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A child who develops a septal hematoma after sustaining a nasal fracture and subsequently develops a septal abscess might develop a nasal deformity called saddle nose deformity later in life.
This occurs when the septal cartilage is damaged or destroyed, causing a collapse of the nasal bridge, which leads to the characteristic "saddle-like" appearance.
A saddle nose deformity is a depression or flattening of the bridge of the nose due to loss of support from the septum. This can occur if the septal hematoma and abscess are not properly treated and result in damage to the septum. This helps to explain the potential long-term consequences of untreated nasal fractures and septal hematomas.
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Related Questions
Recently, a health organization estimated that the flu vaccine was 72% effective against the influenza B virus. An immunologist suspects that the current flu vaccine is less effective against this virus. Pick the correct pair of hypotheses the immunologist could use to test this claim. Choose the correct answer below. A. H 0:p>0.72 H a:p<0.72 B. H 0:p=0.72 H a :p>0.72 C. H 0:p=0.72 H a:p<0.72 D. H0 ⋅p=0.72 H a:p=0.72
Answers
The immunologist could use the hypotheses given in option (C) which are H0:p=0.72 and Ha:p<0.72 to test the claim that the current flu vaccine is less effective against the influenza B virus.
Null Hypothesis (H0): It is a statement that describes a population parameter, assumes that the default position is correct and any deviation from it is due to chance. The null hypothesis represents the status quo, that there is no change from the existing situation.Alternative Hypothesis (Ha): It is a statement that describes a population parameter and hypothesizes that the default position is not correct. Alternative hypothesis represents the opposite of the null hypothesis, which is used to determine whether to accept or reject the null hypothesis.If the p-value is less than the level of significance, we reject the null hypothesis.
In this case, if p-value < α we will reject the null hypothesis, which means we will accept the alternative hypothesis. If the p-value is greater than the level of significance, we fail to reject the null hypothesis, and we do not accept the alternative hypothesis.In the given scenario, the immunologist is suspecting that the current flu vaccine is less effective against the influenza B virus. Therefore, the immunologist can use the hypotheses given in option (C) to test this claim. In this case, the null hypothesis is that the flu vaccine is 72% effective against the influenza B virus and the alternative hypothesis is that the flu vaccine is less than 72% effective against the influenza B virus.
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1. Which of these statements correctly describes a mixture? A mixture is_____
Answers
The ___ dopamine pathway plays an important role in the reinforcing and addictive properties of drugs like nicotine
Answers
What happens to air when I push a syringe of Air?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
what do you mean
Question 1 of 90.
Which route of administration is the transdermal patch?
O Ophthalmic
O Intravenous
Percutaneous
Intradermal
O Mark for follow up
Answers
Answer:
a
Explanation:
A two-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department because of vomiting. About 30 minutes prior, he was found by his parents with an open bottle containing ferrous fumarate tablets. The mother estimates about five tablets are missing, and each tablet contains 65 mg of elemental iron. The boy had three episodes of non-bloody vomiting. The physical examination is essentially normal except for tachycardia. Which of the following is the next best step?
get serum iron level four hours after ingestion
The patient has symptoms and a history compatible with iron toxicity. The severity of an exposure is related to the amount of elemental iron ingested. Ferrous sulfate contains 20 percent elemental iron, ferrous gluconate has 12 percent, and ferrous fumarate contains 33 percent. Iron is directly corrosive to the GI mucosa, which can lead to hematemesis, melena, ulceration, infarction, and potential perforation. For significant ingestions (> 20 mg/kg of elemental iron), especially when tablets are identified on the abdominal radiograph, whole-bowel irrigation with a polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage solution (PEG-ELS) is routinely recommended. Iron toxicity is described in four stages. The initial stage, 30 minutes to six hours after ingestion consists of profuse vomiting and diarrhea, abdominal pain, and significant volume losses, leading to potential hypovolemic shock. The second stage, six to 24 hours after ingestion, is the quiescent phase where GI symptoms typically resolve. In the third stage, occurring 12 to 24 hours after ingestion, patients develop multi-system organ failure, shock, hepatic and cardiac dysfunction, acute lung injury, and profound metabolic acidosis. Symptomatic patients and patients with a large exposure by history should have serum iron levels drawn four to six hours after ingestion. Serum iron concentrations of < 500 µg/dL four to eight hours after ingestion suggest a low risk of significant toxicity, whereas concentrations of > 500 µg/dL indicate significant toxicity.
Answers
Obtaining a serum iron level 4 hours after consumption would be the best course of action.
The GI mucosa is immediately corroded by iron, which can result in hematemesis, melena, blistering, infarction, & possible perforation. The quantity of elemental iron consumed affects how severe the exposure is. 20 percent of the elemental iron is present in ferrous sulfate, 12 percent is present in ferrous gluconate, and 33 percent is present in ferrous fumarate.
Serum iron levels should be measured 4 to 6 hours after intake in individuals who are symptomatic or who have had significant exposure in the past. From 4 to 8 hours after administration, serum iron levels of less than 500 g/dL indicated a low risk of substantial toxicity, but values of more than 500 g/dL signify serious toxicity.
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A 30-year-old patient has been brought to the emergency
department in cardiac arrest. The cardiac monitor shows the
following rhythm. Interpretation of this rhythm would suggest which
of the following as a possible precipitating factor?
Select the correct answer to this question.
//// Mater
Antibiotic use
Claatenution
QUESTION 3/50
Answers
For a 30-year-old patient in cardiac arrest, the rhythm shows will be electrocution.
Electrocution is dying or excessive harm due to shock from electric-powered present-day passing via the frame. The rhythm is ventricular traumatic inflammation. Precipitating reasons for ventricular fibrillation embody electrocution, myocardial ischemia or infarction, shock, stimulant overdose, and ventricular tachycardia.
An electrocution way whilst someone has died due to power. common reasons of electrocution encompass accidental touch with uncovered electric assets, inclusive of uncovered wires. The cardiac arrest takes region even as the coronary heart abruptly and all of sudden stops pumping. If this happens, blood stops flowing to the thoughts and exclusive crucial organs. Cardiac arrests are because of sure kinds of arrhythmias that prevent the coronary heart from pumping blood. Cardiac arrest isa scientific emergency.
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3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?
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The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.
What is EDTA?EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.
EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.
EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.
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Write the step of the nursing process that is related to the nursing assistant action.
Nursing Assistant Action
1. The nursing assistant assists the mature adult to ambulate.
2. The nursing assistant reports that the 18-month-old baby has difficulty
sitting up.
3. The nursing assistant reports that the teenager is still having periods of
depression.
4. The nursing assistant pads the oxygen cannula to reduce irritation behind the
patient's ears.
Nursing Process Step
Answers
Answer:
1
Explanation:
Assists the mature adult to ambulate
Antibiotic for blood infections. Enterococci are bacteria that cause blood infections in hospitalized patients. One antibiotic used to battle enterococci is vancomycin. A study by a large nationwide health system revealed that 6% of all enterococci in its hospitals were resistant to vancomycin. Consider a random sample of four patients with blood infections caused by the enterococci bacterium. Suppose that all four patients are treated with the antibiotic vancomycin. Note: Give your answers in decimal form with at least four decimal places. a) What is the probability that all four patients are treated successfully? Answer: b) What is the probability that the bacteria resist the antbiotic in at least one patient? Answer: Note: A study by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention on this subject was published in the New York Times, Sept. 12.1995.
Answers
a) Probability that a patient is treated successfully = (100 - 6)% = 94% Probability that all four patients are treated successfully = 94% x 94% x 94% x 94% = 80.7436% ≈ 0.8074
b) The required probabilities are:
0.8074 and 0.1926.
Given that vancomycin is an antibiotic used to battle enterococci and 6% of all enterococci in the hospitals were resistant to vancomycin.
We have to find the probability of the following events:
Probability that a patient is treated successfully = (100 - 6)% = 94% Probability that all four patients are treated successfully = 94% x 94% x 94% x 94% = 80.7436% ≈ 0.8074
Probability that a patient resists the antibiotic = 6%Probability that all four patients are treated successfully = 1 - probability that no patient resists the antibiotic P(at least one patient resists) = 1 - P(all 4 patients treated successfully) = 1 - 0.8074 = 0.1926 ≈ 0.1926
Hence, the required probabilities are:
0.8074 and 0.1926.
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a client is admitted to the health care facility with new onset of right-sided paralysis, slurred speech, and lethargy. a nurse obtains in the history that the client has uncontrolled hypertension and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. which nursing diagnosis is priority for the client upon admission?
Answers
Risk for Aspiration should nursing diagnosis is priority for the client upon admission.
Finding the sickness or condition that best explains a person's symptoms and indicators is known as medical diagnosis. The term "diagnosis" is most frequently used, with the implied medical context. the process of determining an illness, condition, or injury based on its symptoms and indicators. To aid in the diagnosis, a physical examination, medical history, and testing such blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be employed. Mild concussion was identified as the cause. His physician initially determined that he had pneumonia. A diagnosis of the issues affecting urban schools was released by the committee. identification of a disease, ailment, or damage based on the signs and symptoms a patient is experiencing as well as the patient's medical history and results of a physical examination A clinical diagnosis may be followed by additional testing, such as blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies.
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Cell Physiology
Choose the correct answer:
1- Phospholipase C signaling pathway involves
a- Protein kinase A
b-Tyrosine kinase
c- Inositol triphosphate
d-Protein phosphatase
2) Ribosomes are responsible for synthesis of all proteins except
a- Cytoplasmic proteins
b- Lysosomal proteins
c-mitochondrial protein
d-Nuclear protiens
3) Simple diffusion through bilipid layer involve the following except
a-hydrophobic molecules
b-lipophilic molecules
c- charged molecules
d- low molecular weight molecules
4) microtubules can perform all the following except
a-Cytoskeleton
b- tracts used by myosin
c- move sister chromatids apart during mitosis
Answers
D
low molecular weight molecules
Post BMT recipient with pneumonitis and colitis =
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As a post-BMT recipient with pneumonitis and colitis, it is important to follow the treatment plan outlined by your healthcare provider. Pneumonitis, which is inflammation of the lungs, can be caused by a variety of factors, including infections or autoimmune disorders. Colitis, which is inflammation of the colon, can also have various causes, such as infections, inflammatory bowel disease, or radiation therapy.
To manage these conditions, your healthcare provider may prescribe medications such as antibiotics, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressants. It is important to take these medications as directed and to follow any dietary restrictions that may be recommended. You may also need to avoid certain activities or environments that could exacerbate your symptoms.Regular follow-up appointments with your healthcare provider are crucial to monitor your progress and adjust your treatment plan as needed. It is also important to maintain good overall health by eating a healthy diet, getting regular exercise, and managing stress levels. If you experience any new or worsening symptoms, it is important to contact your healthcare provider right away.A post-BMT recipient with pneumonitis and colitis refers to a patient who has undergone a bone marrow transplant (BMT) and is now experiencing inflammation of the lungs (pneumonitis) and inflammation of the colon (colitis). These complications may be related to the transplant procedure or the patient's immune system response.
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Based on the Healthy People 2020 initiative, what is one change that should be made in school cafeterias
Answers
Answer:
Removal of soda pop machine from the lunch room
Explanation:
This is because research has shown that this soda has minimal nutritional value and has too much sugar content that unnecessary increases body mass index which is detrimental to the body as it could lead to diabetes and other cardiovascular diseases
A nurse is counselled for questioning a physician's order that made the physician mad. Which document best explains why the nurse was correct to question a physician's order that the nurse believed could be harmful to a patient
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Answer:
a
Explanation:
Electronic communication can be a very effective way of communicating. What formats are you aware of in electronic communications and what may be some disadvantages to these methods of communication
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Electronic communication can be a very effective way of communicating. The formats are we aware of in electronic communications are numerous ways to communicate electronically, including but not limited to: email, newsgroups on social media, video conferencing, instant messaging, phone, and fax.
Today, there is a huge variety of technological communication options available. It can be roughly classified into interactive and non-interactive categories. Electronic communications that are not interactive are those to which the recipient cannot respond. Technology's rapid advancement necessitates additional investment as well. Legal status: Data or information sent via fax may be corrupted and have no value in court. Data that was not delivered: Data that was lost due to a system malfunction or a technical issue. These are negatives.
Communications over the Internet are swift and practical. Even though electronic communication is quick, cheap, and handy, these benefits come with drawbacks. Technology that makes it possible for individuals to be in touch at all times may also invade privacy and take away from important downtime.
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why is a patient with tuberculosis often noncompliant with treatment
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The reasons why a patient with tuberculosis is often noncompliant with treatment are length and complexity of treatment, side effects and mental health issues.
To achieve total eradication of the bacteria, TB treatment normally entails taking antibiotics for an extended period of time (commonly six months or more). Patients may find it difficult to follow the strict treatment plan if they start to feel better or start to suffer negative side effects from the drugs.
Drugs used to treat TB may cause nausea, vomiting, lightheadedness, exhaustion, or liver toxicity. These adverse effects might be unpleasant and cause individuals to stop receiving medication. Patients with TB may also have depression, anxiety, or substance misuse disorders. Their motivation, capacity to stick to therapy, and level of involvement in healthcare generally may be impacted by these problems.
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Which of the following is an indication for endotracheal intubation the need to administer cpap
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Which are duties of a pharmacy technician in a hospital? Select all that apply.
compounding and performing sterile work
filing medical orders
dispensing patient medications
delivering patient medications to nurses working the drive-thru window
working with nuclear medicine
stocking crash carts
explaining medicine interactions to patients
Answers
Answer:
Here are the duties of a pharmacy technician in a hospital
Compounding intravenous (IV) solutions.
Delivering medications to and from satellite pharmacies.
Restocking automated medication dispensing systems.
Mixing and dispensing orally-administered medications.
Unit-dosing tablets from a bulk bottle.
Hope this helps, have a great day/night, stay safe, and happy thanksgiving!
The duties of pharmacy technicians are compounding and performing sterile work. Thus, options A, B, C, D, and H are correct.
What are the roles of pharmacy technicians?Pharmacy-related functions are performed by pharmacy technicians. They work under pharmacist supervision. The responsibilities of a pharmacy technician are explained below.
Compounding drugs, means mixing two or more drugs according to Doctor's prescription. They can make customized medicines according to the requirement of the patient's condition.
Filing medical orders, they fill prescription orders written by pharmacists. They count medicines or drugs and label completed orders. They deliver patients' medications to nurses and work with pharmaceutical companies and drug wholesalers. They manage the supply of drugs.
One of the most important roles of a pharmacy technician is to prepare sterile and non-sterile compounds and dispense patient medications. Thus, options A, B, C, D, and H are correct.
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Medical ethics involves rules that are __________, rather than __________.
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Which employees should be aware of how to turn off power to a shop in an emergency?
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Answer: probably all of them
Explanation:
Your patient, Fluffy, has been prescribed Amoxicillin 300 mg orally daily as part of
his treatment for kennel cough. The pharmacy sends up Amoxicillin 600 mg
extended-release tablets. How many tablets do you give Fluffy?
Answers
Which of the following pathological conditions is due to insufficient neurotransmitter at a synapse? a) Guillain- Barre syndrome b) Multiple sclerosis c) Myasthenia gravis d) Shingles
Answers
Myasthenia gravis is the pathological condition due to insufficient neurotransmitter at a synapse.
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that affects skeletal muscles. This results from a reduction in the amount of acetylcholine released into the synaptic cleft in the neuromuscular junction, resulting in a reduced amount of acetylcholine being bound to receptors.The weakening of muscles, particularly in the face, neck, and limb muscles, are some symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis. While there is no cure for myasthenia gravis, treatment can help relieve signs and symptoms. Treatment, which is customized to the specific needs of the patient, may include medications, surgery, plasma exchange, or intravenous immunoglobulin.To sum up, among the given options, the pathological condition due to insufficient neurotransmitter at a synapse is Myasthenia Gravis.
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Cardiovascular disease is the number one killer in America. Some of the collective diagnosis under the umbrella of cardiovascular disease have signs and symptoms like shortness of breath, tachycardia, hyperventilation, fever, aching, edema, etc. But some cardiovascular diseases the first sign or symptoms is death.
I would like you all to discuss if you think education about prevention should be improved in America to help the general public become aware of cardiovascular disease at a younger age. Do you think this education would be used on a daily basis to make different lifestyle decisions if it was taught at a younger age? Why do you think people have forgotten that what they do with their bodies or put into their bodies will not affect them? How would you communicate lifestyle prevention to people between the ages of 20 and 40 years old? What type of media would you use on a large scale and a small scale?
It has been my experience that most 50 to70-year-old people know a little about cardiovascular disease and prevention because some of their friends or relatives have had heart attacks, strokes, blood clots or hypertension. Many 20 to 40-year old’s are still unaware that their lifestyle choices can affect their health 20 to 40 years down the road. Remember most 20- 40-year old’s are not going to see a health care professional on a regular basis unless they have something wrong with them- that is our current mentality in America.
Answers
Education and awareness about cardiovascular disease prevention are crucial to address the lack of knowledge and promote healthier lifestyles. By teaching prevention strategies at a younger age, individuals are more likely to adopt healthy habits as part of their daily routines.
Yes, education about prevention should be improved in America to help the general public become aware of cardiovascular disease at a younger age. Education is the key to prevention.
Many people may have developed certain health issues such as heart disease or hypertension simply because of a lack of knowledge about prevention and taking the necessary precautions to ensure a healthy life.
The symptoms of cardiovascular disease, such as shortness of breath, tachycardia, hyperventilation, fever, aching, oedema, etc., can often be avoided with simple lifestyle choices. Therefore, providing education and awareness about the disease and its prevention is necessary.
If the education on prevention of cardiovascular diseases is taught at a younger age, people will be more likely to make different lifestyle decisions on a daily basis. This is because when you start young, healthy lifestyle decisions become a habit and a part of your daily routine.
People have forgotten that what they do with their bodies or put into their bodies will affect them because they have become more reliant on convenience and instant gratification. The convenience of processed foods, fast foods, and sugar-filled drinks has made it harder for people to make healthy food choices.
To communicate lifestyle prevention to people between the ages of 20 and 40 years old, various media should be used.
Large-scale media, such as television, social media, newspapers, radio, and magazines can be used to reach a larger audience. Small-scale media such as health fairs, flyers, and posters, can be used to reach a smaller audience. These media outlets should be used to provide information on the benefits of regular exercise, healthy eating habits, and avoiding bad habits such as smoking.In conclusion, educating people about cardiovascular disease is vital to prevent it. Early education on prevention, in particular, is necessary to make it a habit and a part of one's lifestyle. Finally, we can use various types of media to reach people of all ages.
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the nurse is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. which client would require the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
Answers
The client that requires the most caution is ; A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilatation and the presenting part is not engaged.
What is the reason behind it ?The reason is : The presenting portion floats out of the pelvis when it is ballotable. In such a case, the chord may descend prior to the fetus, leading to a prolapsed cord, an emergency circumstance.
What is enema ?Enemas are fluid injections used to clear your bowels or to encourage it to empty. Constipation and other comparable conditions have been treated with this treatment for many years. Stool movement is slowed down by constipation, a serious ailment. Additionally, it makes stools hard and challenging to pass.
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Select the structure for octane.
Answers
Answer:
b
Explanation:
What blood lipid is linked most directly to heart disease?
Answers
High levels of Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol are most directly linked to an increased risk of heart disease.
LDL cholesterol is the "bad" cholesterol, which is created when fatty deposits accumulate in the arteries, leading to a buildup of plaque that can clog the arteries and eventually lead to a heart attack or stroke. LDL cholesterol should be kept as low as possible in order to reduce the risk of heart disease. There are several lifestyle and diet modifications that can help reduce LDL cholesterol, such as exercising regularly, eating a healthy diet that is low in saturated and trans fats, avoiding smoking, and maintaining a healthy weight. Additionally, some medications such as statins can be used to help lower LDL cholesterol levels.
It is important to note that while LDL cholesterol is the most direct link to heart disease, other factors such as high levels of triglycerides, low levels of High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, and high blood pressure can also increase the risk of heart disease. Therefore, it is important to maintain a healthy lifestyle and diet in order to reduce the risk of heart disease.
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Mr. Jones is a healthy, active 82-year-old man. He exercises regularly and enjoys a variety of foods. Recently he has started gaining weight. He says he eats exactly the same amount of food he ate when he was 30 years younger. How would you explain to Mr. Jones his weight gain, and what suggestions would you make to prevent any additional unwanted weight gain
Answers
In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss.
Why do older people gain weight faster?Fat mass increases as muscle mass declines over time. According to studies, having a high proportion of fat mass increases the risk of impairment, mobility difficulties, and poor physical function in older persons.Even though they are less active, many seniors just eat the same amount of food that they did when they were younger. As a result, it's simple for older people to acquire weight without doing anything else.In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss. Our digestive processes become less efficient as we age, resulting in less energy from food being burned as calories and more being deposited as fat.How can the weight be controlled?Obesity and its associated chronic disorders have been demonstrated to be prevented by regular physical activity, even in the extremely old or weak elderly. Physical activity that preserves muscle and bone mass should be prioritized for older persons who are overweight.Getting adequate sleep, believe it or not, can help you burn more calories. You crave more food but feel less full due to hormonal changes that occur when you don't get enough sleep.Sleep deprivation is exacerbated by a lack of sleep, which leads to a need for high-energy foods, which are generally sweet or salty.Protein promotes muscle growth, but if certain forms of protein, such as meat, are difficult to consume, focus on softer sources of protein, such as yogurt.learn more about Weight gain in older people here:
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During pregnancy, many women are advised to avoid hot temperatures, like saunas or heating pads, as this can cause (among other things) problems with the development and closing of the spinal cord. Thus, high temperatures are likely to affect:
Answers
A patient weighing 66 lbs. is prescribed Augmentin 30 mg/kg/day by mouth in divided doses every 8 hours. How many mg of the medication should the patient receive for each dose?
Answers
Answer:
A patient who weighs 66 pounds, about 30 kg, should receive a 30 mg dose of Augmentin, according to the recommended dose.
Explanation:
Augmentin is an antibiotic composed of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, used in the treatment of respiratory infections.
If a patient is prescribed Augmentin, at a rate of 30 mg/kg/day orally every 8 hours:
Recommended dose: 30 mg/kg/day Interval between doses: 8 hours (TID) Patient weight: 66 pounds = 29.94 Kg ≈ 30 KgThe patient's weight must be converted from lbs to Kg, which is done through the equivalence of measurements, where 1 lb = 0.453592 Kg.
Weight (Kg) = 66 X 0.453592 = 29.937072 ≈ 30 Kg
To calculate the dose of the drug, the dose per day should be multiplied by the patient's weight, and then divided by the three recommended doses (c/8h):
Augmentin dose = (30 mg X 30 mg/day) / 3 Augmentin Dose = 900 mg/3 Augmentin dose = 300 mgThe patient should receive 300 mg per dose of Augmentin during his treatment.