Transfer of random pieces of dna mediated by phage is known as.
The transfer of random pieces of DNA mediated by phage is known as transduction.
Transduction is the transfer of bacterial genes from one bacterial cell to another with the help of a bacteriophage or virus. There are two types of transduction: generalized transduction and specialized transduction. Generalized transduction involves the transfer of random fragments of bacterial DNA through the bacteriophage coat into the recipient bacterium. Specialized transduction, on the other hand, involves the transfer of specific genes of the bacterial genome by a temperate bacteriophage that excises them from the host chromosome.
This specific transduction can happen only if the bacteriophage genome is integrated at a specific location in the bacterial chromosome. The process of transduction is critical in genetic research because it allows for the transfer of genes from one organism to another. It has contributed significantly to our understanding of genetic material and its transfer from one organism to another.
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What is gained from each part of aerobic respiration?
Answer:
Cellular respiration uses energy in glucose to make ATP. Aerobic (“oxygen-using”) respiration occurs in three stages: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and electron transport. ... This results in a net gain of two ATP molecules. Life first evolved in the absence of oxygen, and glycolysis does not require oxygen.
Hope this helps..Which of the following best describes evidence that an evolutionary biologist would not use to support the modern concept of evolution?
A O Two closely related species are found in different geographical areas.
B O Two distantly related species have the same method of reproduction.
C O Two species that are different in appearance share similar patterns of development.
D O Two species that are similar in appearance have different genetic codes.
Evolution is the shift in a biological population's heritable traits over successive generations.
Thus, These traits are the expressions of genes, which are passed down through reproduction from parent to offspring. Genetic recombination and mutation frequently result in variation within a population.
This variety is subjected to evolutionary processes like natural selection (including sexual selection) and genetic drift, which cause some traits to become more or less prevalent within a population. This is when evolution happens.
Heritable traits evolve over successive generations as a result of shifting evolutionary forces that determine whether a trait is prevalent or rare within a population. At every level of biological organization, biodiversity is a result of this process of evolution.
Thus, Evolution is the shift in a biological population's heritable traits over successive generations.
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what was one possible reason evolutionary thought remained stifled in the 17th and 18th centuries? group of answer choices naturalists did not have the pro[per technology to study evolution. the new world had not yet been thoroughly examined. too few fossils had been studied and classified. naturalists still tried to fit their observations of the natural world into church doctrine.
The possible reason evolutionary thought remained stifled in the 17th and 18th centuries was that naturalists still tried to fit their observations of the natural world into church doctrine, the correct option is D.
During the 17th and 18th centuries, the predominant worldview was based on the teachings of the Church. Naturalists, who were the early scientists of this era, often tried to reconcile their observations with the Church's teachings.
This led to a reluctance to propose theories that contradicted the Church's teachings, including the idea of evolution. Fossils were also not yet fully understood or classified, which limited scientists' understanding of the history of life on Earth. As a result, evolutionary thought was largely stifled during this time, the correct option is D.
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The complete question is:
What was one possible reason evolutionary thought remained stifled in the 17th and 18th centuries? (group of answer choices)
A. naturalists did not have the pro[per technology to study evolution
B. the new world had not yet been thoroughly examined
C. too few fossils had been studied and classified
D. naturalists still tried to fit their observations of the natural world into church doctrine
A layer of shale that contains a distinctive fossil could be used as a:_______
A layer of shale that contains a distinctive fossil could be used as a biostratigraphic marker.
Shale is a type of sedimentary rock composed of fine-grained clay particles. It has the ability to preserve fossils due to its fine-grained nature and low permeability, which helps protect organic remains from decay.
Fossils found within shale layers can provide valuable information about past ecosystems, evolution, and geological time periods.
When a distinctive fossil is present within a specific layer of shale, it can serve as a marker or index fossil. Index fossils are widely recognized and geographically widespread fossils that existed during a specific time interval.
They have a relatively short geological range, making them useful for dating and correlating rock layers.
By studying the occurrence of these distinctive fossils in shale layers, geologists can determine the relative age of rock formations and establish correlations between different regions.
This information helps create a relative timeline of Earth's history and aids in identifying geological boundaries and subdivisions.
Biostratigraphic markers like shale layers containing distinctive fossils are particularly valuable in stratigraphic studies, where the relative positions of rock layers are analyzed to understand the Earth's geological history.
These markers provide insights into the depositional environment, paleoenvironmental conditions, and the evolution and distribution of various organisms.
Overall, a shale layer containing a distinctive fossil can serve as a biostratigraphic marker, assisting geologists in dating and correlating rock formations and gaining insights into Earth's past.
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if one of the 18cm f1 pigs is mated with one of the 6cm f2 pigs, what phenotypic ratio would be predicted if many offspring resulted? diagram the cross.
If one of the 18-cm F1 pigs is mated with one of the 6-cm F2 pigs, the phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be 1:2:1.
| H h
--|-----
H | HH Hh
h | Hh hh
Assuming that "f1" and "f2" refer to different breeds or genetic backgrounds of pigs, and that the "18cm" and "6cm" measurements refer to some trait of interest (e.g. height, weight, etc.), the predicted phenotypic ratio of the offspring resulting from mating an 18cm f1 pig with a 6cm f2 pig would depend on the mode of inheritance of the trait in question.
Without more information about the trait, it is difficult to predict the phenotypic ratio with certainty. However, as an example, let's assume that the trait is height and that it is controlled by a single gene with incomplete dominance, where the f1 pig is heterozygous for the trait (i.e. Hh) and the f2 pig is homozygous recessive (i.e. hh).
The offspring would have genotypes of HH (18cm), Hh (somewhere between 6cm and 18cm), and hh (6cm) in a 1:2:1 ratio. The corresponding phenotypic ratio would be 1:2:1, with one offspring being tall (18cm), two offspring being intermediate in height (between 6cm and 18cm), and one offspring being short (6cm).
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4. what are the major steps that occur during cellular respiration? what happens in each step (summarize briefly the key point(s))?
Cellular respiration is the process of breaking down food molecules to obtain energy. Three major steps that occur during cellular respiration are Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the Electron transport chain.
The following are the three major steps that occur during cellular respiration:
1. Glycolysis
The first stage of cellular respiration is glycolysis. In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into pyruvate in the cytoplasm of the cell. This process releases a small amount of energy, which is stored in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
2. Krebs cycle
After glycolysis, the pyruvate molecules are transported to the mitochondria for the Krebs cycle. In the Krebs cycle, the pyruvate molecules are broken down into carbon dioxide, releasing more energy, which is stored in ATP.
3. Electron transport chain
The final stage of cellular respiration is the electron transport chain. In this stage, energy is transferred from the NADH and FADH₂ molecules produced in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle to create a proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane. This gradient drives the synthesis of ATP through a process called chemiosmosis.
Overall, the process of cellular respiration involves breaking down food molecules to obtain energy in the form of ATP. Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain are the three major steps involved in this process.
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Classify each item as a first, second, or third line of defense.
First Line of Defense:
Second Line of Defense:
Third Line of Defense:
-Skin
-Mucosal membranes
-Macrophages
-Eosinophils
-Inflammation
-Fever
-Humoral immunity
-Cell-mediated immunity
-Lymphocytes
-Antibodies
Put each item into the first, second, and third category of lines of defense. The initial line of defense is made up of the skin and mucosal membranes. Macrophages serve as the second line of defense.
What is a good illustration of humoral immunity?Innate humoral immunity refers to innate immunity that is protein-based. The body's complement system, interferon, and interleukin-1 (which induces fever) are a few examples.
How does humoral immunity function?Antibody-mediated immunity is another name for homunculus immunity. B cells will develop into blood B cells, which can manufacture antibodies against a particular antigen, with the aid of helper T cells. The body's immune immune system responds to pathogen antigens that are in the environment or outside of the diseased cells.
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1. what is a line of best fit?
2.look at the graph with correlation coefficients of r=0.9 and r= -5. What kind of relationship does each of these values indicate
3. Compare the scatterplot with correlation coefficient of R= 1 and R =0. Use a correlation coefficients to predict how an increase in one variable would affect the other variable for each scatterplot.
A line of best fit is a straight line that is used to describe the relationship between two variables in a scatterplot.
What is a line of best fit?It is the line that best represents the data points on the graph. The correlation coefficient (r) of a line of best fit is a measure of how closely the data points fit the line.For the graph with correlation coefficient of r=0.9, this indicates a strong positive linear relationship between the two variables. This means that as one variable increases, the other variable also increases.For the graph with correlation coefficient of r=-5, this indicates a strong negative linear relationship between the two variables. This means that as one variable increases, the other variable decreases.For the scatterplot with correlation coefficient of R=1, this indicates a perfect positive linear relationship between the two variables. This means that as one variable increases, the other variable increases in the same proportion.For the scatterplot with correlation coefficient of R=0, this indicates no linear relationship between the two variables. This means that an increase in one variable would not affect the other variable.To learn more about correlation coefficient refer to:
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Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?a) B cells. b) macrophages. c) dendritic cells. d) all nucleated cells
The type of cells that display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them are dendritic cells.
Dendritic cells are known to be antigen-presenting cells that are responsible for presenting antigens to the immune system. When cancer cells produce protein fragments, dendritic cells capture these fragments and present them to T-cells, which then initiate an immune response against the cancer cells.
Therefore, among the options given, dendritic cells are the only type of cells that display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them.
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Using the codon chart, what is the sequence of amino acids that is produced when this RNA is translated?
Answer:
In transcription, the DNA sequence of a gene is "rewritten" in RNA. In eukaryotes, the RNA must go through additional processing steps to become a messenger RNA or mRNA. In translation, the sequence of nucleotides in the mRNA is "translated" into a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide (protein chain).
Translation starts at a methionine (Met) codon, which specifies the amino acid methionine (Met). Translation stops at a Stop codon, which does not specify an amino acid.
Translation of an mRNA molecule by the ribosome occurs in three stages: a. initiation
b. elongation
c. termination.
During initiation, the small ribosomal subunit binds to the start of the mRNA sequence.
Translation happens in four stages: activation (make-ready), initiation (start), elongation (make longer), and termination (stop). These terms describe the growth of the amino acid chain (polypeptide).
20 Amino Acids In Human Protein:
Table of DNA Base Triplets, RNA Codons & Anticodons
Amino Acid
DNA Base Triplets
M-RNA Codons
T-RNA Anticodons
alanine
CGA, CGG, CGT, CGC
GCU, GCC, GCA, GCG
CGA, CGG, CGU, CGC
arginine
GCA, GCG, GCT, GCC
TCT, TCC
CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG
AGA, AGG
GCA, GCG, GCU, GCC
UCU, UCC
asparagine
TTA, TTG
AAU, AAC
UUA, UUG
aspartate
CTA, CTG
GAU, GAC
CUA, CUG
cysteine
ACA, ACG
UGU, UGC
ACA, ACG
glutamate
CTT, CTC
GAA, GAG
CUU, CUC
glutamine
GTT, GTC
CAA, CAG
GUU, GUC
glycine
CCA, CCG, CCT, CCC
GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG
CCA, CCG, CCU, CCC
histidine
GTA, GTG
CAU, CAC
GUA, GUG
isoleucine
TAA, TAG, TAT
AUU, AUC, AUA
UAA, UAG, UAU
leucine
AAT, AAC, GAA, GAG
GAT, GAC
UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC
CUA, CUG
AAU, AAC, GAA, GAG
GAU, GAC
lysine
TTT, TTC
AAA, AAG
UUU, UUC
methionine
TAC
AUG
UAC
phenylalanine
AAA, AAG
UUU, UUC
AAA, AAG
proline
GGA, GGG, GGT, GGC
CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG
GGA, GGG, GGU, GGC
serine
AGA, AGG, AGT, AGC
TCA, TCG
UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG
AGU, AGC
AGA, AGG, AGU, AGC
UCA, UCG
stop
ATT, ATC, ACT
UAA, UAG, UGA
AUU, AUC, ACU
threonine
TGA, TGG, TGT, TGC
ACU, ACC, ACA, ACG
UGA, UGG, UGU, UGC
tryptophan
ACC
UGG
ACC
tyrosine
ATA, ATG
UAU, UAC
AUA, AUG
valine
CAA, CAG, CAT, CAC
GUU, GUC, GUA, GUG
CAA, CAG, CAU, CAC
Explanation:
FILL THE BLANK. the dna-containing region of this bacterial cell is indicated by the letter _____
The DNA-containing region of a bacterial cell is indicated by the letter D, the nucleoid region.
What is the nucleoid region?This region is called the nucleoid. The nucleoid is a region of the cytoplasm that contains the DNA of the cell. The DNA is organized into a single, circular chromosome. The nucleoid is not surrounded by a membrane, unlike the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
The nucleoid is important for several reasons. First, it contains the cell's DNA, which is the genetic material that determines the cell's structure and function. Second, the nucleoid is the site of transcription, which is the process by which DNA is used to make RNA. Third, the nucleoid is the site of translation, which is the process by which RNA is used to make proteins.
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Circular Breathing requires a performer to hold the sound of the flute indefinitely with no breathing interruptions.
Group of answer choices
True
False
Answer: False. Circular breathing is a technique used by musicians to maintain a continuous and uninterrupted sound on their instrument while breathing in through the nose. It involves inhaling through the nose while simultaneously pushing air out from the mouth using the cheeks and diaphragm muscles. However, even with circular breathing, a performer cannot hold the sound of the flute indefinitely as they still need to take breaths eventually.
Explanation:
QUESTION 1 (4 MARKS) The equivalent dose represents an absorbed dose to an organ or tissue, weighted by factors, WR, considering the biological efficiency of the type of radiation. By providing appropriate justifications, rank the different types of radiations as listed below from more harmful radiations per unit absorbed dose to those being less harmful. 1. Beta (B) and gamma (y) radiations 2. Protons 3. Alpha (a) particles
The ranking considers the relative ionizing power and energy deposition characteristics of each radiation type. Alpha particles, due to their high ionization density and short range, pose the highest risk per unit absorbed dose.
Ranking the different types of radiations in terms of their harmfulness per unit absorbed dose:
1. Alpha (α) particles: Alpha particles have a relatively large mass and charge, making them highly ionizing and more harmful per unit absorbed dose. They deposit a significant amount of energy in a short distance, causing severe damage to tissues and organs.
2. Beta (β) and gamma (γ) radiations: Beta and gamma radiations are less harmful per unit absorbed dose compared to alpha particles. They have lower ionizing power and can penetrate deeper into tissues. While still potentially harmful, their ability to cause damage is generally lower than that of alpha particles.
3. Protons: Protons, despite having a mass and charge similar to alpha particles, are less harmful per unit absorbed dose. They deposit energy over a larger distance, resulting in a lower concentration of energy deposition in tissues. This makes them relatively less damaging compared to alpha particles.
Beta and gamma radiations have lower ionization density and can penetrate tissues more deeply. Protons, while still ionizing, deposit energy over a larger range, reducing their harmfulness per unit absorbed dose.
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why should we not view lactose intolerance as a disease in adult humans?
Answer:
Because lactose intolerance isn't a disease, it just mean the individual's stomach isn't able to digest the lactose found in milk.
Explanation:
Vibration and fine touch sensory impulses are carried by the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway. T/F?
False. Vibration and fine touch sensory impulses are not carried by the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway.
Instead, they are carried by the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway. The anterolateral spinothalamic pathway is responsible for transmitting pain, temperature, and crude touch sensations.
The transmission of pain, temperature, and rough touch sensations from the body to the brain is carried out by the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway, also referred to as the spinothalamic tract. It is a component of the somatosensory system, which enables us to perceive and comprehend sensory data coming from our internal organs, muscles, and skin. A network of neurons makes up the route, which carries sensory information from the periphery to higher brain centres. Sensory receptors in the skin initially take in sensory data, which is then sent to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The signals then climb through the anterolateral columns and are sent to the spinal cord's contralateral side.
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The diagram shows the electric field due to point charge Q. The negative charge, A, is within the field.
Charge Q has vectors radially outward starting perpendicular from the surface. The farther you get from the charge, the shorter the vectors. All vectors point towards the charge. A point labeled A is just to the right of the charged object.
Which statements are correct? Check all that apply.
Charge Q is positive.
Charge Q is negative.
The electric field is uniform.
The electric field is nonuniform.
If charge A is negative, it moves away from charge Q.
If charge A is positive, it moves away from charge Q.
The electric field due to point charge Q is nonuniform. If charge A is negative, it moves away from charge Q. These statements are correct, based on the information provided in the diagram.
In the diagram, the electric field lines radiate outwards from charge Q in all directions, indicating that the electric field is nonuniform. The electric field lines are denser near the charged object and become less dense as they move away from it, indicating that the strength of the electric field decreases with distance from the charge. This means that the electric field is nonuniform, as the strength of the field varies depending on the distance from the charge.
In addition, the electric field lines are directed radially outward from the charge, indicating that the electric field is repulsive. This means that if charge A is negative, it will be repelled by the electric field and will move away from charge Q. However, if charge A is positive, it will be attracted to charge Q and will move towards it.
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The table below shows the number of chromosome pairs for various
organisms.
Organism
Number of
Chromosome Pairs
Elephant
28
Ferret
20
Giraffe
31
Gorilla
24
Which organism can produce the highest number of genetically different
gametes?
Answer:
giraffe
Explanation:
the more chromosome pairs and animal has, the more genetically different gametes it will produce.
during what phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepares for Mitosis?
Answer:
interpahse
Explanation:
A cell spends most of its time in what is called interphase, and during this time it grows, replicates its chromosomes, and prepares for cell division. The cell then leaves interphase, undergoes mitosis, and completes its division
Answer:
during interphase......
If a suspect has Type O+ blood, what antigens would be present in the suspect's
blood?
A. A and Rh
B. A, B and Rh
C. A and B
D. Only Rh
E. No antigens would be present
If a suspect has Type O+ blood, no antigens would be present in the suspect's blood. The correct option is D.
What are blood types?Blood types are classified into four groups: A, B, AB, and O. Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of antigens on red blood cells (RBCs) and antibodies in plasma.
If someone has type O blood, it indicates that neither the A nor B antigens are present on their red blood cells. This is because they have two copies of the O gene (OO) on chromosome 9, which encodes for the H antigen, but not the A or B antigens.
O+ means that the individual has the Rh factor antigen present on their red blood cells. Therefore, if a suspect has Type O+ blood, no antigens would be present in the suspect's blood.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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If Petal color was a complete dominant trait (A being red petals and a being white), what percent.
of offspring would be red?
hito what percentage of offspring would be red?
Answer:
75%
Explanation:
3/4ths are dominant, so 75% will be red.
Answer:
75%
Explanation:
function of the vacule
What are anatomical modifiers? why can't just rt or lt be used for these modifiers? give an example
Anatomical modifiers identify the region or component of the body where the procedure is carried out and aid in the swift, precise adjudication of claims. For procedures carried out on paired structures, such as the eyes, lungs, arms, breasts, knees, etc.,
The modifiers LT and RT may also be used to identify uncommon situations in which a physician conducts a procedure that CPT® classifies as bilaterally but unilaterally. For instance, 58953 A bilateral procedure is, by definition, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with omentectomy, total abdominal hysterectomy, and radical dissection for debulking.
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according to darwin's model of evolution, evolution can only occur if there is some variation present among the individual members of a population. which statement best describes the source of this variation among members of a species?
Genetic mutations are changes in the DNA sequence that can introduce new genetic variations into a population. The statement that best describes the source of variation among members of a species according to Darwin's model of evolution is: Variation among individuals in a species is primarily derived from genetic mutations and genetic recombination during reproduction.
Genetic mutations can occur spontaneously or as a result of environmental factors, such as radiation or chemical exposure. These mutations can lead to new traits or variations in existing traits.
Genetic recombination occurs during sexual reproduction when genetic material from two parent organisms combines to create offspring with unique genetic combinations. This process shuffles and recombines genetic information, further contributing to variation within a population.
The statement that best describes the source of variation among members of a species according to Darwin's model of evolution is: Variation among individuals in a species is primarily derived from genetic mutations and genetic recombination during reproduction.
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which statement about aneuploidy is true? one form of aneuploidy is a loss of both members of a homologous pair of chromosomes. most autosomal aneuploidies develop normally and have a normal life span. the rarest aneuploidies in humans are those of the sex chromosomes. aneuploidy is a change in number of chromosome sets.
The statement about aneuploidy is true A. one form of aneuploidy is a loss of both members of a homologous pair of chromosomes.
Aneuploidy refers to an abnormal number of chromosomes in an organism's cells, resulting from the loss or gain of one or more chromosomes. This situation is known as nullisomy, in which an organism has a chromosome count that is reduced by two compared to the normal diploid number. Aneuploidies can have various effects on an individual's development and health, depending on the specific chromosomes involved and the extent of the abnormality. Some aneuploidies can be viable, while others can result in severe developmental abnormalities or even be lethal. It is important to note that the majority of autosomal aneuploidies do not develop normally and do not have a normal life span.
On the other hand, some aneuploidies involving sex chromosomes can lead to relatively mild effects, allowing the affected individuals to survive. Aneuploidy differs from polyploidy, which is a change in the number of chromosome sets. While aneuploidy involves a change in the number of individual chromosomes, polyploidy involves a change in the entire set of chromosomes, resulting in organisms with multiple sets of chromosomes, such as triploidy (three sets) or tetraploidy (four sets).
In conclusion, aneuploidy is an abnormal condition where an organism's cells have an atypical number of chromosomes, often due to the loss or gain of one or more chromosomes. One form of aneuploidy, nullisomy, occurs when both members of a homologous pair of chromosomes are missing. Aneuploidies can have varying effects on development and health, depending on the specific chromosomes involved. Therefore, the correct option is A.
The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:
Which statement about aneuploidy is true?
A. one form of aneuploidy is a loss of both members of a homologous pair of chromosomes
B. The rarest aneuploidies in humans are those of the sex chromosomes.
C. Most autosomal aneuploidies develop normally and have a normal life span.
D. Aneuploidy is a change in the number of chromosome sets.
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What characteristic do insects, centipedes, and millipedes share? Check all that apply
three pairs of legs
one pair of wings
one pair of antennae
two body sections
Answer:
One pair of antennae
Explanation:
They have more than three pairs of legs, centipedes and millipedes do not have wings, and they have more than two body sections.
Answer:
C is correct
Explanation:
During primary growth, the primary xylem and phloem grow alongside each other, except for a layer of tissue in between them. These primary tissues will eventually be pushed away from each other during secondary growth. What growth process causes this to occur
Answer: Determinate growth
Explanation:
determinate growth stops when a plant element (such as a leaf) reaches a particular size.
Help me please please please
Answer:
B) an object's force is balanced when its not moving
Explanation:
when two different forces are acting upon an object equally, the object stays still. sorry for the rushed answer but I hope this helps you!
In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell replicate its dna and carry out most of its life processes?.
When sea levels rise as rapidly as they have been, even a small increase can have devastating effects on coastal habitats farther inland. It can cause destructive erosion, wetland flooding, aquifer and agricultural soil contamination with salt, and lost habitat for fish, birds, and plants. What happens to biodiversity in coastal communities as the sea level rises?
Biodiversity decreases because plants and animals adapted for fresh water will not survive and reproduce in a different environment.
What is sea rise?The term sea rise has to do with a situation in which there is a sudden increase in the sea level. This could lead to a sudden overflow of water into rivers lakes and ponds.
We know that sea water is salty, there is excess salt concentration in a sea water while fresh water does not contain salt at all. In these cases whereby there is an overflow of seawater, the water carries salt along with it. This implies that land and fresh water could become contaminated with this salt and that would have catastrophic effects on these ecosystems.
Since fresh water organisms can not tolerate a sudden increase in the concentration of salt in the ecosystem, biodiversity decreases because plants and animals adapted for fresh water will not survive and reproduce in a different environment.
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MISSING PARTS
When sea levels rise as rapidly as they have been, even a small increase can have devastating effects on coastal habitats farther inland. It can cause destructive erosion, wetland flooding, aquifer and agricultural soil contamination with salt, and lost habitat for fish, birds, and plants. What happens to biodiversity in coastal communities as the sea level rises?
A
Biodiversity increases due to the merging of salt water and fresh water ecosystems.
B
Biodiversity decreases because plants and animals adapted for fresh water will not survive and reproduce in a different environment.
C
Biodiversity decreases because there are fewer salt water species than there are fresh water species.
D
Biodiversity increases due to the survival of both fresh water and salt water species.