Learning Task 1: Identify the organs of digestion being described. Select
your answer from the list. Do this on your answer sheet.
Mouth
stomach
esophagus
small intestine
Large intestine
1. a long coiled connected from the stomach.
2. a long muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the throat to
the stomach.
3. a large J-shaped organ at the end of the esophagus, on the left
side of the body.
4. Is the first part in the digestive system composed of teeth and the
tongue.
5. a large coiled tube attached to the end of the small intestine.​

Answers

Answer 1

1. a long coiled connected from the stomach. small intestine

2. a long muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the throat to

the stomach. esophagus

3. a large J-shaped organ at the end of the esophagus, on the left

side of the body. stomach

4. Is the first part in the digestive system composed of teeth and the

tongue. mouth

5. a large coiled tube attached to the end of the small intestine.​ large intestine

Answer 2

A biochemical process by which the body breaks the large complex food molecules into small soluble molecules is called digestion.

The correct answers are:

1. A long coiled connected from the stomach: small intestine.

It is a coiled tube connected to the stomach responsible for the absorption of nutrients and water from the food.

2. A long muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the throat to the stomach: esophagus

It transports the food and fluid from the mouth to the stomach.

3. A large J-shaped organ at the end of the esophagus, on the left

side of the body: stomach

It is a muscular gland that secretes digestive enzymes responsible for breaking the food particles.

4. Is the first part of the digestive system composed of teeth and the tongue: mouth

Also known as the oral cavity contains teeth and saliva for mastication.

5. A large coiled tube attached to the end of the small intestine:​ large intestine.

In this part, some of the remaining nutrients and electrolytes are absorbed and the waste is excreted out from the body.

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Related Questions

27 y/o G1 woman at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing an induction of labor for preeclampsia with severe features. Complains of HA, RUQ pain, and seeing spots. She is hypertensive, and fetal HR is normal. She has been given 10 hrs of oxytocin and receiving IV magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr. During the last 2 hours, her UO has decreased and her RR is down. Pulse ox is 88%. Fetal heart tracing is a Category 1. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

Answers

Based on the presented scenario, the next best step in the management of this patient would be to discontinue oxytocin and administer an IV bolus of 5-10 mg of intravenous labetalol for blood pressure control.

                    The patient is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, which could lead to respiratory depression and decreased urine output. Magnesium toxicity is a potential side effect of magnesium sulfate, and the signs of toxicity include decreased reflexes, respiratory depression, decreased urine output, and decreased oxygen saturation. Discontinuing oxytocin and administering an IV bolus of labetalol will help to control the patient's blood pressure and prevent further magnesium toxicity. The fetal heart tracing is reassuring, and the next step would be to monitor the patient closely for signs of improvement or deterioration. The patient should also be evaluated for the need for delivery, given the severity of her preeclampsia with severe features.

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There is a right and left cervical plexus.
True or false

Answers

False. C1, C2, C3, C4, and C5 are all located on the left.

The statement "There is a right and left cervical plexus" is True because The cervical plexus is a network of nerves that arises from the ventral rami (branches) of the first four cervical spinal nerves (C1-C4).

It is located in the neck region. The cervical plexus gives rise to various branches and nerves that supply motor and sensory innervation to different structures in the head, neck, and shoulders.

The cervical plexus has a right and left division, with each division supplying its respective side of the neck and upper body. The nerves originating from the cervical plexus control motor functions, such as muscle movement and sensation, in their respective regions.

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Why global economy inequality matter

Answers

Inequality drives status competition, which drives personal debt and consumerism. More equal societies promote the common good – they recycle more, spend more on foreign aid, score higher on the Global Peace Index. Business leaders in more equal countries rate international environmental agreements more highly.

Discuss the importance of communication between healthcare professionals and patients. How can you ensure that you are communicating effectively with patients? Include verbal versus nonverbal communication, communication barriers, and how you can address patient education with patients.

Answers

Explanation:

Effective communication is essential in healthcare, as it helps to build trust and rapport between healthcare professionals and patients, ensures that patients receive accurate information, and facilitates a better understanding of their health conditions and treatments.

Verbal communication involves using spoken words to exchange information, while nonverbal communication encompasses gestures, facial expressions, tone of voice, and body language. Both types of communication are important in healthcare, and can have a significant impact on the quality of care that patients receive.

There can be communication barriers in healthcare, such as language barriers, cultural differences, or patient anxiety, which can affect the quality of information exchanged between healthcare professionals and patients.

To ensure effective communication with patients, healthcare professionals should:

1. Listen actively to patients and respond to their questions and concerns.

2. Use clear and concise language that is easily understood by patients.

3. Avoid medical jargon and technical terms that patients may not understand.

4. Consider cultural and linguistic differences when communicating with patients.

5. Observe nonverbal cues and adjust communication style as needed.

6. Address any communication barriers that may arise.

7. Provide patient education that is appropriate for their level of understanding and takes into account their learning needs and preferences.

In summary, effective communication between healthcare professionals and patients is crucial for ensuring high-quality care and building trust with patients. Healthcare professionals should strive to communicate effectively and address any communication barriers that may arise.

All of the following except ____________ are possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders.
All of the following except
A. discrimination
B. labels
C. prejudice
D. negative stereotypes
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
PLEASE HELPPP WILL GIVR BRAINLIEST ANSWER

Answers

The possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders should not include the labels.

What are stigmas?

Social stigma refer to the discrimination or the disapproval against the individual or the group that should be based on the social characteristics where it should be make a difference from the other society members.

Its side effects include the discrimination, prejudice. negative stereotypes, etc

Therefore, the option B is correct and the same should be considered.

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The technician is asked to make 8 oz of a 50% solution of Isopropyl Alcohol (IPA). ingredients available: Isopropyl Alcohol 70% and water. How many milliliters of water are needed?

Answers

Answer:

118.296 ml of water

Explanation:

Given that;

v/v% concentration = volume of solute/volume of solution * 100

volume of solution = 8 oz

v/v% concentration = 50%

50 = volume of solute/8 * 100

volume of solute = 50 * 8/100

volume of solute = 4 oz

Volume of water needed = Volume of solution - volume of solute

Hence

8 oz - 4 oz

Volume of water needed = 4 oz

1 oz = 29.574 ml

4oz = 4oz * 29.574 ml/1 oz

= 118.296 ml of water

It takes an average of 10.9 minutes for blood to begin clotting after an injury. An EMT wants to see if the average will increase if the patient is immediately told the truth about the injury. The EMT randomly selected 64 injured patients to immediately tell the truth about the injury and noticed that they averaged 11.9 minutes for their blood to begin clotting after their injury. Their standard deviation was 3.59 minutes. What can be concluded at the the α=0.01 level of significance? a. For this study, we should use b. The null and alternative hypotheses would be: c. The test statistic d. The p-value = (Please show your answer to 4 decimal places.) e. The p-value is α the null hypothesis. f. Based on this, we should g. Thus, the final conclusion is that ... The data suggest that the population mean is not significantly greater than 10.9 at α=0.01, so there is statistically insignificant evidence to conclude that the population mean time for blood to begin clotting after an injury if the patient is told the truth immediately is greater than 10.9. The data suggest the population mean is not significantly greater than 10.9 at α=0.01, so there is statistically significant evidence to conclude that the population mean time for blood to begin clotting after an injury if the patient is told the truth immediately is equal to 10.9. The data suggest the populaton mean is significantly greater than 10.9 at α=0.01, so there is statistically significant evidence to conclude that the population mean time for blood to begin clotting after an injury if the patient is told the truth immediately is greater than 10.9.

Answers

The final conclusion is that the data suggest the population mean is significantly greater than 10.9 at α=0.01

a. For this study, we should use a one-sample t-test.

b. The null and alternative hypotheses would be:

Null hypothesis (H0): The population mean time for blood to begin clotting after an injury if the patient is told the truth immediately is equal to 10.9 minutes.

Alternative hypothesis (Ha): The population mean time for blood to begin clotting after an injury if the patient is told the truth immediately is greater than 10.9 minutes.

c. The test statistic can be calculated as follows:

t = (sample mean - hypothesized mean) / (sample standard deviation / √n)

t = (11.9 - 10.9) / (3.59 / √64)

d. The p-value can be obtained by determining the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme as the calculated value under the null hypothesis. The p-value will indicate the level of significance and can be compared to the chosen α value (0.01 in this case).

e. The p-value is compared to α (0.01). If the p-value is less than α, we reject the null hypothesis.

f. Based on this, we should reject the null hypothesis.

g. Thus, the final conclusion is that the data suggest the population mean is significantly greater than 10.9 at α=0.01, providing statistically significant evidence to conclude that the population mean time for blood to begin clotting after an injury, if the patient is told the truth immediately, is greater than 10.9 minutes.

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List (with some explanation if needed) examples of risk stratification for patients undergoing Total Hip or Knee Arthroplasty.
List examples of risk adjustment for patients undergoing Total Hip or Knee Arthroplasty.

Answers

Risk adjustment is an important factor in assessing the outcomes and quality of care for patients undergoing Total Hip or Knee Arthroplasty (THA/TKA).

It involves accounting for patient characteristics that may influence surgical outcomes. Here are some examples of risk adjustment variables for THA/TKA:

1. Age: Older age is associated with increased surgical risks and potential complications.

2. Body Mass Index (BMI): Higher BMI can impact surgical outcomes, such as wound healing and joint stability.

3.Comorbidities: Presence of pre-existing medical conditions like diabetes, hypertension, or heart disease can affect postoperative recovery.

4.Functional Status: Assessment of a patient's mobility and functional ability before surgery helps identify potential challenges during rehabilitation.

5. American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification: This classification system evaluates the overall health status and surgical risk of the patient.

6. Surgical Approach: Different surgical approaches (e.g., minimally invasive or traditional) may have varying levels of complexity and associated risks.

These risk adjustment factors are considered to ensure fair comparisons and provide a comprehensive evaluation of surgical outcomes for THA/TKA patients.

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what drug decreases nasal secretions and prevents the release of histamine.

Answers

Answer:

Cromolyn

Explanation:

Cromolyn* stabilizes mast cell membranes and thereby prevents degranulation and release of histamine. It is found in Crolom (eye drops) and Nasalcrom (nasal spray). Montelukast (Singulair) is used for seasonal allergic rhinitis in adults and children over 2 years old. It is a leukotriene receptor antagonist.

Cromolyn sodium is a standard treatment for managing allergies that cause nasal symptoms, such as hay fever and pet and dust allergies. This medication works by reducing the histamines the body produces. Cromolyn sodium is widely available over the counter in pharmacies or online and comes as a nasal solution.

3 Explique como se pode fazer a determinação indirecta do sulfato presente numa amostra usando a Espectrofotometria de Absorção Atómica. Descreva as equações envolvidas neste processo e explique a sua relacção com a intensidade do sinal medido.

Answers

Answer:

what ok then

Explanation:

what ok then

Activities in isaac's stop-smoking class include rapidly smoking cigarettes until he is dizzy or nauseated. this treatment is referred to as _____.

Answers

Activities in isaac's stop-smoking class include rapidly smoking cigarettes until he is dizzy or nauseated. this treatment is referred to as smoking cessation.

What is smoking cessation?

To give up smoking. The risk of cancer and other significant health issues decreases with smoking cessation. A person can stop smoking with the aid of counseling, behavior therapy, medication, and nicotine-containing items like patches, gum, lozenges, inhalers, and nasal sprays.

The "5 R's"—Relevance, Risks, Rewards, Roadblocks, and Repetition—can be used by the therapist to persuade patients to think about making a quit attempt. Encourage the patient to explain how quitting is significant to them personally. Ask the patient to list any potential risks associated with using tobacco.

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during the analyis of absorbic acid in a 500 mg vitamin c tablet a studnt found the tablet actually contained 487 mg .what is the percent error

Answers

percent error = 2.60%

The actual value = of 500mg

Contained value or experimental value = 487mg

calculate the difference between the Actual value and the contained value

difference between Actual and contained values = (500 - 487) = 13

The formula for calculating the error percentage is

% error = difference between Actual value and Contained value * 100 / Actual value

% error = actual value - contained value * 100 / Actual value

substituting the values in the above formula

% error = (13 / 500) * 100

% error = 0.026 * 100

% error = 2.60 %

2.60% is the answer.

The error percentage is 2.60 %

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The percent error of the analysis of 500 mg vitamin C tablet which contains only 487 mg is 2.6%.

The percent error in measuring is the difference between the actual value and the experimental value divided by the actual value, expressed as a percentage. The formula is:(|experimental value - actual value| / actual value) x 100Given data: Actual value = 500 mg Experimental value = 487 mg Percent error = ?

Using the formula above, the percent error in analyzing 500 mg of Vitamin C tablet which actually contains only 487 mg is:(|experimental value - actual value| / actual value) x 100= (|487 - 500| / 500) x 100= (13 / 500) x 100= 2.6%Hence, the percent error in analyzing the absorbic acid in the given vitamin C tablet is 2.6%.

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Are Viruses prokaryotes.

Answers

Answer:

?

Explanation:

whats your question i don't get it

Viruses are neither prokaryotic or eukaryotic because they aren’t living.

True or False - Using secured and encrypted laptops is one way to deter an impermissible use or disclosure that could result in a breach.

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 was a bill enacted by the 104th U.S Congress and was signed in 1996 by President Bill Clinton. It is a federal law that protects sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without their knowledge, approval or consent and payment of health care insurance for employees.

e-PHI is an abbreviation for electronic protected health information and it can be defined as the health information of a patient which must be generated, stored, transfered or received only in a digital (electronic) format.

In the United States of America, the management of e-PHI is governed by HIPAA Security Rule. Thus, electronic protected health information guarantees confidentiality and the integrity of a health facility and its staffs with respect to a patient.

Encryption is a form of cryptography and typically involves the process of converting or encoding informations in plaintext into a code, known as a ciphertext. Once, an information or data has been encrypted it can only be accessed and deciphered by an authorized user.

Hence, using secured and encrypted laptops is one way to deter an impermissible use or disclosure that could result in a breach, as it requires verifying the identity of an individual or electronic device through authentication.

A compound light microscope consists of how many lenses?

Answers

It has about two lenses
There are approximately 2 lenses

How do you behave when you are on the higher mood states of the Mood Elevator, compared to the lower mood states?

Answers

When on higher mood states of the Mood Elevator, people typically experience an increased sense of joy, peace, gratitude, and love. In contrast, when on the lower mood states of the Mood Elevator, people tend to feel more anxious, angry, stressed, and judgmental.

When on higher mood states of the Mood Elevator, people typically experience an increased sense of joy, peace, gratitude, and love. They have more energy, are more enthusiastic and passionate about what they're doing. They also tend to be more present and focused, which enables them to accomplish more in less time. They tend to be more creative and innovative, as well as more open to new experiences. Additionally, they're more likely to feel connected with others and the world around them, which contributes to a sense of purpose and meaning in their lives.

On the other hand, when on the lower mood states of the Mood Elevator, people tend to feel more anxious, angry, stressed, and judgmental. They experience more negative emotions, which can lead to negative thoughts, behaviors, and outcomes. They also tend to be more closed-minded and resistant to change, which can lead to feelings of helplessness and hopelessness. They may feel like things are out of control and that there's nothing they can do to improve their situation. This can lead to a sense of isolation and disconnection from others and the world around them.

In summary, people who are on the higher mood states of the Mood Elevator are more likely to experience positive emotions, whereas those on the lower mood states are more likely to experience negative emotions. This has a significant impact on their thoughts, behaviors, and outcomes. People can learn to regulate their emotions and shift their mood states by using various techniques such as mindfulness, meditation, gratitude, and positive self-talk.

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1. A rodeo cowboy gets kicked in the anterior thigh after being thrown off a bull.
What injury would you expect him to have? What is the most important thing an
Athletic Trainer can do to allow this cowboy to continue to compete? (pg. 637).

Answers

The injury that would be expected is muscle tearing. The important thing to do is to make a protective thigh pad to avoid further trauma to the area. Repetitive trauma can cause myositis ossifies.

What is myositis ossifies?

Young athletes who play contact sports like football and rugby are more likely to develop myositis ossificans, a benign lesion of heterotopic bone growth, in their soft tissues.

There's a good chance that many of the patients have never directly experienced trauma.

Therefore, muscle tearing is the type of damage that might be anticipated. Making a protective thigh pad is crucial to prevent future injury to the area. Several traumas may result in myositis ossifies.

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What is the ICD-10 code for longstanding persistent?

Answers

Answer: ICD-10-CM Code I48.11 Longstanding persistent atrial fibrillation

Each agency must report yearly to the OMB on its FISMA compliance activities. An agency also must send a copy of their yearly report to each of these agencies with the exception of:______.

Answers

Answer:

Details about actual IT system.

Explanation:

The FISMA compliance report is widely shared. It is agreed not to report accurate details of IT system as these report may be used by criminals and they can learn about the system weaknesses by reading the report. The OMB has said that agencies should not include excessive information about their IT systems. Some agencies may have IG who reviews the information about the controls and carryout his evaluations to make controls better.

A formula calls for 0.235 L of an oil whose specific gravity is 0.950. How many pounds will the oil weigh? Round to the nearest hundredth.

Answers

730 :) good luck on your assignment

a client is arranging a funeral ceremony for the client's child. according to the worden’s tasks of grieving, which task is being accomplished?

Answers

According to Worden's tasks of grieving, the client arranging a funeral ceremony for their child is likely accomplishing the task of "accepting the reality of the loss."

This task involves acknowledging and accepting that the loss has occurred . And that the person or thing is no longer physically present. By arranging a funeral ceremony, the client is taking practical steps to recognize and honor their child's passing, which can help them come to terms with the reality of the loss and begin to process their grief. This is an important step in the grieving process that can lead to healing and eventual acceptance of the loss.

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why scientist can't stop death in the world?​

Answers

Answer:

Because they are not man made buh God's creation

Bc is natural causes

an acute disease becomes when the body cannot get rid of it; while a local disease becomes when it disseminates into deeper organs and tissues. (a) contagious; systemic (b) contagious; secondary (c) chronic; systemic (d) chronic; secondary

Answers

A local sickness becomes systemic when it spreads to deeper organs and tissues, whereas an acute ailment becomes chronic when the body is unable to rid itself of it.

Acute diseases develop quickly, are accompanied by unique symptoms, need immediate or temporary care, and improve after treatment. Acute diseases became chronic when the body is unable to rid itself of them. For instance, a fractured bone from a fall has to be treated by a doctor and will eventually mend. Acute illnesses like the common cold may just go away on their own. Most patients with severe diseases will recover quickly.

If you've been hospitalized for an acute illness, you'll probably be ready to get home once your health gets better. However, leaving the hospital does not imply that you are entirely recovered.

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a toothpaste with high abrasive is recommended to remove plaque. T/F

Answers

Answer:

T

Explanation:

False. A toothpaste with high abrasives is not recommended to remove plaque. In fact, using a toothpaste that is too abrasive can actually damage the enamel on your teeth.

Plaque is best removed through regular brushing and flossing, as well as regular dental cleanings. It is important to choose a toothpaste that contains fluoride, which helps to strengthen tooth enamel and prevent cavities. Additionally, some toothpastes may contain ingredients such as triclosan or hydrogen peroxide, which can help to reduce plaque and prevent gum disease. It is always best to consult with your dentist to determine the best toothpaste for your individual needs.
False. A toothpaste with high abrasiveness is not recommended to remove plaque. Abrasive toothpastes can damage tooth enamel and gum tissue, leading to dental problems. Instead, choose a toothpaste with a moderate level of abrasiveness and fluoride to effectively remove plaque while protecting your teeth and gums. Additionally, proper brushing technique and regular dental check-ups are essential for maintaining good oral hygiene.

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You are driving down a street when you notice a house is on fire. A person who you
assume is the owner is sitting on the front lawn, although you cannot immediately tell if
the person is injured or just upset. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are not
on the scene-in fact, it appears that no one is even aware of the situation. You decide to
stop and help. What are the first basic steps you should take?

Answers

The first step you should take in the given situation is to call 911, so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed.

There are some basic steps in providing first aid and they include the following;

Assess the situationPlan for intervention Implement first aidEvaluate the situation

For the given scenario, after assessing the situation, you will definitely notice that the situation is a critical one. The first step to take as untrained professional is to get help before approaching the scene.

You can help by calling 911 so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed, after which you keep the person safe before the emergency team arrives.

Thus, we can conclude that the first step in the given situation is to call 911.

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Answer:

911

Explanation:

A nursing student is reviewing signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Which of the following should she include on her list? Select all that apply.
-Weight loss
-Tachycardia
-Lethargy
-Tremors
-Cold intolerance

Answers

Weight loss, tachycardia, tremors are the symptoms the student will have for hyperthyroidism.

What is hyperthyroidism?

When the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, hyperthyroidism results.

This issue is also known as an overactive thyroid. The body's metabolism is accelerated by hyperthyroidism. This can result in a variety of symptoms, including weight loss, hand tremors, and an erratic or rapid heartbeat.

There are numerous therapies for hyperthyroidism. The thyroid gland can produce fewer hormones by using radioiodine and anti-thyroid medications.

Surgery to remove all or a portion of the thyroid gland may be used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.

Depending on the underlying cause, hyperthyroidism may occasionally go better on its own without medication or other treatments.

It is more common for older persons to experience symptoms that are difficult to recognize.

An irregular heartbeat, weight loss, depression, and feeling weak or exhausted during routine activities are a few examples of these symptoms.

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What is the root word and suffix
for retinopathy

Answers

Answer:

tino, pathy

Explanation:

what are the structures of nitrogenous Bases

Answers

Answer:

Nitrogenous bases are cyclic, organic molecules that contain a carbon-nitrogen ring structure and act as a Lewis base. Nitrogenous bases are an important part of the genetic material of the cell, DNA and RNA. There are two types of nitrogenous bases, purines with two rings, and pyrimidines with one ring.

The buffers that adjust to control acid-base balance is

Answers

Answer: Plasma proteins, phosphate, and bicarbonate and carbonic acid buffers.

Explanation: The kidneys help control acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions and generating bicarbonate that helps maintain blood plasma pH within a normal range.

What does
5ml sind. 4/7 mean?

Answers

Answer:
5 ml = 1 teaspoon
Explanation:

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