitamin B-3.
There are two types of pellagra that is primary and other is secondary. Primary pellagra comes from not getting enough niacin in the diet, while secondary pellagra develops when the body is unable to absorb niacin. Niacin is found in animal proteins, fruits, and vegetables. The body can also make niacin using essential amino acids. The body gets these amino acids from other foods, such as chicken and sunflower seeds. Primary pellagra is more common in areas where people depend on corn food, because the niacin in corn is in the form of niacin, which people cannot digest and absorb.
Certain conditions, such as alcohol abuse and HIV infection, prevent the body from absorbing niacin and can lead to Reliable Source secondary pellagra.
Causes and Risk Factors
The causes of primary and secondary pellagra are different.
Primary pellagra occurs when a person's diet is low in niacin. The people most at risk of getting pellagra first are those whose diet is based on corn. It's hard to find reliable sources in developed countries, where manufacturers are constantly fortifying flour with niacin. A person who cannot absorb vitamin B-3, despite eating a diet rich in niacin, may develop secondary pellagra. The main risk factor for secondary pellagra is alcohol abuse. Another article from 2014 showed that poor consumption of alcohol can cause pellagra through poor nutrition. A person may not be eating enough foods containing niacin, and alcohol can prevent the body from absorbing it. Alcohol can also prevent some proteins from converting to niacin, increasing the risk of developing pellagra.
However, pellagra caused by alcohol is often not diagnosed because its presentation is similar to that of alcohol-withdrawal delirium.
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which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever? group of answer choices rodent reservoir presence of rash mode of transmission treatment with tetracycline rising and falling body temperature
Rising and falling body temperature is true for relapsing fever and undulant fever.
What is undulant fever?
Undulant fever is also called brucellosis in humans or Mediterranean fever.
It is an infection that spreads to people from animals, mostly by unpasteurised dairy products.
Brucellosis is a bacterial infection caused by the bacteria Brucella , that affects thousands of people worldwide.
Symptoms include rising and falling fevers, sweats, anorexia, headache, malaise, weakness, myalgia (muscle pain) and back pain.
Brucellosis is called undulant fever because the fever is usually undulant, rising and falling like a wave.
Therefore, rising and falling body temperature is true for relapsing fever and undulant fever.
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You have been performing multiple-provider CPR on a
patient in cardiac arrest. The patient is now showing signs of return
of spontaneous circulation (ROSC). Which action(s) would the team
perform?
Select all correct options that apply.
Continue compressions for another minute.
Stop CPR
Check for breathing and pulse.
Give 2 ventilations
Remove the AED pads.
Answer:
they would preform a miracle
Explanation:
Answer:stop CPR/AED.
Check for breathing and carotid or femoral pulse.
Monitor the patient until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
Explanation:
All these are what you should do.
Case Study 3 – Consent
A 14-year-old youth suffering depression does not want to discuss his problems with his parents. He seeks help from a community health centre. On his first visit he is provided with counselling and asked to return for a second visit where the possibility of medication will be discussed. He is reassured that his parents do not have to be involved if he does not want them to be. Researchers from the centre are looking for people to take part in a study that will find out if a new investigational drug can help in the treatment of depression. They invite the fourteen-year-old to participate in the randomised controlled trial. The researchers say that parental consent is not needed for the 14-year-old to access treatment so they do not need to obtain parental consent for him to participate in the research.
Questions
Is the researcher’s view correct?
Does it depend on the nature of the reasarch?
most driver mutations for most different cancers occur quizlet
Answer:
Driver mutations for different cancers occur on specific genes that play crucial roles in cell growth and regulation.
Explanation:
These driver mutations can lead to the development and progression of cancer by disrupting normal cellular processes and promoting uncontrolled cell growth. The following are examples of some commonly mutated genes in different types of cancer:
TP53 (p53): This tumor suppressor gene is commonly mutated in many types of cancer, including lung, colorectal, breast, and ovarian cancer. Mutations in TP53 can impair its ability to regulate cell growth and DNA repair, leading to genomic instability and increased cancer risk.
KRAS: Mutations in the KRAS gene are frequently found in pancreatic, colorectal, and lung cancers. These mutations can result in overactivation of signaling pathways involved in cell growth and division, promoting tumor formation and progression.
EGFR (Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor): EGFR mutations are prevalent in lung adenocarcinoma and can lead to increased cell proliferation and survival. Targeted therapies, such as EGFR inhibitors, are often used to treat lung cancer patients with specific EGFR mutations.
BRCA1 and BRCA2: These genes are associated with an increased risk of breast, ovarian, and other cancers. Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 impair DNA repair mechanisms, leading to genomic instability and an elevated susceptibility to cancer development.
HER2 (Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2): Amplification or overexpression of the HER2 gene occurs in a subset of breast and gastric cancers. HER2-positive tumors are associated with more aggressive disease and can be targeted with HER2-directed therapies.
It is important to note that driver mutations can vary across different types and subtypes of cancers, and not all cancers have well-defined driver mutations. Additionally, the identification of specific driver mutations is essential for personalized cancer treatment, as targeted therapies can be developed to inhibit the effects of these mutations and improve patient outcomes.
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You are the office manager for a busy primary care practice.over the past week you have notice that the one of your employees has been 15 minutes late every day.should you approach this employee? If so how do you manage the situation? What are the main points you would want to stress to this employee? Are there any consequences? What follow-up if any should be done
Answer:
Whether it’s bad traffic, oversleeping or caring for a sick pet, employees offer up lots of different excuses when they show up late for work. As the manager, you may overlook it the first time. But what if it becomes a pattern?
Employee lateness is a widespread problem. A 2016 survey by CareerBuilder found that one in four employees admits to showing up late for work once a month, whereas 13 percent of employees say it’s a weekly occurrence. Managers say they hear all sorts of excuses: “A black bear entered my carport and decided to take a nap on the hood of my car.” “I was detained by Homeland Security.” “My hair caught on fire from my blow dryer.”
Employees who rarely arrive late to work should probably be given the benefit of the doubt—as there are valid reasons for being late. (Tires really do go flat!) But it’s generally in a manager’s best interest to confront employees who frequently—or always—show up late.
Late employees can reduce business productivity, especially if they aren’t making up for lost work time at the end of their shifts. Moreover, it hurts the morale and work ethic of other employees who might resent that the late arrivers aren’t getting called out or disciplined for their lateness. It might even encourage other employees to start showing up late to work if they see no consequence for the bad behavior.
But don’t despair. Businesses have many opportunities to boost the odds that employees will show up when they’re supposed to. Here are ways to discourage employees from arriving late, as well as how to deal with those who regularly do:
Explanation:
Depositions are A. written quiestions that must be answered under oath. B. a discovery method for obtaining documentary evidence. C. a discovery method for avoiding the need to prove a fact in court D. a discovery method for obtaining testimony under oath
Depositions are a discovery method for obtaining testimony under oath. In a deposition, an attorney or representative of a litigant will ask questions of a witness or other party in order to elicit answers from them.
Correct option is C.
When done correctly, depositions are a powerful tool to obtain the evidence and to gather the truth about a case. The questions can be difficult, and the witness must be sure to answer them truthfully. Depositions are conducted outside of a courtroom, typically in an attorney’s office, and they are recorded.
The parties to the case will have to agree on the questions to be answered and the time the deposition will take place. The questions that are asked, and all of the answers provided, become part of the evidence for the case. Depositions help attorneys to prepare their case for a jury, as they can make sure that all the facts will come out in the open.
Correct option is C.
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What equipment is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient? a) Test tubes or sterile ampules O b) Petri dishes and sterile droppers c) Sterile syringes or graduated cylinders d) Measuring cups and clean, warm water
How much Dextrose 70% must be mixed with Dextrose 5% to prepare 1,000mL of Dextrose 20%? *
Answer:
231 ml
Explanation:
Let x represent the amo unt of Dextrose 70% in ml and y represent the amount of Dextrose 5% in ml needed to prepare 1,000mL of Dextrose 20%.
Since 1000 ml of Dextrose 20% is needed, hence:
x + y = 1000 (1)
Also 70% Dextrose is mixed with 5% dextrose to produce 20% dextrose. i.e.:
70% of x + 5% of y = 20% of 1000
0.7x + 0.05y = 200 (2)
We have to solve equations 1 and 2 simultaneously.
Let us multiply equation 2 by 20:
14x + y = 4000 (3)
subtract equation 1 from 3:
13x = 3000
x = 231 ml
Put x = 231 in equation 1 to find y:
231 + y = 1000
y = 769 ml
Therefore 231 ml of Dextrose 70% must be mixed with 769 ml of Dextrose 5% to prepare 1,000mL of Dextrose 20%? *
Process of introducing a dead pathogen or nontoxic part of a pathogen into the body to provoke an immune response that prevents a certain disease; also called immunization.
The Process of introducing a dead pathogen or nontoxic part of a pathogen into the body to provoke an immune response that prevents a certain disease is called Vaccination also called immunization.
Vaccination is the administration of a vaccine to help the immune system develop immunity to disease. Vaccines contain weakened, live or dead microorganisms or viruses, or proteins or toxins of biological origin. It helps prevent illness from infectious diseases by stimulating the body's adaptive immunity. Herd immunity is achieved when a sufficient percentage of the population is vaccinated. Herd immunity protects those who may have weakened immunity and cannot be vaccinated. The effectiveness of vaccination has been extensively studied and validated. Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent infectious diseases. Broad immunity through vaccination has contributed significantly to the global eradication of smallpox and the widespread eradication of diseases such as polio and tetanus worldwide. However, for some diseases, such as the measles outbreak in the United States, cases increased due to relatively low vaccination coverage in the 2010s. According to the World Health Organization, vaccination prevents 3.5 to 5 million deaths per year.
Immunization and vaccination have similar meanings in colloquial language. This differs from vaccination, which uses live, non-attenuated pathogens. Vaccination efforts have been reluctant for scientific, ethical, political, medical, and religious reasons, but no major religion opposes vaccination, and some We consider it essential because it has the potential to save lives.In the United States, compensation for suspected injuries is available under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program. Early success led to widespread adoption, and massive vaccination campaigns significantly reduced the incidence of many diseases in many regions.
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What measures would you use to protect Mr.Jackson's safety in the nursing home
Answer:
Miles
Explanation:
1. A hospital needs to sterilize several heat-sensitive, plastic catheters (a flexible tube inserted into a body cavity, such as a bladder) that will be used on patients. What might the appropriate chemical agent be to control for microbial growth? Explain how this chemical agent works to control microbial growth. 2. A scoutleader is packing a first aid kit to take along during a scout camping trip. What type of chemical agent would be a logical choice to include in the kit for treating wounds? Explain how this chemical agent works to control microbial growth. 3. A prospective restaurant manager is researching different types of disinfectants to use in her eating establishment. What type of chemical agent would be a good choice to clean food contact surfaces, such as kitchen counters and tabletops? Explain how this chemical agent works to control microbial growth. 4. You have recently opened a fresh juice business called ReFRESHers. You rent a commercial kitchen commissary space once a month to produce your product. You specialize in making and packaging fresh fruit juices. There are several instances in food production, such as the fruit juice business, where chemical and physical control agents are needed to control for microbial growth. Give an example of a chemical and a physical control agent that could be used in this scenario. Explain the typical use of each of these control agents, and how they work to control microbial growth.
1. A hospital needs to sterilize several heat-sensitive, plastic catheters (a flexible tube inserted into a body cavity, such as a bladder) that will be used on patients. An appropriate chemical agent that can control microbial growth in this case is ethylene oxide (EtO). Ethylene oxide (EtO) is a gas that sterilizes and disinfects medical supplies that cannot withstand high temperatures or moisture. When ethylene oxide gas comes into contact with microbial cells, it damages their DNA by crosslinking adjacent nucleotides to inhibit their ability to replicate and survive. The exposure time and concentration of EtO required to control microbial growth depends on the size and composition of the item being sterilized.
2. A scout leader is packing a first aid kit to take along during a scout camping trip. The chemical agent that can be included in the kit for treating wounds is hydrogen peroxide. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is a chemical that can be used as a mild antiseptic to prevent the growth of microorganisms in minor cuts, scrapes, and burns. The hydrogen peroxide works by releasing oxygen that breaks down the cell walls and membranes of bacteria, fungi, and viruses to inhibit their growth and remove dirt and debris from wounds.
3. A prospective restaurant manager is researching different types of disinfectants to use in her eating establishment. An appropriate chemical agent that can be used to clean food contact surfaces, such as kitchen counters and tabletops, is sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl). Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) is a chemical disinfectant that works by destroying the cell walls and metabolic processes of microbes like bacteria, viruses, and fungi. When added to water, it dissociates into hypochlorous acid (HOCl) and sodium ions (Na+), and the HOCl works by disrupting cellular proteins, DNA, and lipids to kill microbes.
4. An example of a chemical and a physical control agent that could be used in this scenario:
To control microbial growth in the fruit juice business, the following chemical and physical control agents can be used:
Chemical control agent: Potassium sorbate (C6H7KO2)Potassium sorbate is a preservative that is used to inhibit the growth of mold, yeast, and fungi in food and beverage products. When added to fruit juice, it works by interfering with the enzymes involved in the metabolism of microbes and preventing them from producing energy. The typical use of potassium sorbate in the fruit juice business is to add it at the end of the pasteurization process to prevent post-pasteurization contamination.Physical control agent: UV radiationUV radiation is a physical disinfection method that is used to kill bacteria and viruses on surfaces and in liquids. When the fruit juice is exposed to UV radiation, it damages the DNA of microorganisms, inhibiting their ability to replicate and survive. The typical use of UV radiation in the fruit juice business is to install a UV sterilizer in the water treatment system to remove microbes from the water before it is added to the juice.learn more about the Ethylene oxide : https://brainly.com/question/28197848
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the paracrine hormone that has a role to play in the immune system,derived from aranchidonic acid is?
Answer:
Eicosanoids
hope this helps!
Use the Internet to research vital signs, the pulse, and blood pressure. Discuss your findings and include these points:
Describe what blood pressure and pulse are and why they are used.
Identify the normal ranges for blood pressure and pulse for adults.
Identify three reasons why a patient would have an elevated pulse.
Describe five risk factors for high blood pressure.
Identify two classifications of drugs used to treat high blood pressure.
Identify two pieces of medical equipment needed to check a patient’s blood pressure.
Discuss these medical terms in your report:
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Hypertension
Hypotension
Answer:
b
Explanation:
How do immunity affected by blood transfusions?
Answer:
Patients often develop antibodies to transfused red blood cells making it more difficult to find a match if future transfusions are needed
Explanation:
Comparing State Requirements
Why are the requirements for pharmacy technicians different in each state?
a. The 10th Amendment allows each state to develop it's own Pharmacy Practice Act, which defines the role of the pharmacy technician.
b. The role of the pharmacy technician is more demanding and has greater responsibilities in states that require certification.
c. States without certification requirements have a greater need for pharmacy technicians, so there are fewer barriers to starting in this career.
d. The Pharmacy Practice Act in each state allows the Boards of Pharmacy to decide if certification or registration is important in that state.
Answer:
A. The 10th Amendment allows each state to develop it's own Pharmacy Practice Act, which defines the role of the pharmacy technician.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Answer:
A. The 10th Amendment allows each state to develop its own Pharmacy Practice Act, which defines the role of the pharmacy technician.
Explanation:
EDG 22'
O False
QUESTION 4
What type of study is described in the following excerpt?
An interprofessional team wants to test a new intervention to see whether it will improve central-line associated bloodstream
infection (CLABSI) rates. Subjects were randomized into either the intervention or the control group by pulling a slip of paper with
either a one or a two written on it from a manila envelope (those pulling ones were randomized to the intervention group: those
pulling twos were randomized to the control group). When the study began, the intervention group received the intervention and the
control group received equal attention. Data was collected and analyzed using the Statistical Package for the Social Sciences (SPSS).
Descriptive statistics were used to report the data.
A
What type of research article is this?
OA. Quantitative research
O B. Qualitative research
OC. Systematic reviews
OD. Literature reviews
O E. Mixed methods
OF. Program evaluation
A kind of experiment where numerical data is collected is called a quantitative research.
What is a research?A research is a carefully designed scientific study. We often carry out a research in order to make deductions about certain situations. In this case, we have to study whether or not a new intervention to see whether it will improve central-line associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) rates.
The subjects were randomized into either the intervention or the control group by pulling a slip of paper with either a one or a two written on it from a manila envelope (those pulling ones were randomized to the intervention group: those pulling twos were randomized to the control group).
Now, we can see that in this experiment, numerical data was collected. A kind of experiment where numerical data is collected is called a quantitative research.
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2. Referring to Procedures Completed on the Eyeball (65091-65290):
Match the following medical term with the corresponding definition
3
A. Evisceration
B. Enucleation
C. Exenteration
The removal of the eye, leaving the muscles and remaining orbital contents intact.
The removal of the eyeball and the surrounding tissues, including the eyelids.
The removal of the eye's contents, leaving the scleral shell and extraocular
muscles intact.
3. Referring to Procedures Completed on they Eyeball (65091-65290):
Answer:
The answer is A.
dr. simonelli is a practicing behavior analyst. what does she do?
Answer:
she usually modifies behavioral techniques
Explanation:
Reflect on strategies for personal awareness,
Specifically, mindfulness meditation is one of the best ways to learn more about how your thoughts work. When you practice watching and observing our thoughts without attaching to them or thinking about them, you begin to realize a powerful idea: You are not your thoughts.
What are the consequences of losing neuroglial cell function
Answer:
A dense network of blood vessels transports oxygen and nutrients to and from the brain, which consumes 10 times more oxygen and nutrients than any other organ.
Explanation:
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS
Endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia, grade III, on cervical biopsy and endocervical curettage.
PRIMARY PROCEDURE
1. CONE BIOPSY.
2. ENDOCERVICAL CURETTAGE.
3. ENDOMETRIAL CURETTAGE WITH BIOPSY
icd-10 code, cpt code, cpt code
The codes for the procedures are;
Cone Biopsy: 57520
Endocervical Curettage: 57420
Endometrial Curettage with Biopsy: 58120
What are ICD codes of procedures?ICD-10-PCS (Procedure Coding System), a comparable system that is created exclusively for coding procedures, is available. Inpatient operations in the United States use ICD-10-PCS.
Each character stands for a distinct element of the procedure, such as the affected body system, the strategy, the tool employed, and the goal of the procedure
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What is the definition of Waste in insurance
Answer: It means Waste is overutilization of services or other practices that, directly or indirectly, result in unnecessary costs to the healthcare system, including the Medicare and Medicaid programs.
Explanation:
Rebound tenderness is a result of what?
A.Peritoneal irritation B.Esophageal varices C.GERD D.Ileus
Rebound tenderness is a result of (A) Peritoneal irritation. Rebound tenderness, also known as Blumberg's sign or the Shy-Meyer sign, is a sign of peritoneal irritation that occurs when palpating (pressing and then quickly releasing) the abdomen.
The peritoneum, or the lining of the abdominal cavity, is the cause of rebound tenderness. When the peritoneum is inflamed, the irritation will be amplified as the examiner releases pressure. However, if the inflammation is severe enough, there may be a small amount of pain even as pressure is being applied.
In simple terms, rebound tenderness happens when the examiner quickly withdraws their hand after applying pressure to the abdomen. When the peritoneum is inflamed, this motion produces pain that is more severe than the original pain. In cases of peritoneal irritation, rebound tenderness is frequently present.
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Indicate whether each effect or symptom is associated with acute (short-term) or chronic (long-term) stress.
Answer:
Increases consumption of glycogen, increased angiotensin secretion, increased breakdown of protein and increase gluconeogenesis is also acute stress.
Decreases testosterone or estrogen, deceased immunity and increased sodium retention are the examples of chronic stress.
Explanation:
Increases consumption of glycogen, increased angiotensin secretion, increased breakdown of protein and increase gluconeogenesis is also acute stress means the type of stress that occurs for a short period of time or have short term effect on the body and then vanished, while on the other hand, decreases testosterone or estrogen, deceased immunity and increased sodium retention are the examples of chronic stress means have long term stress on the body and its organs.
medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
What is the expected end feel for PROM accessory following a humeral neck fracture that heals with a mal union?
A humeral neck fracture with malunion may result in an altered end feel for passive range of motion (PROM) accessory movements. In a normal joint, the end feel is the resistance experienced when a joint is passively moved to its limit. There are three primary types of end feels: bony, soft tissue approximation, and tissue stretch.
In the case of a humeral neck fracture with malunion, the expected end feel for PROM accessory movements would likely be different from a normal joint, as the malunion may lead to structural changes and limited mobility. The end feels could potentially be bony, due to the altered bone structure and abnormal bone contact. Additionally, soft tissue approximation or tissue stretch end feels might also be present if there is excessive scar tissue or muscle tightness, which could further limit joint mobility.
Overall, the end feels for PROM accessory movements following a humeral neck fracture with malunion can vary depending on the specific changes to bone structure and surrounding soft tissue. clinicians need to assess each case individually to determine the appropriate course of treatment and rehabilitation.
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Anya and her husband are considering having a baby. Anya’s obstetrician recommends that she stop consuming alcohol and update her immunizations:
Answer:
before she gets pregnant
Explanation:
It has been shown that drinking alcohol in early pregnancy, especially during the first three months, increases the risk of spontaneous abortion, premature birth and low birth weight, as well as physical, behavioral, and intellectual deficits. These conditions associated with drinking alcohol during pregnancy are known as fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs). When a pregnant woman drinks alcohol, it can pass from the mother's bloodstream into the developing baby's bloodstream and thus affect the growth of the baby's cells. In consequence, health professionals don't recommend drinking alcohol while pregnant due to its harmful effects on the developing fetus.
8
Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly.
Point
is the vertex of the angle marked in the figure.
After measuring peak expiratory flow, paramedics note that this reading varies by 30rom previous readings. what does this indicate in regards to the exacerbation?
If the peak expiratory flow (PEF) reading varies by 30 or more from previous readings, it may indicate that the patient's condition is worsening or that they are experiencing an exacerbation.
PEF is a measure of how fast air can be exhaled from the lungs, and it is often used to monitor the severity of asthma and other respiratory conditions.
A significant decrease in PEF from previous readings may indicate that the patient's airways are becoming more constricted or inflamed, which can make it more difficult for them to breathe.
This may be due to a variety of factors, such as exposure to allergens or irritants, respiratory infections, or changes in medication or treatment.
It is important for paramedics and other healthcare providers to monitor PEF readings regularly, especially in patients with known respiratory conditions.
If there is a significant change in PEF from previous readings, it may be necessary to adjust the patient's treatment or seek additional medical attention to prevent further exacerbation of their condition.
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Match the term with the definitions below. A.A study plan on which all clinical trials are based B.Any of the treatment groups in a randomized trial C.The process of learning the key facts about a clinical trial before deciding whether or not to participate D.A modification of the effect of the drug when administered with another drug E.None of the above
Answer:
A. Protocols.
B. ARM.
C. Informed consent.
D. Drug interaction.
Explanation:
A. Protocols: A study plan on which all clinical trials are based. This study plan should be designed carefully in order to protect the participant's health while addressing specific research questions.
B. ARM: Any of the treatment groups in a randomized trial. Thus, it is typically the different segments of study.
C. Informed consent: The process of learning the key facts about a clinical trial before deciding whether or not to participate.
D. Drug interaction: A modification of the effect of the drug when administered with another drug.