Infection by Streptococcus pyogenes can lead to the production of cross-reactive antibodies that cause autoimmune damage to heart valves, joints and kidneys. this complication is known as Rheumatic fever.
Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory illness that can result from untreated strep throat or scarlet fever. Both strep throat and scarlet fever are brought on by a streptococcus (strep-toe-KOK-us) bacterial infection. Rheumatic fever most frequently affects children between the ages of 5 and 15.
If strep throat or scarlet fever infections are not appropriately treated, especially following strep skin infections, rheumatic fever may occur (impetigo). These infections are brought on by bacteria known as group A Streptococcus (group A strep). Rheumatic fever often appears 1 to 5 weeks after contracting one of these illnesses.
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how does an elephant get its source of nitrogen to form its dna or proteins
An elephant is an herbivore which means that it gets its source of nitrogen to form the DNA or proteins from the plants it eats.
What is an herbivore?An herbivore is a heterotrophic animal that sustains by eating living plants that contain all required nutrients to synthesize the biomolecules of the organism such as for example proteins, DNA and lipids (i.e., fats).
Therefore, with this data, we can see that herbivores are heterotrophic animals that obtain all nutrients to sustain their metabolic activities by eating plants, which is the case for the elephants.
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The school’s biology class is learning about cell division and how the DNA is copied and divided to form an exact copy of the parent cell. What kind of magnifying tool that could be used to observe the stages of mitosis in an onion cell?
Magnifying lens
Transmission Electron Microscope
Compound light microscope
Scanning electron microscope
Answer:
C. Compound Light Microscope
Explanation:
Which of the following threats is not associated with amphibian decline? a. An amphibian fungus, Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis. B. Trampling of amphibian habitat (wetlands) by overabundant, native deer populations c. Commercial harvesting and use of gonads and legs d. Introduced, exotic species (crayfish and fish) e. All of the above are threats that are associated with amphibian decline.
Commercial harvesting and use of gonads and legs is not typically associated with amphibian decline. The correct option is C.
a. An amphibian fungus, Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis: This fungus, commonly known as Bd, is one of the major causes of amphibian declines worldwide. It infects the skin of amphibians, disrupting their ability to breathe and absorb water. Bd has been responsible for population declines and extinctions in numerous amphibian species.
b. Trampling of amphibian habitat (wetlands) by overabundant, native deer populations: Overpopulation of deer can lead to excessive trampling of wetland habitats, which are essential breeding and feeding grounds for amphibians.
The destruction of wetlands can disrupt breeding cycles and result in the loss of suitable habitats for amphibians.
c. Commercial harvesting and use of gonads and legs: This threat is not commonly associated with amphibian decline. While some amphibians are indeed harvested for various purposes (such as food, traditional medicine, or the pet trade), it is not a widespread or major cause of amphibian population declines compared to other threats.
d. Introduced, exotic species (crayfish and fish): Invasive species, including crayfish and fish, can have detrimental effects on native amphibian populations. They can prey on amphibian eggs, larvae, or adults, compete for resources, and alter habitats, leading to declines in amphibian populations.
In summary, while options a, b, and d are known threats associated with amphibian decline, option c (commercial harvesting and use of gonads and legs) is not typically considered a major threat to amphibians.
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A father is heterozygous (AO) for his type A blood and a mother is heterozygous for her type B(BO) blood. What percentage of their offspring would you expect to have a child with O type blood?
Answer:
2 : 2 BO : OO
Explanation:
Children either have blood group B or O thus the probability of a child being either blood group B or O is 50%.
Which of the following hormones does not increase blood glucose levels?a. glucagonb. epinephrinec. insulind. cortisol
The hormone that does not increase blood glucose levels is insulin.
Insulin is produced by the pancreas and helps to lower blood glucose levels by allowing cells to take up glucose from the bloodstream for energy or storage. In contrast, glucagon, epinephrine, and cortisol all increase blood glucose levels through various mechanisms such as stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver or reducing glucose uptake by cells.
The hormone that does not increase blood glucose levels is c. insulin. Insulin actually lowers blood glucose levels by promoting its uptake and storage in cells. In contrast, glucagon, epinephrine, and cortisol all increase blood glucose levels through various mechanisms.
Insulin is produced by the pancreas and helps to lower blood glucose levels by allowing cells to take up glucose from the bloodstream for energy or storage. In contrast, glucagon, epinephrine, and cortisol all increase blood glucose levels through various mechanisms such as stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver or reducing glucose uptake by cells.
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What are the communication skills??
Answer:
presentation, active listening, nonverbal communication, giving/taking feedback,
Explanation:
Some of the most important communication skills for any job are presentation, active listening, nonverbal communication, giving/taking feedback, and others. Improve your communication skills by learning how to listen, noticing nonverbal cues, and practicing oral communication
i pick Hobby
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Question 1 of 10
Which two external factors influence differentiation in plant stem cells?
A. RNA
B. Temperature
C. Cell division
D. Available nutrients
Temperature and available nutrients are two external factors which influence differentiation in plant stem cells .
What is differentiation process ?
It is the process in which meristematic tissues undergo permanent change , which as a result forms the specialized cells in the plant body .
Optimum temperature and availability of nutrients helps the immature cells to grow into permanent ones . unavailability of these factors restrict the process .
Thus , these two factors plays an essential role in differentiation in plant stem cells.
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Answer:ARN and Available nutrients.
Explanation:
What is the y-intercept for the graph of 3x - 5y = 6?
A. 6
5
B
6
5
C. 6
D. 3
5
Answer: y = -6/5
Explanation:3x - 5y = 6 —> 5y = 3x - 6 —> y = (3/5)x -6/5
y intercept is where x = 0, where y = -6/5
and incidentally, the x intercept, where y = 0 is x = 2
how long does it take for a human body to decompose to just bones in water
Explanation:
i think less than 4 days right?
a method of quality assurance in an animal facility is to periodically collect serologic, fecal, and blood for testing to identify the presence of microorganisms. what type of animal is used for this testing? question 38 options: gnotobiotic barrier-sustained axenic sentinel
The type of animal used for this testing is sentinel animals, option D is correct.
Sentinel animals are healthy animals that are placed in close proximity to animals being used for research to monitor the presence of microorganisms in the animal facility. These animals are exposed to the same environmental conditions as the research animals and are periodically tested for the presence of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites.
The testing involves collecting serologic (blood), fecal, and other samples from the sentinel animals and analyzing them for the presence of microorganisms. This helps to identify potential contamination in the animal facility and allows for the implementation of appropriate measures to maintain the health of the research animals, option D is correct.
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The complete question is:
A method of quality assurance in an animal facility is to periodically collect serologic, fecal, and blood for testing to identify the presence of microorganisms. what type of animal is used for this testing? question 38 options:
A. gnotobiotic barrier-
B. sustained
C. axenic
D. sentinel
Explain why transcription occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotes.
Bonus: Compare the processes of replication and transcription.
Answer:
Transcription occurs in eukaryotes in a way similar to prokaryotes. However, initiation is more complex, termination does not involve stem-loop structures and transcription is carried out by three enzymes (RNA polymerases I, II and III) each of which transcribes a specific set of genes and functions in a slightly different way.
Explanation:
Answer:
The transcription is the process by which the DNA molecule makes an RNA molecule using the enzyme RNA polymerase and other proteins.
Step-by-step answer:
The mRNA is then used to generate proteins by a process that is called translation which would occur in the cytoplasm. The transcription occurs in the nucleus because the DNA cannot leave the nucleus. which is the center in which the DNA is stored.
The
the value of the coefficient of friction, the greater the
resistance to sliding.
Tall oak trees are better able to compete for sunlight in crowded forests. short oak trees are at a
disadvantage. what type of selection appears to have made oak trees grow tall?
a. stabilizing selection
b. directional selection
c. disruptive selection
The type of selection that makes tall oka trees a better competitor for sunlight over short ones would be directional selection.
What is directional selection?It is a kind of natural selection in which individuals with traits at one extreme end of the population are better adapted to the environment.
In this case, tall and short oak trees are at the two extreme ends of the population mean with tall oak trees being able to better competitors for sunlight than the short ones.
The selection is, thus, directional, towards the tall trees rather than the average or the short ones.
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you wish to study the role of residue d125 in your protein. your hypothesis is that this residue is important for a possible binding interactio. what is the best mutation to test binding without disrupting protein structure
The best mutation to test binding without disrupting the structure of the D125 protein is D125N.
It is analogous that the D125 protein is a protein. Aspartic acid (Asp) is an acidic amino acid.
D = Asp
To replace the Asp protein in a given protein without disrupting the protein structure, we must use similar amino acids. From the choices given in the question namely:
A. D125W
B. D125C
C. D125K
D. D125N
E. D125P
D125W = represented by Trp protein. This is a large amino acid.D125C = represented by Cys protein. It is a sulfur-containing polar amino acid.D125K = represented by the protein Lis. It is a positively charged amino acid.D125P = represented by the protein Proline. These are amino acids that have two side groups attached.Among the options given, D125N represented by Asn protein is similar to Asp in size.
So, the right answer is D125N.
The answer is multiple choice:
A. D125W
B. D125C
C. D125K
D. D125N
E. D125P
The true choice is D.
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Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly. What must you possess before you can teach in a particular state? You must have a teaching for the state in which you will teach
Identify the cause and effect.
In baseball
Answer:
you hit the ball and it causes it to be propelled into the sky
Explanation:
what two hydrogen carrying molecules are formed during the krebs cycle
Answer:
Remember that glycolysis produces two pyruvic acid molecules per glucose molecule along with two of the hydrogen-carrying NADH molecules. Remember also that the Krebs cycle produces NADH as well as another hydrogen carrier called FADH2.
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what is a pe.do???? anyone know?
Answer/Explanation:
It is sexual abuse from someone who is 16+ and is at least 5 years older and is attracted to a minor that is 13 or less years of age.
Which traits in the investigation showed blending of genes (incomplete dominace) where the dominant trait did not mask the recessive but rather there was physical evidence of both the dominant and recessive traits?
Answer:
skin colour, eue colour, sickle cell anaemia etc
Explanation:
These are traits that aren't fully transmitted from the parent's gene to that of the offspring
What is the name for the substance that is chemically changed by an enzyme?
Answer:
A substrate
Explanation:
(q004) which subfield of biological anthropology uses the fossil record to examine the anatomy and behavior of our relatives in the past?
Paleoanthropology uses the fossil record to examine the anatomy and behavior of our relatives in the past.
What is Paleoanthropology?
Paleoanthropology, also known as paleo-anthropology, aims to comprehend the earliest stages of anatomically modern humans, also known as hominization, by reconstructing evolutionary kinship lines within the family Hominidae using biological evidence (such as petrified skeletal remains, bone fragments, and footprints) (such as stone tools, artifacts, and settlement localities).A single field combines the study of primatology, palaeontology, biological anthropology, and cultural anthropology.As science and methodology advance, genetics is becoming increasingly significant, particularly when it comes to analysing and contrasting DNA structure as a vital tool for determining the evolutionary kinship lines of related species and genera.To learn more about palaeontology, refer to the following link:
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A word that descibes air with a lot of water vapor is
Answer:
humidity
Explanation:
Answer:
Humid
Explanation:
When the air is humid, it has a lot of water vapor in it.
Examine the diagram of a cell.
Which organelle is marked with an X?
Answer:
Mitochondrium
Explanation:
|•-•| :)
Answer: the mitochondrion
Which statement best describes 0 degrees latitude? Please help!!!!!!
Answer:
A
Explanation:
It is the equator
Answer:
A
Explanation:
i just took the test
This questions has two parts
35 points
Part A
Answer: (A) Candida Albicans and Saccharomyces Cerevisiae
Explanation: They have the smallest difference in Cytochrome C
Part B
Answer: (B) The two species have high molecular homology
Explanation: Molecular homology means resemblances between species on the molecular level. Since the two species from the answer in Part A have the smallest difference in Cytochrome C it means they have high molecular similarities; this is due to evolving from the same common ancestor.
(A) is not the right answer because the fungi in the table might all look similar but have different or similar genetic blueprints.(C) is not the right answer because fungi can reproduce sexually or asexually, so reproduction cannot help with determining relatedness.(D) is not the right answer because if the two species from the answer in Part A are closely related because they are both fungi, the answer for Part A should be all of the options.2. Compare How does sexual reproduction differ from asexual reproduction?
Explanation:
In sexual both parents are involved
the heart is regulated by the autonomic nervous system (ans) and control centers in the brainstem. where do the parasympathetic fibers innervate the heart?
The vagus nerve, also referred to as the 10th cranial nerve, is the primary pathway via which the parasympathetic fibres of the autonomic nervous system innervate the heart. The medulla oblongata is where the vagus nerve is born.
What parts of the heart are surrounded by parasympathetic nerve cells?The SA and AV nodes in the heart are primarily innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system. Vagal efferents also innervate the atrial muscle, but they sparingly innervate the ventricular myocardium.
Which heart structures receive autonomic nervous system innervation?Sympathetic and vagal fibres innervate the heart. Although there can be a large overlap in the anatomical distribution, the right vagus nerve primarily innervates the SA node whereas the left vagus nerve innervates the AV node.
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in the sense of alternation of generations, how many generations are included in a mature pine seed?
In the sense of alternation of generations, there are two generations included in a mature pine seed: the sporophyte generation and the gametophyte generation.
The sporophyte generation is the dominant phase in the life cycle of the pine seed, and is characterized by the presence of a multicellular, spore-producing structure, such as a cone or a seed. This structure contains the mature sporophytes, which produce the male or female gametophytes through meiosis.
The gametophyte generation, in turn, is characterized by the presence of tiny, single-celled structures called gametes, which are specialized for reproduction. These gametes eventually give rise to the next generation of sporophytes.
The alternation of generations is a fundamental aspect of the life cycle of many plants, including pines, and is crucial for their survival and reproduction. The presence of two generations, each with distinct characteristics and functions, allows for efficient production and dispersal of offspring, ensuring the continuation of the species over time.
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What is the main function of the smooth and rough Endoplasmic Reticulum in a cell?
Answer:
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum provides vesicles for the Golgi apparatus whereas rough endoplasmic reticulum provides biochemical for the Golgi apparatus. Both smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum helps in the synthesis and storage of proteins.
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Neural control of gfr is mediated by ________ that innervate ________ receptors on vascular smooth muscle causing ________
Neural control of GFR is mediated by Sympathetic neurons that innervate alpha receptors on vascular smooth muscle causing Vasoconstriction.
How is GFR regulated?The sympathetic division of the nervous system regulates the GFR or Glomerular Filtration Rate.GFR is the sum total of filtration rates of all the working nephrons in the kidney.Sympathetic division comes into action when the mean arterial pressure is very low (below 80mmHg).In response to low blood pressure, the medulla releases norepinephrine through sympathetic nerves.Norepinephrine leads to activation of alpha receptors on arteries which cause vasoconstriction.Alpha receptors are more abundant on afferent arterioles.This leads to vasoconstriction (narrowing) of arteries supplying to the glomerulus.This decreases blood flow to glomerulus, leading to decrease in GFR.Learn more about Glomerular Filtration Rate here:
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