His chemotherapy medication is dosed by his bsa. he weighs 200 lb and is 72 in tall. Then BSA will be 1.1299 m²
Elaborating the problem:
His weight must first be converted from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg):
200 lb x 0.4535924 kg/lb = 90.7185 kg
72 in x 2.54 cm per inch = 182.88 cm
Now, we can use the Mosteller formula to calculate his BSA:
BSA = √(height (cm) × weight (kg) / 3600)
BSA = √(182.88 cm × 90.7185 kg / 3600)
BSA = √(4588.6848 / 3600)
BSA = √1.2740791
BSA = 1.1299 m²
What exactly are chemotherapy drugs?Chemotherapy is a treatment that kills your body's rapidly growing cells with powerful chemicals. Because cancer cells grow and multiply much more rapidly than the majority of other cells in the body, chemotherapy is the treatment of choice for most cancer patients. There are numerous chemotherapy drugs available.
Why are drugs used in chemotherapy?Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer in which drugs are used to kill cancer cells. Chemotherapy drugs come in many different varieties, but they all function similarly. They prevent cancer cells from growing and spreading throughout the body by stopping them from reproducing.
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To calculate Mr. Morris's body surface area (BSA), we can use the DuBois formula which is commonly used for chemotherapy dosing.
How to calculate Mr. Morris's BSA?
BSA = (weight-in-kg)^0.425 x (height-in-cm)^0.725 x 0.007184
Let's start by converting his weight from pounds to kilogrammes:
200 lb ÷ 2.205 = 90.72 kg
Next, let's convert his height from inches to centimeters:
72 in x 2.54 = 182.88 cm
Now we have all the necessary information to calculate his BSA:
BSA = (90.72)^0.425 x (182.88)^0.725 x 0.007184
BSA = 2.06 square meters
Therefore, Mr. Morris's BSA is approximately 2.06 square meters.
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Primary union is also called?
Answer:
healing by first intention. I hope you will get it right
during which phase of pulmonary ventilation is air drawn into the lungs?
Answer: Inspiration (inhalation)
Explanation:
Of the following three types of fat, which type is the most unhealthy?
The american medical association did not provide its official endorsement of cochlear implants until:__________
The American medical association did not provide its official endorsement of cochlear implants until 1983.
A cochlear implant is a neuroprosthesis that is surgically installed and allows someone with moderate to extensive sensorineural hearing loss to perceive sound. Cochlear implants may enable better speech comprehension in both calm and noisy contexts with the aid of therapy.Deaf people with cochlear implants can hear and understand speech. These gadgets do not, however, enable regular hearing. They are instruments that enable the processing and transmission of sound and speech to the brain. Everyone is not a good candidate for a cochlear implant. Individually, 82.0% of persons with post lingual hearing loss and 53.4% of adults with prelingual hearing loss showed a 15 percentage point or greater improvement in their ability to perceive speech.learn more about cochlear implants here: https://brainly.com/question/8835802
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can a consumer who qualifies for low income subsidy receive financial assistance for their part of medicare part d cost?
Answer:
Individuals with incomes up to 150 percent of the federal poverty level can receive help with their Part D costs for premiums, deductibles and co-pays through the Part D Low Income Subsidy (known as “LIS” or “Extra Help”), which is administered by the Social Security Administration.
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:Through subsidies that offer lower or no cost monthly premiums and lower or no cost copays
Wesley's doctor prescribes a few drug for him that will help with his nausea. The new drug interferes with the emesis control center in the brain that makes him feel nauseous. Which medication will Wesley be taking?
a. Inapsine(R)
b. Emend(R)
c. Cesamet(R)
d. Imodium(R)
Answer:
B. Emend(R)
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
a hospital educator has been commissioned with investigating evidence regarding the use of physical restraints. how should the nurse approach publication data parameters for this search? question 2 options: a) the nurse should establish a cutoff for sources more than 5 years old. b) the nurse should attempt to identify collaborative evidence for any source that is more than 3 years old. c) the nurse should prioritize the quality and comprehensiveness of the evidence over its date of publication. d) articles should be ranked according to publication date, with the most recent articles being prioritized.
c) the nurse should prioritize the quality and comprehensiveness of the evidence over its date of publication.
What is a literature review?A literature review is an evaluative report of information found in the literature related to your selected area of study. The purpose is to provide a comprehensive overview of significant published works, analyze patterns, inconsistencies, gaps in research, and identify areas for future research.
It helps in understanding the current state of knowledge on a topic and provides a framework for the research study.
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Medicine has its own language and learning the word components is the foundation of pursuing any medical profession. Becoming proficient with medical terminology is not an easy task, but with the appropriate learning tools you will learn it fast and efficiently. Once you are proficient, transitioning into the clinical setting will be:_______
Answer: More knowledgeable and hopefully more proficient when out and about when making your rounds. You will not be left scrambling for things or ideas.
Explanation: My mother is an R.N., she knows . Hope this helps. Dee Dee Riley.
Ideally, which form of media communication is used to express a personal concern about a nutrition or health issue that you feel needs attention
Ideally, social media is the form of media communication that is used to express a personal concern about a nutrition or health issue that you feel needs attention.
What is social media?
Social media is a collection of online platforms that allow users to create, share, or exchange information and ideas through virtual communities and networks. The most common forms of social media include blogs, social networks, and forums, among others.
It is an effective medium of communication to express personal concern about a nutrition or health issue that needs attention because it offers a platform for people to share their experiences and spread awareness about health and nutrition issues.
In conclusion, social media is the ideal form of media communication that is used to express a personal concern about a nutrition or health issue that you feel needs attention.
It has become an increasingly powerful tool in spreading awareness and shaping public opinion on health and nutrition-related issues.
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1. Jimmy is beginning to pull himself up to stand. He grabs onto the edges of tables, chairs, and
other furniture to independently stand up. Every time he pulls his body up, his mom praises
him by saying, "Good job, Jimmy, you stood up!" As a result, Jimmy has been pulling himself
up more often..
12 Month
Process of introducing a dead pathogen or nontoxic part of a pathogen into the body to provoke an immune response that prevents a certain disease is called
The method through which dead pathogens or non-toxic components of a pathogen are introduced into the body to provoke an immune response that prevents a certain disease is called vaccination.
Vaccination is a form of passive immunization. It contains inactivated pathogens and dead particles which when introduced into the body cause production of antibodies that shield the immune system against these particles. Immunization and vaccination are used interchangeably to denote this process. It is based on the principle of 'memory'.
The generation of B cells and T cells recognizes the pathogen when the body encounters it again in the future. Fever, nausea, and weakness may occur during vaccination. Every child must be vaccinated timely within 1 year to protect them from various deadly diseases such as typhoid, DPT, pneumonia, etc.
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Final Exam
OSHA requires that employers make medical and training records available upon request for
examination and copying to the subject employee, their representatives, and to government
regulators under OSHA.
A. True
B. False
The statement is True. Employers are required by OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) to keep and make available to employees, their representatives, and government regulators specific medical and training records. This is consistent with OSHA's dedication to protecting employee health and safety at work.
Employers are required to maintain records of employee training as well as records of illnesses, injuries, and exposure to hazardous substances that occur on the job. To check for compliance with safety requirements and to address issues relating to occupational health and safety, employees, their authorized representatives, and government regulators have the right to seek access to these records for examination and copying.
Although OSHA requires access to these documents, it's crucial to remember that employers must respect employees' privacy and confidentiality when granting access to medical records. Private health information of individuals should be protected while also enabling the required supervision and accountability with the access.
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As the office manager you come into contact with various drug representatives that provide you your office with free samples. It is important to keep them organized in a locker drawer. What is the most efficient way to organize the samples ?
Answer:
Keep the samples in bins for each specific sample, label each bin so that the samples don't get mixed up.
Explanation:
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those who emphasize the ways in which people learn disordered behavior have suggested that compulsive behaviors are
a: unconditional responses to stress b: habitual defenses against unconscious impulsive c:reinforced by anxiety reduction d: conditioned habits
The answer is C: reinforced by anxiety reduction. According to the perspective that emphasizes the ways in which people learn disordered behavior, compulsive behaviors are believed to be reinforced by anxiety reduction.
This means that individuals engage in these behaviors as a way to alleviate or reduce feelings of anxiety or distress. Compulsive behaviors, such as repetitive rituals or actions, are often performed in response to obsessive thoughts or to prevent perceived negative outcomes.
The reinforcement of anxiety reduction occurs through a process known as negative reinforcement. When individuals engage in compulsive behaviors and experience a decrease in anxiety or distress, they are more likely to repeat those behaviors in the future as a way to cope with similar situations or triggers. Over time, this pattern can become ingrained and compulsive behaviors can become habitual.
It is important to note that compulsive behaviors can have multiple contributing factors, and different perspectives and theories exist to explain their development and maintenance. However, the perspective that highlights the role of anxiety reduction through negative reinforcement is particularly relevant in understanding compulsive behaviors.
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7.Medical research has concluded that people experience a common cold roughly two times per year. Assume that the time between colds is normally distributed with a mean of 160 days and a standard deviation of 40 days.
(a) What is the probability of going 200 or more days between colds? Of going 365 or more days?
(b) What is the probability of getting a cold within 80 days of a previous cold?
The probability of of going 200 or 365 or more is 0.0008.
The probability of getting cold is 0.0228.
How to find probability?(a) To find the probability of going 200 or more days between colds, we need to calculate the z-score for 200 days:
z = (200 - 160) / 40 = 0.5
Using a standard normal table, we can find that the probability of having a z-score greater than or equal to 0.5 is approximately 0.6915.
To find the probability of going 365 or more days between colds:
z = (365 - 160) / 40 = 3.125
Using a standard normal table, we can find that the probability of having a z-score greater than or equal to 3.125 is approximately 0.0008.
(b) To find the probability of getting a cold within 80 days of a previous cold, we need to calculate the z-score for 80 days:
z = (80 - 160) / 40 = -2
Using a standard normal table, we can find that the probability of having a z-score less than or equal to -2 is approximately 0.0228.
So, the probability of getting a cold within 80 days of a previous cold is approximately 0.0228.
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The probability is 0.0008.
an example of a health career in the national healthcare standards health informatics services cluster is .
An example of a health career in the national healthcare standards health informatics services cluster is a forensic science technician.
Forensic science technicians assist ongoing cases by gathering and evaluating evidence. There are several professionals who specialise in either lab research or investigating crime scenes. In fact, the Bureau of Labor Statistics classifies all labour done by a forensic scientist as that of a forensic science technician, making forensic science technicians (also known as forensic lab technicians) identical to forensic scientists.
Science and the particular field of practise, such as nursing, public health, medicine, or pharmacy, to mention a few, are key components of jobs in the health career. All health care providers should, nevertheless, share a core set of abilities.
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2. Which human activity would help reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere?
a. decrease the buming of fossil fuels
b. decrease the number of recycling programs
c. increase the human population d increase the number of cars being driven
when a patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (ckd) for several years he started on hemodialysis, which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis b. dietary sodium and potassium creatinine are lost c. unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis d. more protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis
The information from the diet which the nurse will include in the patient teaching is that the more amount of protein will be allowed due to the fact that the urea as well as creatine are removed using the process of dialysis.
The correct option is option d.
The patient is suffering from progressive chronic kidney disease or CDK which is a disease in which basically the kidneys of the patient gets damaged and cannot possibly filter the blood in a way that they should be. The disease is known as a chronic disease because the damage which happens to the kidneys occurs slowly over a long period of time.
The information from the diet of the patient which the nurse will be including in her patient teaching would be that the urea as well as the creatine are removed by dialysis and so the amount of protein allowed will be more.
Hence, the correct option is option d.
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In this model of the rock cycle, A represents
rock and arrow B represents the process of
.
In this model of the rock cycle, A represents metamorphic rock and arrow B represents the process of weathering.
What is a rock cycle?A rock cycle simply refers to a concept that is used to describe and illustrate the continuous chemical and biological processes that leads to the formation (creation) of a rock, its transformation from one kind to another, its destruction and reformation over a specific period of time.
In Science, some examples of the natural phenomenon that influences rock cycle are;
Plate tectonic activityErosionWeatheringWeathering involves both the physical and chemical breakdown of rock into smaller pieces while metamorphic rock is a type of rock which is formed due to the transformation of an existing rock.
Based on the model in the image attached below, we can infer and logically conclude that item A represents a metamorphic rock while arrow B represents the process of weathering.
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A patient has sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 36/min. Atropine has been administered to a total dose of 3 mg. A transcutaneous pacemaker has failed to capture. The patient is confused, and her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg. Which therapy is now indicated?
Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/min may be administered to patient that has sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 36/min. Atropine has been administered to a total dose of 3 mg. A transcutaneous pacemaker has failed to capture. The patient is confused, and her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg.
Sinus bradycardia is a cardiac rhythm that is normal overall but is slower than anticipated (less than 60 beats per minute in an adult). It can occasionally be a sign of certain heart ailments or issues, but it can also be an indication that someone is in excellent form as a result of regular activity.
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The Healthcare Quality Book: Vision, Strategy, and Tools, Fourth Edition (Aupha/Hap Book) 4th Edition pdf
Every healthcare institution is on a different path, but all of them require a road plan to get to the same place: quality. An crucial tactic for surviving—and thriving—in the competitive healthcare environment of today is to improve the quality of care.
What does the book contain?
All healthcare professionals may study, put into practice, and oversee quality improvement initiatives with the help of The Healthcare Quality Book: Vision, Strategy, and Tools, which offers the framework, techniques, and useful tools they require. The book provides a thorough analysis of the elements of quality while incorporating methods to continuously improve and transform healthcare organizations. It features chapters written by a group of top contributors with great skill and depth of experience. The book is split into four sections. The first part lays the groundwork for high-quality healthcare and explores the origins of the movement. The discussion of tools, measurements, and how they are used in the quest of quality is covered in detail in Part II. The junction of leadership and culture, which is essential to the pursuit of quality and safety, is the subject of Part III. The book's final section, Part IV, contains a number of chapters that address many of the new themes that are influencing the landscape of modern quality.Learn more about the Healthcare professional with the help of the given link:
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PEDIATRIC CALCULATIONSExample: A child weighing 76 lbs. is ordered to receive 150 mg of Clindamycin every six (6) hours. The recommended pediatric dose is 8-20 mg / kg / day in four divided doses.The Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets.1. What is the weight in kg
Complete question: A child weighing 76 lbs. is ordered to receive 150 mg of Clindamycin q6h.
The pediatric drug handbook states the recommended dose is 8-20 mg/kg/day in four divided doses.
The Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets.
1.) What is the weight in kg?
2.) What is the safe total daily dose?
3.) Is the prescribed dose safe?
4.) Calculate the number of tablets to give.
Answer:
1.) 34.55 kgs
2.) 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day
3.) YES
4.) 1.5 tablets
Explanation:
Paediatric calculations are performed by medical personnel using the child's weight to avoid medication errors. Clindamycin is a broad spectrum antibiotics which is used for the treatment of different infections both in adult and children. It's dosage should be properly calculated by the medical personnel to avoid drug abuse and serious adverse effects.
1.) To calculate the body weight of the child from pound( lbs) to Kilogram ( kg):
1 kg = 2.2 lbs
Therefore 76 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 34.55 kgs
2.) To determine the safe total daily dose:
The recommended pediatric dose is 8-20 mg / kg / day in four divided doses.
Therefore, safe total daily dose: 34.55 x 8 = 276.36 mg
34.55 x 20 = 690.91 mg
safe dosage range: 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day
3.) To determine if the prescribed dose is safe is:
150 mg x 4 doses/day = 600 mg/day;
Since 600 mg/day is within the safe dosage range which is 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day, the prescribed dose is SAFE.
4.) To determine the number of tables to give:
Note that the Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets. But the child is ordered to receive 150mg of Clindamycin. Therefore the number of tablets to receive is;
150 ÷ 100 = 1.5 tablets.
Sue is admitted to the hospital after having a stroke. She is experiencing the following symptoms:
episodes of intense, unexplainable fear; blindness in her right eye; difficulty moving her right foot;
and always feeling hungry no matter how much she eats.
Explain how the following will be used to diagnose Sue.
MRI Scan
Explain how the following are related to Sue's symptoms.
Amygdala
Hypothalamus
Acetylcholine
Sensory neurons
thousing radio waves and magnetic fields of
MRI Scan will be used to diagnose the Sue through using it to examine the structures of the brian so as to note or ascertain damages to structures of the brain and also abnormalities to the brain structure as a result of the stroke.
The following relates to Sue's symptoms through;
Amygdala; Because the Amygdala is responsible for the control of the rage and fear responses, it may have been affected.
Hypothalamus; Because none of the symptoms Sue is presenting with involves hypothalamic functions, the hypothalamus of the patients probably wasn't affected.these hypothalamic functions: Endocrine control,body temperature,reward centers,hunger, thirst,
sexual behavior.
The possible connecting between the damages done to the hypothalamus and that patient's episodes of fear,will clearly indicate that these feelings might or will have connection to the endocrine control (the release of adrenaline,fight or flight response).
Acetylcholine; Acetylcholine as chief of the neurotransmitters, when there is excess accumulation of it at the neuromuscular junction or synapse,will bring about the above symptoms of Sue like blindness in her right eye, difficulty moving her right foot, and always feeling hungry no matter how much she eats.
Sensory neurons; As of result of Sue's stroke,there will be damage to the sensory neurons as well as damage to to the nerve cells in the brain tissue.there will be obvious impairment in relaying sensory impulse to the brain which will in-turn bring about the symptoms Sue is presenting with.
Magnetic waves and radio fields will be injured too,a break in transmission of waves will impair normal functioning and bring about the above symptoms of Sue.
Explain the parts of the brain that are involved in learning
Which of the following statements concerning correlation analysis is not true? A. A researcher may claim that one variable influences another if test results are significant. B. A researcher may claim that variables are related to each other if test results are significant. C. A researcher may claim that one variable causes another to occur if test results are significant. D. A researcher may claim that one variable can predict the outcome of another if test results are significant. Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D Mark this and return
Answer: C. A researcher may claim that one variable causes another to occur if test results are significant.
Explanation:
Correlation analysis is not meant to show causation between variables but merely to find out if there is a relationship.
While there is a chance of one variable causing another if they are correlated, it is not always the case as there might be another unforeseen variable.
Even if results are significant, a researcher should never claim that one variable can cause another from correlation analysis.
Answer:
B.) A researcher may claim that variables are related to each other if test results are significant.
Which tissue is found directly underneath epithelium?
Answer:
The basement membrane
Explanation:
Describe three adaptive advantages of mammalian anatomy
Answer:
The three adaptive advantages of the mammalian anatomy are as follows:
No eggs. Mammals have well developed offspring that they can keep it safe inside their body until the time it is ready to be in the outside world.
Four legs under the body. It allows mammals to be highly developed when it comes to speed.
Fur. It protects the mammals’ skin.
Explanation:
Your answer should be - The following are the three adaptive benefits of mammalian anatomy: There are no eggs. Mammals have well-developed offspring that they can keep safe inside their bodies until they are ready to be released into the world. There are four legs under the body. It enables animals to be highly evolved in terms of speed. Fur. It protects the skin of animals.
10.
3. O
o=whole note
Help I need the labels for this heart
Answer:
hope this will help you more
a nurse is participating in a disaster simulation in which a toxic substance is released into a crowded stadium
The nurse should follow established disaster response protocols.
What actions should the nurse take during a simulated toxic substance release in a crowded stadium?During a disaster simulation involving the release of a toxic substance in a crowded stadium, the nurse's primary responsibility is to follow established disaster response protocols.
These protocols are designed to ensure the safety and well-being of both the nurse and the affected individuals.
Firstly, the nurse should prioritize personal safety by donning appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) to minimize exposure to the toxic substance.
This may include gloves, masks, goggles, or full-body protective suits, depending on the nature of the toxic agent.
Secondly, the nurse should assess the situation and gather information.
This involves identifying the type of toxic substance released, understanding its potential health effects, and assessing the severity of the situation.
This information will help the nurse make informed decisions and provide appropriate care to affected individuals.
Finally, the nurse should collaborate with other healthcare professionals, emergency responders, and authorities involved in the disaster simulation.
This teamwork is crucial for coordinating efforts, implementing evacuation or containment measures, providing immediate medical assistance, and ensuring effective communication throughout the response.
It is important for the nurse to remain calm, focused, and adhere to established protocols to ensure the best possible outcome in managing the simulated disaster scenario.
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