Part Uncle Mel suffers from depression and is having trouble sleeping. Some medications can increase the amount of neurotransmitter in the synapse by preventing its re-uptake into the presynaptic neuron or its degradation. This increases the level of the neurotransmitter in the synapse and prolongs its effects. Select which neurotransmitters you think might be a good target for anti-depressant drugs. A. Glutamate B. GABA C. Serotonin D. Endorphins E. Dopamine F. Norepinephrine
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Parosmia, or olfactory distortion, is a condition that causes a person’s sense of smell to become distorted. For example, coffee may smell like sewage. Parosmia is one of the long lasting effects of a COVID-19 infection, affecting around 40% of survivors.
Create and describe a rodent behavioral experiment to model parosmia following COVID-19 infection. Make sure to describe:
The experimental paradigm, the independent and dependent variables, how you plan to measure them, and how you will interpret your data
A control experiment, and write whether it is a positive or negative control
What other behavior might you accidentally be measuring in this design? What additional experiment can you perform to eliminate this confound?
Answers
In a rodent experiment, COVID-infected rodents are tested for distorted olfactory responses compared to uninfected rodents, using a control group and a positive control experiment for validation.
In a rodent behavioral experiment to model parosmia following COVID-19 infection, healthy rodents are exposed to the virus while a control group remains uninfected.
Olfactory testing using a standardized behavioral assay measures the rodents' olfactory responses to different odors. Distorted or altered olfactory responses in the infected group compared to the control group indicate parosmia-like symptoms.
A positive control experiment using a substance known to induce olfactory dysfunction validates the sensitivity of the assay. To address potential confounds, a sham-infected group exposed to a non-infectious control substance can be included. Comparing their responses to the control group helps identify non-specific effects of the experimental procedures.
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Select the accessory organs that deposit secretions directly into the duodenum. (Select multiple)AppendixGallbladderJejunumStomachSalivary GlandsPancreas
Answers
The accessory organs that deposit secretions directly into the duodenum are:- Pancreas
- Liver (through the bile ducts)
The salivary glands, stomach, jejunum, appendix do not deposit secretions directly into the duodenum. The gallbladder does not deposit secretions directly into the duodenum, but it stores and releases bile produced by the liver, which does deposit secretions directly into the duodenum through the bile ducts.
The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes, such as amylase, lipase, and proteases, which are essential for the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine. The liver produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine.
Overall, these accessory organs play important roles in the digestive process, and their secretions are necessary for the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.
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Please, anybody help!
The modern Hippocratic Oath mainly focuses on the principles of beneficience and nonmaleficence. Update the modern Hippocratic Oath including one of the other principles (principle of autonomy, principle of utility, or principle of justice)
Also, provide an example.
Answers
Answer:are there mutipule outcomes?
Explanation:
Which of the following is considered a contraindication to the administration of succinylcholine?
ARenal failure with a serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
BSpinal cord injury sustained one month earlier
CStroke with onset 24 hours prior to arrival
DThird degree burns sustained one hour prior to arriva
Answers
The administration of succinylcholine chloride is contraindicated in patients with known decreased plasma cholinesterase activity, recent burns or trauma within 24 to 72 hours, and muscle myopathies.
Psychological trauma is a response to an event that a person finds highly stressful. Examples include being in a war zone, a natural disaster, or an accident. Trauma can cause a wide range of physical and emotional symptoms.
Not everyone who experiences a stressful event will develop trauma. There are also various types of trauma. Some people will develop symptoms that resolve after a few weeks, while others will have more long-term effects.
A burn is an injury to the skin or other organic tissue primarily caused by heat or due to radiation, radioactivity, electricity, friction or contact with chemicals. Thermal (heat) burns occur when some or all of the cells in the skin or other tissues are destroyed by: hot liquids (scalds).
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How do researchers come up with new scientific questions?
A. They question how or why something occurs.
B. The government provides the questions researchers need to
answer.
O c. They accept all current knowledge as truth.
O D. Funding groups provide the questions researchers need to
answer.
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
They question why or how something occurs
an oncologist ordered 5FU 12 mg/kg IV qd x 4 d for a 180 # man. 5FU is available in 10 mL vials with a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient need per dose
Answers
Answer: The answer to the question is
19.6 ml
Explanation:
Patient of weight = 180 pounds
converting to Kg;
= 180/2.2= 81.81 kg approximately
The ordered dose= 12 mg /kg
In mg, it will be;
= 12mg× 81.81 kg= 981.72mg
The available dose= 50mg
and
The available volume= 1 ml
The required dose = ( the ordered dose/ the available dose) × the available volume
Imputing the values given,we have;
=( 981.72mg/50mg)× 1ml
which is;
= 19.63 ml
and that is approximately 19.6ml to be administered.
Which of the following is a way to reduce being a victim of a violent crime? A. Set limits and communicate them clearly B. Do not park your car or jog in a remote area C. Do not get into an elevator alone with a stranger D. All of the above
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Everywhere is a danger zone. Set limits ang a proper and calm communication can at least reduce violent act
Why is it important to view the body as a whole?
Answers
Knowing How Systems Interact
Beyond the individual organs and systems, it is also important to understand how the various aspects of the human body work together. The circulatory system, the respiratory system, the lymphatic system, and more all play a part in human health and the interactions can be healthy or unhealthy.
By understanding how the systems interact, you can determine the proper care for each individual patient and their specific symptoms. With a foundation of anatomy and physiology, you will have the building blocks to make the proper decisions and provide accurate and quality care.
for which reasons are patients unlikely to introduce the topic of sex with health care providers? select all that apply.
Answers
Embarrassment to discuss a personal subject and fear of being judged can cause the patient to avoid the introduction of the topic.
Sexual intercourse isn't attention in this query, and it can't be generalized that sufferers have few questions or problems on any topics. fitness care professionals are typically considered to be informed in situation matters related to fitness and infection.
The topic of sexuality doesn’t continually come up within the medical doctor’s office, even if it’s impacted by health situations and remedies. both sufferers and healthcare carriers may also experience uncomfortable addressing sexual problems, or some might think that sex-associated questions aren’t crucial.
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___ assists with understanding of life decisions to be made based on genetic testing results, stressing
compassion in the face of scientific realities.
a. Human Genome Project
b. ELSI
c. Green Alliance
d. GINA
e. Genetic counseling
Answers
Answer:
genetic counseling
Explanation:
Took it on the test
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Answers
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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the status of the immune system in someone with hiv infection can be monitored by checking
Answers
The status of the immune system in someone with HIV infection can be monitored by checking CD4 T-cell count and viral load.
CD4 T-cell count is a measure of the number of CD4-positive T cells in the blood. CD4 T cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. HIV primarily targets and infects CD4 T cells, leading to their depletion. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count helps assess the immune system's ability to defend against infections. A lower CD4 T-cell count indicates a weakened immune system.Viral load refers to the amount of HIV genetic material (RNA) present in the blood. It is measured as the number of copies of HIV RNA per milliliter of blood. Monitoring viral load provides information about the level of HIV replication and helps assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART). A lower viral load indicates better control of the virus and reduced risk of disease progression.Regular monitoring of CD4 T-cell count and viral load allows healthcare providers to track the progression of HIV infection, evaluate the effectiveness of treatment, and make informed decisions regarding the management of the disease. It helps determine when to initiate or modify ART and identify individuals who may be at higher risk of opportunistic infections or other HIV-related complications.In addition to CD4 T-cell count and viral load, other laboratory tests and clinical assessments may be used to evaluate the immune system's status and overall health of individuals living with HIV. Regular medical follow-up and adherence to treatment are essential for maintaining optimal immune function and managing HIV infection effectively.
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The best measure to estimate the proportion of students
at any
time is:?
a. Point prevalence rate
b.Period prevalence rate.
Answers
the prefix ab- means what?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
It means away
A nurse is explaining the clinical manifestations of diabetic nephropathy (diabetic glomerulosclerosis) to a patient. Which would be the most important information for the nurse to provide?
a. It is not necessary to stop smoking.
b. A decrease in GFR will occur with early alterations.
c. Microalbuminuria is a predictor of future nephropathies.
d. Blood glucose control has no impact on GFR.
Answers
The most important information for the nurse to provide to the patient is that microalbuminuria is a predictor of future nephropathies.
Microalbuminuria is an early indicator of diabetic nephropathy and occurs when the kidneys are unable to filter out small amounts of albumin, a protein found in urine. This is usually an indication that the kidneys are already starting to be damaged and that further damage is likely if proactive steps are not taken.
Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the patient that controlling blood glucose levels and making lifestyle changes, such as stopping smoking, are important in order to prevent further kidney damage.
Monitoring urine albumin levels can help to identify kidney damage before more serious symptoms present. It is also important for the nurse to explain that the decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is an early alteration of diabetic nephropathy and that it is unrelated to blood glucose control.
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Write a short explanation understandable to a patient's family on why antibiotics are being combined in the treatment of their family member.
Answers
we are adding antibiotics to your (family member enter here) treatment because your (family member enter here) is rejecting the treatment or the treatment is not strong enough.
The number of deaths in the United States due to the new crown epidemic exceeded 700,000 on October 1, accounting for about 14% of the world's 5 million deaths. In the past week, an average of 2,000 people died a day across the United States.
Answers
While taking a patient’s medical history, Susan asks about his social history. She asks whether he drinks alcohol. The patient immediately becomes defensive and accuses Susan of getting too personal about his affairs.
a. How might Susan explain her reasons for asking these questions? What options are available if the patient refuses to discuss his social history with Susan?
b. Could this opposition to questions about the social history raise suspicion in Susan’s mind? What might she suspect?
Answers
Answer:
okok so
Explanation:
a: explain that its simply for the records and not to judge or conifine him in anyway.
b: yes, she may suspect him to be a acoholic of somekind
It should be noted that Susan can explain to the patient that his social history is relevant to the case as it can be used to aid the treatment.
The opposition to questions about the social history can not raise suspicion in Susan’s mind. By not providing his social history, the patient will not raise suspicion in the mind of Susan as some people as just defensive in their privacy.
It is Susan's responsibility because the doctor has very little amount of time. To answer the patient’s question, it is vital to tell the patient the reason behind the formality and why the doctor cannot do it.
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how does the urinary tract infection affect the endocrine system?
Answers
PLEASSEEEEE HELPPP
Which of the following lists ALL the information required in the health care
facility's record when a biohazard bag leaves the building?
A. Landfill to which it's going, type of container, and staff signature
B. Type of container and number of containers
C. Date of disposal, landfill to which it's going, type of container, and
the number of containers
D. Date of disposal and staff signature
SUBNA
Answers
The lists ALL the information required in the health care facility's record when a biohazard bag leaves the building are Date of disposal, landfill to which it's going, type of container, and the number of containers.
So, the correct option is C.
What is a biohazard bag used for?The biohazard bag is used to disposal of solid or liquid items contaminated with blood or other infectious materials.
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Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by
a
unwarranted suspiciousness and mistrust of other people
b
unusual preoccupation with rules and schedules
c
instability revolving around problems of mood and thought processes
d
lack of interest in social relationships
Answers
Difference between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke.
Answers
An ischemic stroke occurs when a blood vessel supplying the brain becomes blocked, as by a clot. A hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood vessel bursts, leaking blood into the brain.
a nurse is providing care for a child diagnosed with beta-thalassemia. the child requires a blood transfusion of packed red blood cells (prbcs). the health care provider has prescribed a transfusion volume of 10 ml/kg. the child weighs 37 lb (16.8 kg). how many milliliters should the nurse infuse?
Answers
A nurse is caring for a youngster who has been diagnosed with beta-thalassemia. The youngster needed a packed red blood cell transfusion (PRBCs). A transfusion volume of 10 mL/kg has been ordered by the doctor. The youngster weighs 37 pounds (16.8 kg). The nurse should infuse 168 milliliters.
The nurse will multiply the client's weight in kilograms by the prescribed milliliters/kilogram. 16.8 kg × 10 mL PRBCs = 168 mL. Beta thalassemia seems to be a blood condition that causes a decrease in hemoglobin production. Hemoglobin would be an iron-containing protein found in red blood cells which transports oxygen throughout the body. Low hemoglobin levels in beta thalassemia patients diminish oxygen levels in the body.
Affected people also have a lack of red blood cells (anemia), which can result in pale complexion, weakness, weariness, and other significant consequences. People who have beta thalassemia are more likely to develop irregular blood clots. Thalassemia main symptoms develop within the first two years of life. Children acquire potentially fatal anemia.
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what is the set point (normal level) for blood glucose?
Answers
Blood glucose is an important measure of human health, as it indicates the amount of sugar present in the bloodstream at a given time. The set point, also known as the normal level, for blood glucose is the range of values that is considered healthy and safe for an individual.
This range can vary depending on a person's age, weight, and overall health status, as well as other factors such as diet and exercise.The set point for blood glucose is typically considered to be between 70-130 mg/dL, with a target level of less than 180 mg/dL after meals. When blood glucose levels fall below this range, it can result in hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, which can cause symptoms such as weakness, dizziness, and confusion.
On the other hand, when blood glucose levels rise above this range, it can result in hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, which can lead to complications such as damage to blood vessels and nerves over time. Therefore, it is important for individuals to monitor their blood glucose levels regularly, especially those with diabetes or other conditions that affect blood sugar regulation. Additionally, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including a balanced diet and regular exercise, can help to keep blood glucose levels within the set point range and promote overall health.
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after the nurse explains how the tens unit soothes pain, the client wants to know the best way to apply and use the unit. which instructions should the nurse include? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
Answers
When instructing the client on how to apply and use the tens unit, the nurse should include the following instructions:
1. Clean the area of the skin where the electrodes will be placed using mild soap and water, ensuring it is dry before applying the electrodes.
2. Apply the electrodes directly to the skin over the area of pain or discomfort.
3. Make sure the electrodes are securely attached and in good contact with the skin.
4. Start with the unit turned off and at a low-intensity level, gradually increasing it until a comfortable level of pain relief is achieved.
5. Use the unit for the recommended duration as advised by the nurse or healthcare provider.
6. Avoid applying the electrodes over open wounds, irritated or infected skin, or areas with decreased sensation.
7. Follow the manufacturer's instructions for battery replacement and device maintenance.
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Conjugated estrogens tablets (PREMARIN) are available in strengths of 0.3 mg, 0.45 mg, 0.625 mg, 0.9 mg and 1.25 mg. If patient "A" took one tablet daily of the lowest dose and patient ‘‘B’’ took one tablet daily of the highest dose, what is the difference in the total quantities taken between patients ‘‘A’’ and ‘‘B’’ over a period of 30 days (a) 2.85 mg (b) 2850mg (c) 2.85 cg (d) 2.85dg
Answers
Answer:
(c) 2.85 cg
Explanation:
Patient A:
- Lowest dose >> 0.3 mg x 30 days = 9 mg
Patient B:
- Highest dose >> 1.25 mg x 30days = 37.5 mg
Comparison of dose between patients = 37.5 mg - 9 mg = 28.5 mg >>> 1 centigram is equivalent to ten (10) milligrams (mg), thereby the correct answer is (c) 2.85 cg
Premarin is a medication that contains conjugated estrogens (hormones). It is commonly used in the USA to treat menopause symptoms like hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
The direct visual examination of the tissues of the cervix and vagina using a binocular magnifier is known as ______.
a. colposcopy
b. endovaginal ultrasound
c. hysteroscopy
d. laparoscopy
Answers
Answer:
A. Colposcopy.
Explanation:
By breaking down the medical terms you can figure out what procedure does what.
Colposcopy: process of viewing the vagina (colp/o = vagina)
Endovaginal Ultrasound: process of viewing within the vaginal walls using sound waves externally to produce a picture
Hysteroscopy: process of viewing the uterus (hyster/o = uterus)
Laparoscopy: process of viewing the abdominal wall (lapar/o = abdominal wall)
Which of the following insurance arrangements will be appropriate for a parent buying life insurance policy on a child where the parent is the policyowner
Answers
The kind of life insurance policy on a child where the parent is the policyowner is a third party insurance
What is third party insurance ownership?Third party insurance is a type of insurance that covers the insured party against claims made by a third party for injury or damage caused by the insured. The third party in this case is someone other than the insured or the insurance company.
This type of insurance is typically required by law in many countries and is most commonly associated with car insurance, but it can also apply to other types of insurance such as liability insurance for businesses. The ownership of third-party insurance refers to the person or entity that holds the insurance policy and is responsible for paying the premium.
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The healthcare provider can legally release private healthcare information, without patients’ consent, for all of the following except:
Answers
With the exception of the following circumstances, a healthcare provider cannot lawfully disclose a patient's confidential health information without that patient's consent.
What are the exception when a healthcare provider cannot lawfully disclose a patient's confidential health information without that patient's consent.when a medical emergency necessitates prompt treatment.when the disclosure of the information is mandated by a subpoena or a court order.when elder or child ab use or neglect is suspected.when there is a risk to the general welfare or security, as with infectious diseases.when doing so is mandated by law, such as when certain communicable diseases must be reported to public health authorities.In all other circumstances, the patient's permission is required before the healthcare provider releases their personal health information.
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What is the maximum temperature deli meats should be
stored at?
Answers
Answer:
40 degrees Fahrenheit
Explanation: