Michelle plans on raising $80 for her softball team. To raise the money, she is selling team shirts for $10 each.
So far she has raised $20. To calculate how many more shirts she needs to sell, Michelle subtracts 20 from 80
and then divides by 10.
Which of the equations below can be solved using the same steps?
A. 10.0 + 20 = 80
B. 200 + 10 = 80
C. 80.0 - 200 = 10
D. 102 + 20= 80

Answer:

  10,800 yd/mo

Step-by-step explanation:

  \(\dfrac{9\text{ in}}{\text{min}}=\dfrac{9\text{ in}}{\text{min}}\times\dfrac{1\text{ yd}}{36\text{ in}}\times\dfrac{60\text{ min}}{1\text{ h}}\times\dfrac{24\text{ h}}{1\text{ da}}\times\dfrac{30\text{ da}}{1\text{ mo}}=\dfrac{(9)(60)(24)(30)}{36}\text{ yd/mo}\\\\=\boxed{10,\!800\text{ yd/mo}}\)

Answer:

k=10x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

64 is equal to 2^6, so we just have 2^6*4^5k

4^5x is equal to 2^10x and we have 2^6*2^10x=2^k

Apply exponent multiplication rule : a^m*a^n=a^m+n

We get 2^10x+6, so 10x+6 is our answer

If your average test grade from earlier examinations and your most recent test grade is equal, your average test grade will remain constant.

Therefore, if your average test grade from earlier examinations and your most recent test grade is equal, your average test grade will remain constant.

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After 7 visits, both Gym A and Gym B will cost approximately the same amount.

To find out when both gym plans will cost the same, we need to set them equal to each other and solve for the number of visits. Let's call the number of visits x.
For Gym A, the cost is the initial fee of $24.15 plus $4.50 for each visit. So the cost can be written as:
Cost of Gym A = $24.15 + ($4.50 x)
For Gym B, there is no initial fee, but each visit costs $7.95. So the cost can be written as:
Cost of Gym B = $7.95x
Now we can set the two costs equal to each other and solve for x:
$24.15 + ($4.50 x) = $7.95x
Simplifying this equation, we get:
$24.15 = $3.45x
Dividing both sides by 3.45, we get:
x ≈ 7
Therefore, after 7 visits, both Gym A and Gym B will cost approximately the same amount. If Mary plans to visit the gym more than 7 times, then Gym B will be the more cost-effective option. However, if Mary plans to visit the gym less than 7 times, then Gym A will be the better option.

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finding the moment generating functions (MGFs) and using them to compute the expected value (E(X)) and variance (Var(X)) for the given distributions.

(a) Bernoulli Distribution:
MGF: Ø(t) = 1-p+pe in power t
E(X) = p
Var(X) = p(1-p)

(b) Binomial Distribution:
MGF: Ø(t) = (1-p+pe^t)^n
E(X) = np
Var(X) = np(1-p)

(c) Poisson Distribution:
MGF: Ø(t) = e^(λ(e^t-1))
E(X) = λ
Var(X) = λ

(d) Geometric Distribution:
MGF: Ø(t) = (pe in power t)/(1-(1-p)e in power t), for |e^t| < 1/p
E(X) = (1-p)/p
Var(X) = (1-p)/p²

(e) Uniform Distribution (a, b):
MGF: Ø(t) = (e in power (tb) - ein power(ta))/(t(b-a))
E(X) = (a+b)/2
Var(X) = (b-a)²/12

(f) Exponential Distribution (λ):
MGF: Ø(t) = λ/(λ-t), for t < λ
E(X) = 1/λ
Var(X) = 1/λ²

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Answer:

think its the last one

Step-by-step explanation:

because 1 represents x and x times x is x squared and 4 times minus 4 equals minus 16

The probability of winning a certain lottery is p = 1/64,481. For a single play, the expected number of wins is E(X) = 1*p + 0*(1-p) = p.

The variance of the number of wins for a single play is\(Var(X) = p(1-p) = 1/64,481 * 64,480/64,481 = 64,480/64,481^2\).

For 669 plays, the expected number of wins is 669p and the variance of the number of wins is \(669Var(X) = 669(64,480/64,481^2) = 668.99/64,481\).

The standard deviation is the square root of the variance, so the answer is approximately sqrt(668.99/64,481) = 0.309.

Therefore, the closest answer choice is D) 0.3.

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Answer:

D. x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve  :    x-1 = 0

Add  1  to both sides of the equation :

                     x = 1

x = 1 for equation 5x - ( 4x - 1) = 2.

An equation is a mathematical statement that shows that two mathematical expressions are equal. It may have one variable, two, three and so on.

For given equation,

5x - ( 4x - 1) = 2

This is a equation in one variable which can be solved by transposing the terms.

Firstly, Solving the parenthesis,

5x-4x+1=2

Then, Solving the like terms.

x+1=2

To calculate the value of x, subtract 1 from both the sides.

x+1-1=2-1

x=1

Thus, the value of x is 1. So, option d) is correct.

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Answer:

196

Step-by-step explanation:

Sea el número desconocido " x ".

x + 8 = 204

x = 204 - 8

x = 196

Por lo tanto,

196 es la respuesta.

Answer:

the answer is 196

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine an orthonormal basis for the subspace of p2 spanned by the polynomials f(x), g(x), and h(x), we can use the Gram-Schmidt process. This process allows us to transform a set of linearly independent vectors into an orthonormal set.

Let's go through the steps of the Gram-Schmidt process for this specific problem Start with the first polynomial, f(x), as our first vector. Normalize f(x) by dividing it by its magnitude (or norm). This will give us our first orthonormal vector, let's call it u1. Next, we move on to g(x), the second polynomial. Subtract the projection of g(x) onto u1 from g(x) itself. The projection of g(x) onto u1 is found by taking the dot product of g(x) and u1, and then multiplying u1 by this dot product. Subtracting this projection from g(x) gives us a new vector, which we'll call v2.

Normalize v2 by dividing it by its magnitude. This will give us our second orthonormal vector, u2. Finally, we move on to h(x), the third polynomial. Again, we subtract the projections of h(x) onto u1 and u2 from h(x) itself. The projection of h(x) onto u1 and u2 is found by taking the dot product of h(x) and each u vector, and then multiplying the respective u vector by these dot products. Subtracting these projections from h(x) gives us a new vector, which we'll call v3. It's important to note that the Gram-Schmidt process can be applied to any set of linearly independent vectors to obtain an orthonormal basis. The resulting orthonormal basis is useful in various areas of mathematics, such as solving systems of linear equations and diagonalizing matrices.

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Answer:

B) y - 3 = 1/2 (x-2)

Step-by-step explanation:

y-y1=m(x-x1)

Answer:

10x + 6 ≥ 42

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

\( \boxed{ - \frac{ - 4}{ - h} }\)

Spearman's rank correlation coefficient would be an appropriate statistic  for an associational research question.

When the two variables of interest are non-normally distributed and skewed, Spearman's rank correlation coefficient would be an appropriate statistic to use for an associational research question involving the correlation between two non-normally distributed continuous variables.

Spearman's rank correlation coefficient is a nonparametric measure of correlation that is used to assess the strength and direction of association between two ranked variables. It measures the degree to which the rank order of one variable is related to the rank order of another variable, regardless of their actual values.

Unlike Pearson's correlation coefficient, which assumes a linear relationship between the variables and normality of data, Spearman's correlation coefficient is robust to outliers, non-linear relationships, and non-normality of data. It works by converting the data into ranks, which can be used to compute the correlation coefficient.

Therefore, if we have two non-normally distributed, skewed continuous variables and want to examine the association between them, Spearman's rank correlation coefficient would be an appropriate statistic to use.

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Answer:

75 > x/15

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Mulitply the 15 on both sides in order to get the x by it self.

Step 2: Simplify. 75 x (15) >x/15 x (15)

Step 3: The 15 on the right hand side cancels out leaving the x by itself.

Final Answr: 1125 > x which translates to x < 1125

 The solution to the inequality is: A) (x > 1125)

To solve the inequality 75 > x/15, we need to find the range of values for x that satisfy the inequality.

First, we can start by isolating x on one side of the inequality. To do that, we can multiply both sides of the inequality by 15 (since 15 is a positive number, we don't need to reverse the inequality sign):

75 * 15 > x

Now, simplify the left side of the inequality:

1125 > x

So, the solution to the inequality is x < 1125, which means all values of x that are less than 1125 will satisfy the inequality.

Visually, if we plot the graph of y = x/15 and y = 75, we'll see that y = x/15 is a straight line with a positive slope of 1/15 passing through the origin, and y = 75 is a horizontal line parallel to the x-axis at the y-coordinate of 75. The solution to the inequality is the region below the line y = 75, which corresponds to the values of x that are less than 1125.

In real-world terms, this inequality represents a scenario where 75 is greater than some fraction of x divided by 15. To satisfy the inequality, x must be less than 1125. For example, if x represents the number of items sold in a store, this inequality would indicate that the store must sell fewer than 1125 items to meet the condition. The store's sales would need to be less than 1125 * 15 = 16,875 to maintain the inequality's validity. Beyond this point, if the store sells more items, the inequality would no longer hold true.

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Answer:

460

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m=5

Step-by-step explanation:

You use the slope formula to find your answer.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The reflection line remained and you can see that the direction changed of the shape and the vertex pointing down on the right is pointing up on the left

The probability of rolling a sum of 7 or 11 when rolling both dice is approximately 0.111 or 11.1%.

The probability of rolling a sum of 7 or 11 with two 6-sided dice, we can first calculate the total number of possible outcomes when rolling both dice.

Each die has six possible outcomes, so the total number of possible outcomes when rolling both dice is 6 x 6 = 36.

To count the number of outcomes where the sum is 7 or 11.

There are two ways to roll a sum of 7:

(1, 6) and (6, 1).

There are also two ways to roll a sum of 11:

(5, 6) and (6, 5).

There are four possible outcomes that result in a sum of 7 or 11.

Thus, the probability of rolling a sum of 7 or 11 is:

4/36

= 1/9

≈ 0.111

The total number of outcomes while rolling both dice in order to determine the likelihood of rolling a sum of 7 or 11 using two 6-sided dice.

Rolling both dice, there are a total of six possible results for each die, for a total of 36 options in all.

to determine how many possibilities there are where the total is 7 or 11. Rolling a 7, there are two possible outcomes: (1, 6) and (6, 1).

Additionally, there are two methods to roll an 11: (5, 6) and (6, 5).

There are four events that can lead to a total of either 7 or 11.

As a result, the likelihood of rolling a 7 or 11 is 4/36 = 1/9 0.111.

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Answer: All three methods would be easy and effective

Step-by-step explanation:  

A. y=4

B. y=10

C. y=7

D. y=1

Hope this helped!!

Answer:

Option 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Go through until you find a true statement:

- The number of observations is 10

Count the number of data points. You should end up with 15, so this option is not correct.

-The median of the data set is 10

To find the median, you know that there are a total of 15 data points, so the median would be the mean of the 7th and 8th (because those are the middle numbers). If you look at the data points, the 7th and 8th points are at 10. The mean of 10 and 10 is just 10,  so that means the median of the set is 10.

This is the correct answer.

If you want, you can also go through the other options and see that none of them work.

Answer:

The person above is correct it would be option two!

Step-by-step explanation:

The explanation makes alot of sence. I took the test to make sure it was correct i gotten a 100~!!! ty!

Since they need to find the weight of their suitcases to make sure they meet airline regulations. the units that they should use Kg.

Airport passengers are often needed to put only at least a single baggage any time in the check-in self-service so that the baggage can be checked and identified.

Note that the Maximum Weight per piece is said to be 50 lb/23 kg and the Maximum Dimensions is said to be 45 linear inches or 115 cm (including the length + width + height)

Therefore, Since they need to find the weight of their suitcases to make sure they meet airline regulations. the units that they should use Kg.

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See full question below

Maria and Jose, students at Mississippi Valley State University, are going to study abroad in Spain. They need to find the weight of their suitcases to make sure they meet airline regulations. What units should they use?

Answer:

Slope is -12.5

x-intercept is 75

y-intercept is 6

Step-by-step explanation:

See attached image

The two consecutive positive integers are 5 and 6.

Let the two consecutive positive integers be x and x + 1. We are given that the product of these integers is 3 less than three times their sum. This can be expressed as:
\(x(x + 1) = 3(x + x + 1) - 3\)
Now we can solve for x:
\(x^2 + x = 6x + 3 - 3\)
\(x^2 + x = 6x\)
\(x^2 - 5x = 0\)
Factoring the left side of the equation, we get:
\(x(x - 5) = 0\)
From this equation, x can be 0 or 5.

However, since the question asks for positive integers, we can't use x = 0. Therefore, x = 5.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

Initial psi yesterday = 40 psi

psi today = 38 psi

If trend continues and tire loses the same percentage of air. How much air will be left in tire at the end of the week

1 week ( 7days)

Total loss after 7 days = (amount lost per day * number of days)

Total psi lost per day= [(40 - 38) = 2

% psi lost = (2/40) * 100

= 5%

Applying the exponential loss functin:

A = I ( 1 - r)^t

t = 7days ; r = 5% = 0.05 ; A = amount left ; I = Initial amount

A = 40(1 - 0.05)^7

A = 40(0.95)^7

A = 40 * 0.69833729609375

A = 27.933

A = 27.9 psi

Answer:

49

Step-by-step explanation:

Complementary angles always add up to 90 degrees, so make and equation. First, say that angle ABC and angle QRS add up to ninety degrees. Substitute the values to get 41 degrees plus angle QRS equals 90 degrees, and once you subtract 41 from both sides, you get angle QRS equals 49 degrees.

Hope this helps. :)

The QRS is 49

We know that

The complementary angles are those whose sum is 90 degrees

So,

x + 41 = 90

x = 49

So, QRS = 49

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