in this activitt you examined extinct modern whale skeletons. how does the study of these skeletons provide evidence about how species are related

Answers

Answer 1

In this activity, you examined extinct modern whale skeletons. Studying these skeletons provides evidence about how species are related by comparing their anatomical structures, identifying homologous and vestigial structures, and constructing phylogenetic trees.

This approach, called comparative anatomy, helps scientists understand the evolutionary relationships among species. By analyzing the skeletal structures of extinct whales, you can identify shared characteristics with other marine mammals, such as similar bone shapes or arrangements, suggesting a common ancestor. These similarities, known as homologous structures, provide evidence for evolution and reveal how different species have diverged from a shared origin over time. In addition, the presence of vestigial structures, such as small, non-functional hind limbs in some whale fossils, can also give clues about their evolutionary history, these remnants indicate that whales may have evolved from a terrestrial ancestor that had functional limbs before adapting to life in the aquatic environment.

By comparing the extinct whale skeletons with those of other species, scientists can construct a phylogenetic tree, which represents the evolutionary relationships among species. This helps to trace the lineage of different groups and determine their common ancestors. In summary, the study of extinct modern whale skeletons provides valuable evidence about how species are related by comparing their anatomical structures, identifying homologous and vestigial structures, and constructing phylogenetic trees to reveal the evolutionary relationships among species.

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Related Questions

select all that apply select all of the following that have all of the characteristics of life. multiple select question. a breathing rabbit a bacterial cell the shed skin of a snake a membrane created in the lab

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A breathing rabbit and a bacterial cell have all of the characteristics of life. The shed skin of a snake is no longer living, and a membrane created in the lab is not a living organism.


Based on your question, the options with all the characteristics of life are:
1. A breathing rabbit
2. A bacterial cell
The shed skin of a snake and a membrane created in the lab do not possess all the characteristics of life, such as growth, reproduction, and response to stimuli. The shed skin of a snake is no longer living, and a membrane created in the lab is not a living organism.

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Pretest: Unit 1
Question 16 of 30
Which of the following is an accurate description of what science is?
A. Science is a process of observation and experimentation.
OB. Science is able to answer all questions.
C. Science is a way of finding the absolute truth.
D. Science is a complete body of knowledge.
SUBMIT

Answers

Answer:

A is your answer

Explanation:

If you look at the scientific method it is pretty self explanatory.

1. Make an observation

2. Ask a question

3. Form a hypothesis, or testable explanation

4. Make a prediction based on the hypothesis

5. Test the prediction

6. Iterate: use the results to make new hypothesis or predictions

Hope that helps! :)

Athletes training at high altitudes adapt to air with lower oxygen levels than air at sea level. Which cells are most likely to increase in number as a result of this adaptation?
A. neurons
B. red blood cells
C. white blood cells
D. muscle cells

Answers

B. Red blood cells are most likely to increase

Answer:

B. Red blood cells are most likely to increase

_________ can take many different forms ranging from human organs to computer software.

Answers

Components can take many different forms ranging from human organs to computer software such as - CPU, Memory and IO.There are invincible indestructible and codependent connection between humans and computers.

CPU is like brain of the body which controls the computer , Memory which gain and store every commend like a human memory store Relationship is based on the difference and similarities between human and computers and the ways in which what one of them lacks be fulfilled by what the other one has.

Computer and humans inhabit same world in which they Seems to be existing in symbiosis, which means both are depend on each others.Collaborative computerized robots that are part machines part humans.

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Hi, I need a cheat sheet for a test (benchmark) about advanced weather topics (air pressure, radiation, conduction, convection, atmospheric pressure, etc.) This test is on Friday so you have a bit of time to complete it! Thanks for your help!

Answers

Answer:

here:

Explanation:

Hope this helps! Brainliest would be much appreciated! Have a great day! :)

Hi, I need a cheat sheet for a test (benchmark) about advanced weather topics (air pressure, radiation,

As the universe continued to expand and cool after the Big Bang, atoms formed large clouds of gas, which are known as ___________.

Answers

Answer: Nebula

Explanation:is a large cloud of gas

Answer:

In the first moments after the Big Bang, the universe was extremely hot and dense.  As the universe continued to expand and cool, things began to happen more slowly.  for electrons to be trapped in orbits around nuclei, forming the first atoms.  formed from clouds of gas around 150–200 million years after the Big Bang.

Explanation:

i hope that helps

What if the SHH you are making needs to be accumulated in the cell so that it can be released all at once into the extracellular space at a specific time? How would you store the produced SHH? What would need to occur to release all of the SHH from storage into the extracellular space?

Answers

If SHH is to be accumulated and then released into cellular space at a specific time, it would be necessary to establish storage mechanisms and release mechanisms.

To store the produced SHH would require specialized cellular compartments.

To release all of the stored SHH, a signal or stimulus would need to trigger the release of SHH from storage into the extracellular space.

What steps would the SHH storage and release process take place?SHH production.Storage.Storage regulation.Production of the SHH release signal.SHH release.

SHH is a protein that is stored within the cell and is released into the extracellular space in times of need. These processes need to work in a very regulated way in order to achieve their objectives. For this reason, well-regulated and optimized storage and release mechanisms are needed.

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guyss i need help asap plssss​

guyss i need help asap plssss

Answers

Answer:

external force.

Explanation:

According to newton's first law of motion ( and also according to laws of relativistic motio) a stationary object that cannot move unless it is acted upon a external force.

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in —
A the location of sugar groups in DNA
B the sequence of nucleotides in DNA
C the number of nitrogenous bases in DNA
D the molecules attached to the phosphate in DNA

Answers

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences B the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.

How does the linear sequence of nucleotides in DNA determine traits?

The linear sequence of nucleotides in DNA determines traits because the information encoded in this molecule is transmitted by segments called genes which contain specific nucleotide sequences that determine the codons required to encode a protein during the processes of transcription and translation.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the linear sequence of nucleotides in DNA determines traits because the order of nucleotide determines the codons required to add amino acids during translation.

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(this isn't biology btw this is for my forensics class.) Which type of evidence do you think is most useful in an investigation? Why?

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Physical/trace evidence is what I believe to be the most useful in an investigation because you come to detail with DNA etc

(1 point) A bacteria culture initially contains 1500 bacteria and doubles every half hour. Find the size of the baterial population after 80 minutes. Find the size of the baterial population after 5 h

Answers

The size of the bacterial population after 80 minutes is 12,000 bacteria. The size of the bacterial population after 5 hours is 96,000 bacteria.

1. Convert the given time to hours:

  - 80 minutes = 80/60 = 1.33 hours

  - 5 hours = 5 hours

2. Determine the number of doubling periods for each time interval:

  - 80 minutes = 1.33 hours -> 1.33 / 0.5 = 2.66 doubling periods

  - 5 hours -> 5 / 0.5 = 10 doubling periods

3. Calculate the population size after each doubling period:

  - For 80 minutes: 1500 bacteria * (\(2^{2.66\)) ≈ 12,000 bacteria

  - For 5 hours: 1500 bacteria * (\(2^{10\)) = 96,000 bacteria

Therefore, the size of the bacterial population after 80 minutes is 12,000 bacteria, and the size of the bacterial population after 5 hours is 96,000 bacteria.

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What would happen to skeletal muscle contractions if action potentials were occurring in the motor neuron, but the enzyme acetylcholinesterase was completely inhibited?

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If action potentials were occurring in the motor neuron and the enzyme acetylcholinesterase was completely inhibited, the skeletal muscle contractions would be prolonged and potentially lead to a continuous state of contraction, called tetanus.

1. Action potentials in the motor neuron cause the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction.
2. ACh binds to receptors on the muscle cell membrane, leading to an influx of sodium ions and generating a muscle action potential.
3. The muscle action potential triggers calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing muscle contraction through the interaction of actin and myosin filaments.
4. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme responsible for breaking down ACh, thereby stopping the muscle action potential and allowing the muscle to relax.
5. If acetylcholinesterase is completely inhibited, ACh will not be broken down and will continue to bind to receptors on the muscle cell membrane.
6. This continuous stimulation of the muscle cell leads to sustained muscle contractions, potentially resulting in tetanus, which is a state of constant muscle contraction.

In summary, the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase would cause prolonged and continuous skeletal muscle contractions due to the persistent presence of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

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The severity of a foodborne illness will likely increase the longer the pathogen remains in the food when the pathogens are:

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The severity of a foodborne illness can indeed increase the longer a pathogen remains in the food. Foodborne illnesses are caused by the consumption of contaminated food or beverages, which may contain harmful pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites. When pathogens are present in food, they can multiply over time, especially if the food is not properly stored, cooked, or handled.

There are several factors that can influence the severity of a foodborne illness, including the type of pathogen, the amount of pathogen ingested, and the individual's overall health and immune system. For instance, certain pathogens may cause more severe symptoms or complications than others, and a higher dose of the pathogen could lead to a more severe illness.

In general, the longer a pathogen remains in the food, the more likely it is that the pathogen will multiply and increase the potential risk of causing a severe foodborne illness. Proper food safety practices, such as maintaining appropriate temperature control, practicing good personal hygiene, and ensuring thorough cooking and adequate storage, can help to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses and prevent the growth of harmful pathogens in food.

In conclusion, the severity of a foodborne illness can increase the longer a pathogen remains in the food. To minimize the risk, it is essential to follow proper food safety measures and handle food products with care to prevent contamination and pathogen growth.

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The back bone of DNA and RNA is composed of _____. DNA is double stranded due to interactions between adenine,cytosine,guanine, and thymine, which are ____ Uracil is a

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The backbone of DNA and RNA is composed of sugar phosphate. DNA is double-stranded due to interactions between adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine, which are nucleotide bases. Uracil is a pyrimidine nucleotide base.

DNA is the hereditary material of humans and almost all organisms. It carries genetic information. DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid and RNA is ribonucleic acid. DNA is double-stranded while RNA is single-stranded. Both DNA and RNA are protein derivatives. The base is formed of sugar phosphates. Both these carry nucleotide bases on them. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil, thymidine, etc are examples of nucleotide bases. Among that adenine and guanine are purines. Cytosil Uracil and thymidine are pyrimidines.

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The process of glycolysis produces 4 ATP total, but we say that the net ATP production is 2 ATP. What happened to the two other ATP molecules

Answers

The process of glycolysis requires two ATP molecules to get started.

flexible cords are permitted to be used in class ii locations for electric submersible pumps with means for removal without entering the wet-pit

Answers

Yes, flexible cords are permitted to be used in Class II locations for electric submersible pumps with means for removal without entering the wet-pit. However, there are some important considerations to keep in mind when using flexible cords in these settings.

First, it is important to ensure that the flexible cord is rated for the specific conditions and hazards present in the Class II location. This may require selecting a cord with specific insulation or jacketing materials that can withstand exposure to flammable gases, vapors, or dust.

Second, the flexible cord must be properly installed and secured to prevent damage or accidental disconnection. This may involve using strain relief fittings, clamps, or other means of anchoring the cord to the equipment or structure.  Third, it is important to regularly inspect the flexible cord for signs of wear or damage, such as cuts, abrasions, or fraying. Any damaged cords should be replaced promptly to prevent electrical hazards or potential ignition sources.

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If human genomes are 99.9% similar explain how gel electrophoresis can be used to identify individuals and rule out suspects. Use the diagram on the left to support your answer.

Answers

There is no diagram in question.

What is the expected phenotype ratio? express your answer as four numbers separated by colons (example 3:3:1:1)

Answers

The these expected phenotype ratios represent the theoretical predictions based on Mendelian genetics and assume independent assortment and absence of other complicating factors such as genetic linkage or incomplete dominance.

The expected phenotype ratio, also known as the Mendelian ratio, depends on the mode of inheritance of the particular trait under consideration.

In Mendelian genetics, there are three common modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and X-linked recessive.

In the case of autosomal dominant inheritance, a single copy of the dominant allele is sufficient to express the trait.

The expected phenotype ratio in this case is 3:1, meaning that for every three individuals expressing the dominant trait, there will be one individual without the trait.

For autosomal recessive inheritance, two copies of the recessive allele are required to manifest the trait.

The expected phenotype ratio in this case is 1:2:1, indicating that one individual will express the trait, two individuals will be carriers (heterozygotes), and one individual will not have the trait.

In X-linked recessive inheritance, the recessive allele is carried on the X chromosome.

Males have one X chromosome, so if they inherit the recessive allele, they will express the trait.

Females have two X chromosomes, and in order to express the trait, they need to inherit the recessive allele on both X chromosomes.

The expected phenotype ratio in X-linked recessive inheritance is 1:1:1:1, meaning that one male will express the trait, one male will not have the trait, one female will express the trait, and one female will be a carrier.

In reality, observed ratios may deviate from these expected values due to various factors such as genetic interactions, environmental influences, or random chance.

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The phenotype ratios can vary depending on the specific genetic scenario, such as the number of genes involved, the type of inheritance (dominant, recessive, codominant, etc.), and whether the genes assort independently or are linked.

The expected phenotype ratio, also known as the Mendelian ratio, depends on the mode of inheritance of the particular trait under consideration.

In Mendelian genetics, there are three common modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and X-linked recessive.

In the case of autosomal dominant inheritance, a single copy of the dominant allele is sufficient to express the trait.

The expected phenotype ratio in this case is 3:1, meaning that for every three individuals expressing the dominant trait, there will be one individual without the trait.

For autosomal recessive inheritance, two copies of the recessive allele are required to manifest the trait.

The expected phenotype ratio in this case is 1:2:1, indicating that one individual will express the trait, two individuals will be carriers (heterozygotes), and one individual will not have the trait.

In X-linked recessive inheritance, the recessive allele is carried on the X chromosome.

Males have one X chromosome, so if they inherit the recessive allele, they will express the trait.

Females have two X chromosomes, and in order to express the trait, they need to inherit the recessive allele on both X chromosomes.

The expected phenotype ratio in X-linked recessive inheritance is 1:1:1:1, meaning that one male will express the trait, one male will not have the trait, one female will express the trait, and one female will be a carrier.

In reality, observed ratios may deviate from these expected values due to various factors such as genetic interactions, environmental influences, or random chance.

Therefore, it is crucial to have the specific details of the genetic situation to accurately determine the expected phenotype ratio.

For example, if we were considering a simple monohybrid cross where a single gene with two alleles is involved, and assuming a dominant-recessive relationship, the expected phenotype ratio would be 3:1 This means that for every three individuals expressing the dominant phenotype, there would be one individual expressing the recessive phenotype.

Therefore, it is crucial to provide specific information about the genetic cross or inheritance pattern in question to determine the expected phenotype ratio accurately without this information, it is not possible to provide a definitive answer or provide a specific set of numbers separated by colons.

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mendel crossed y/y;r/r (yellow smooth) peas with y/y;r/r (green wrinkled) peas and selfed the f1 to obtain an f2. in the f2 what proportion of the yellow smooth individuals were true-breeding? (this involves conditional probability).

Answers

the proportion of true-breeding yellow smooth individuals in the F2 generation is 2 out of 9, or approximately 2/9 (about 22.2%).

To determine the proportion of true-breeding yellow smooth individuals in the F2 generation, we need to understand the principles of Mendelian genetics and the inheritance patterns of the traits involved.

In this case, Mendel crossed two parental pea plants: yellow smooth (Y/Y; R/R) and green wrinkled (y/y;r/r). The uppercase letters represent dominant alleles, and the lowercase letters represent recessive alleles for two different traits: seed color (Y = yellow, y = green) and seed texture (R = smooth, r = wrinkled).

The cross between these parents produces F1 offspring, which are all Y/y; R/r (yellow smooth). When the F1 generation is self-fertilized, it undergoes random segregation of alleles during gamete formation.

Let's consider the possible combinations of alleles in the F2 generation resulting from the self-fertilization of the F1 individuals:

1. YY; RR (yellow smooth)

2. YY; Rr (yellow smooth)

3. YY;rr (yellow wrinkled)

4. Yy; RR (yellow smooth)

5. Yy; Rr (yellow smooth)

6. Yy;rr (yellow wrinkled)

7. yy; RR (green smooth)

8. yy; Rr (green smooth)

9. yy;rr (green wrinkled)

Out of these nine possible combinations, options 1, 2, 4, and 5 are yellow smooth individuals. However, only options 1 and 2 (YY; RR and YY; Rr) are true-breeding because they contain homozygous dominant alleles for both seed color and seed texture.

Therefore, the proportion of true-breeding yellow smooth individuals in the F2 generation is 2 out of 9, or approximately 2/9 (about 22.2%).

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What are two benefits of oyster farms

Answers

Answer:

Shellfish beds stabilize sediments, helping to protect the shoreline from erosion and storms. Oyster reefs can sequester carbon and protect surrounding habitats like salt marshes from erosion, aiding carbon sequestration in these habitats.

Explanation:

The immune response to smallpox will not protect someone against the plague bacillus (Yersinia pestis). Which of the following best describes this idea? A. B-cell tolerance B. threshold dose C. major histocompatibility complex D. immunological specificity

Answers

Immunological specificity describes that the immune response to smallpox will not protect someone against the plague bacillus (Yersinia pestis).

D is the correct answer.

The level of differentiation between antigenic variations that an immune response makes is known as specificity. Analysing the relative affinity of isolated antibodies or T cell receptors for various antigens is a straightforward procedure.

The only vertebrate species that has adaptive immunity, often known as acquired immunity or specialised immunity. Specific to the pathogen that has been presented, the adaptive immune response. Despite being designed to combat diseases that are foreign to the body, the adaptive immune response can occasionally go awry and attack the body.

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In this activity, you will identify the conclusions that can be drawn from Pasteur's experiments using S-shaped neck flasks. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from Pasteur's experiment involving the flasks with S-shaped necks? Select all statements that apply. a. Pasteur's observations support the theory of spontaneous generation. b. Microbes can be blocked from accessing favorable growth environments. c. Beef broth is an unsuitable environment for growing microorganisms. d. Microbial life can be destroyed by heat. e. Microorganisms can be present in nonliving matter, such as air, liquids, and solids. f. Microbial life can arise from nonliving matter. g. Pasteur's observations support the theory of biogenesis.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be :

b. Microbes can be blocked from accessing favorable growth environments.

d. Microbial life can be destroyed by heat.

e. Microorganisms can be present in nonliving matter, such as air, liquids, and solids.

g. Pasteur's observations support the theory of biogenesis.

Explanation:

Pasteur's experiment with s-shaped neck flasks indicated that organisms can't emerge from nonliving materials under the conditions that existed on Earth during his lifetime.

It helps in testing the role of airborne contaminants in producing microbes in the nonliving matter by the biogenesis theory. His experiment showed and supports that heat can kill or destroy microbial life.

Thus, the correct answer would be -  b., d, e., and g.

What is the difference between an inhibitory and an excitatory post synaptic potential?.

Answers

Although the details of postsynaptic action can be complex, there are simple rules that distinguish between postsynaptic excitation and inhibition.

EPSPs have reversal potentials more positive than the action potential threshold and IPSPs have reversal potentials more negative than the threshold.Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) bring the potential of a neuron close to its firing threshold. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) shift the charge across the membrane away from the firing threshold. Postsynaptic potentials undergo spatial and temporal addition. Neurons communicate via electrical currents called action potentials that are either excitatory or inhibitory. Currents responsible for sharing information about one action potential with the next neuron, inhibitory currents reduce the likelihood of such transmission occurring.

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I examine all the coding sequences in Diceros bicornis (Black rhinoceros) and identify each codon that translates into threonine with the following results: 25% ACA, 25% ACC, 25% ACT, 25% ACG. This results supports the conclusion that _______________.

Answers

I examine all the coding sequences in Diceros bicornis (Black rhinoceros) and identify each codon that translates into threonine with the following results: 25% ACA, 25% ACC, 25% ACT, 25% ACG. This results supports the conclusion that there is no codon usage bias.

The term "codon use bias" describes variations in the frequency at which synonymous codons appear in coding DNA. A codon is a group of three nucleotides that codes either the end of translation or a particular amino acid residue in a polypeptide chain.The occurrence of specific codons being used more frequently than other synonymous codons during the translation of genes is known as codon use bias, and its severity varies between and within species.here, each codon translating into threonine is in equal proportion ie, 25%. 25% ACA, 25% ACC, 25% ACT, 25% ACG indicate that the codons are used in equal proportion and thus there is no codon usage bias in Diceros bicornis.

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Which observation can people make because the Sun is the closest star to Earth?
a. the sky appears red at sunrise and sunset
b. the sun appears brighter than the other stars
c. the other stars appear to move in the night sky
d. he sun appears highest in the sky during summer

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

nuclear fusion.

At what point does the sigma (s) subunit of RNA polymerase released from the core enzyme?
A. Prior to the incorporation of any nucleotides into an RNA strand.
B. After transcription begins and about 10 nucleotides have been added to the RNA chain.
C. Just prior to chain termination.
D. Never; it is an intrinsic part of the core enzyme

Answers

The right response is B, which reads, "Once transcription starts and roughly 10 nucleotides have indeed been inserted to the RNA chain."

The RNA polymerase's sigma (s) component is in charge of identifying and attaching to the DNA promoter region to start transcription in bacteria.  The sigma subunit is released from the core enzyme after transcription has started since it is no longer needed. Depending on the particular gene being transcribed as well as other variables, the precise moment at which the sigma subunit is set to release can vary somewhat. However, in general, it occurs after the RNA polymerase has synthesized about 10 nucleotides and has moved from the initiation stage to the elongation phase of transcription.

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Individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may take tiotropium bromide; an antagonist used to relax smooth muscle in the bronchioles. which neurotransmitter does it block?

Answers

Individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may take tiotropium bromide which blocks acetylcholine neurotransmitter.Tiotropium bromide is a long-acting anticholinergic drug that is often used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

In general,  are used to treat many different medical conditions by blocking the neurotransmitter acetylcholine's effects.Acetylcholine is a chemical messenger or neurotransmitter that is released from nerves and binds to receptors in target organs, such as the lungs. The effects of acetylcholine on target organs depend on the type of receptor it binds to. When acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors, it can cause the smooth muscles in the airways to contract, which is a characteristic feature of COPD and asthma.

Tiotropium bromide is an anticholinergic drug that selectively blocks muscarinic receptors in the lungs, which leads to bronchodilation (relaxation of the smooth muscles in the bronchioles). Tiotropium blocks acetylcholine neurotransmitter that is responsible for the contraction of smooth muscles in the bronchioles, thus making it easier to breathe.

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Which of the following best describes the behavior of nonconservative elements in seawater?
A. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.
B. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
C. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.
D. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.

Answers

Answer: Option C.

Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.

Explanation:

Non conservative elements are elements that enter the sea water and have little concentrations in the ocean and show spartial variationns. These elements have short residence time I .e short replacement time and they are non reactive .Constituents such as phosphate, nitrate, and other nutrients, and dissolved oxygen, carbon dioxide, etc. are non-conservative because their concentrations are later changed by chemical reaction in the sea.

coevolution is significant in many biological phenomena such as the evolution of virulence, immune defense, life histories, the maintenance of genetic diversity, speciation, and community structuring

Answers

Coevolution plays a significant role in various biological phenomena, including the evolution of virulence, immune defense, life histories, genetic diversity maintenance, speciation, and community structuring.

Coevolution refers to the reciprocal evolutionary changes between two or more species that interact with each other. It occurs when the adaptations of one species exert selective pressure on another, leading to a continuous cycle of adaptation and counter-adaptation.

In the context of virulence, coevolution is observed between pathogens and their hosts. As hosts develop immune defenses to combat pathogens, the pathogens evolve mechanisms to evade or overcome these defenses, resulting in an arms race between the two. This coevolutionary dynamic can lead to the evolution of highly virulent pathogens and robust immune responses in hosts.

Coevolution also influences the life histories of species. For example, in predator-prey relationships, prey species may evolve defensive adaptations, such as camouflage or toxins, while predators develop hunting strategies or improved sensory capabilities. These reciprocal adaptations shape the life histories and behaviors of both predator and prey.

Furthermore, coevolution influences community structuring by shaping the interactions and dynamics between species within ecological communities. Mutualistic relationships, such as those between plants and their pollinators, can undergo coevolution, resulting in specialized adaptations and close interdependence.

Overall, coevolution is a fundamental concept in understanding the intricate and dynamic relationships between species and the diverse biological phenomena that arise as a result.

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Franklin, Watson, and Crick's model of DNA shows a double helical structure where two strands of
DNA run antiparallel to each other. How does this structure cause the number of purines to equal
the number of pyrimidines as observed by Chargaff?
If adenine is on one strand, guanine must be on the other strand.
If thymine is on one strand, cytosine must be on the other strand.
If adenine is on one strand, thymine must be on the other strand.
If adenine is on one strand, cytosine must be on the other strand.
Pregunta 3
5 pts

Answers

Answer:

If Adenine is on one strand, thymine must be on the other strand.

Explanation:

(Thymine + Adenine) (TA) (AT)

(Cytosine + Guanine) (CG) (GC)

Other Questions
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