In Ohio, a defendant who wants to assert an insanity defense at trial must first file a notice of intention to rely on such a defense.
This notice must be filed at least ten days before trial, and it must provide specific details of the insanity defense that will be presented.
The notice must state the defendant's name and the cause and location of the pending criminal action.It must include a statement of the defendant's intention to offer evidence of insanity and the specific legal basis for the defense.The notice must also include a statement of the factual basis for the defense, including the names and addresses of witnesses who may testify to support the defense.If the defendant fails to file the notice as required, the court may exclude evidence of the insanity defense at trial, except in limited circumstances. It's important for defendants to consult with their attorneys about the specifics of the insanity defense and the requirements for filing a notice in Ohio.
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True or false statement frequently civil disorder arises from an accumulation of grievances and then precipitating incident ignites rioting.
Which of the following explains why surface mining causes more widespread health problems than sub-surface mining?
Dust from surface mining is often contained in mines, while dust from sub-surface mining is absorbed in the chemicals from fracking.
Dust from surface mining is absorbed in the chemicals from fracking, while dust from sub-surface mining is mostly contained in mines.
Dust from surface mining is exposed to the atmosphere people breathe, while dust from sub-surface mining is mostly contained in mines.
Dust from surface mining is mostly contained in mines, while dust from sub-surface mining is exposed to the atmosphere where people breathe.
Dust from surface mining is exposed to the atmosphere people breathe, while dust from sub-surface mining is mostly contained in mines, this explains why surface mining causes more widespread health problems than sub-surface mining.
Surface mining is a process of extracting minerals from the surface of the earth. It is also known as open-pit mining or strip mining. Surface mining is the most common type of mining, and it is usually the first step in the mining process. It is used to extract coal, copper, iron, gold, and other minerals.
Surface mining is a very efficient and cost-effective way to extract minerals. It is also a very safe process, and it minimizes the impact on the environment but it pollutes the air in the atmosphere.
Hence, the third option is correct.
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Answer:
Dust from surface mining is exposed to the atmosphere people breathe, while dust from sub-surface mining is mostly contained in mines, this explains why surface mining causes more widespread health problems than sub-surface mining.
Surface mining is a process of extracting minerals from the surface of the earth. It is also known as open-pit mining or strip mining. Surface mining is the most common type of mining, and it is usually the first step in the mining process. It is used to extract coal, copper, iron, gold, and other minerals.
Surface mining is a very efficient and cost-effective way to extract minerals. It is also a very safe process, and it minimizes the impact on the environment but it pollutes the air in the atmosphere.
Hence, the third option is correct.
Explanation:
All board members have 3 fundamental duties a)duty of care, b)duty of loyalty and, c)duty of obedience. If any 2 or more of these duties become in conflict which duty should take preference over other(s) and why?
whats 1 1/4 miles in 1/2 hours?
Answer:
Speed = 2.5 miles / hours
Explanation:
Given:
Distance travel = \(1\frac{1}{4}\) miles = 1.25 miles
Time taken = 1/2 hours = 0.5 hours
Find:
Speed
Computation:
Speed = Distance / time
Speed = 1.25 / 0.5
Speed = 2.5 miles / hours
Microsleep is when you
Answer:
episodes of sleeping that last more than 30 seconds
Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 states that its purpose, in part, is to require that real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions be performed ______.
Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 requires real estate appraisals used in federal government transactions to be completed in writing and to uniform standards.
What exactly is the 1989 Enforcement Act?
The Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act (FIRREA) is a law passed in 1989 in response to the savings and loan crisis of the late 1980s that revised the federal government agency structure and rules governing the United States savings and loan banking system and the real estate appraisal industry. The following are some of the major changes brought about by the law:
Regulations to ensure that real estate appraisals are properly performed. This includes the need for complete and accurate documentation, as well as training for appraisers and their supervisors.The Resolution Trust Corp. was established temporarily to resolve the status of the nation's failed savings and loan institutions.The Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation was abolished, and two funds of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation were established: the Savings Association Insurance Fund (SAIF) to cover S&Ls, and the Bank Insurance Fund (BIF) to cover banks.The Federal Home Loan Bank Board was abolished, and two new agencies were established to replace it: the Federal Housing Finance Board (FHFB) and the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS).Learn more about the Enforcement Act with the help of the given link:
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Should a psychologist be allowed to give an expert opinion on sanity? Why or why not?
Answer:
yes they should
Explanation:
a psychologist should be able to give an expert opinion on sanity because they study the mind or mental states. This means that they know what is takes to be insane or sane.
What is the best way to select a candidate?
Pointers for Picking the Best Candidate
Consider their attitude and work ethic.
Assess Their Capacity for Lifelong Learning.
Obtain Opinions From Those Not Present at the Interview.
Ask them about a subject they are enthusiastic about.
Give them a task or issue to resolve.
Be Aware of the Questions They Pose.
How do hiring managers choose the most qualified applicant?
The number of years you have worked in the field will probably be used by hiring managers to compare two candidates. Most likely, you receive the "extra points" if you have more extensive related experience. Therefore, as a candidate, you must demonstrate to the hiring managers that you have substantial experience in the field.
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The physiological effects of marijuana greatly differ from those associated with alcohol.
True
Or
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
alcohol is a depressant and marijuana is a stimulant
Please provide an example of a scenario where a police officer would, or would not, be legally entitled to stop and potentially frisk someone. Please explain why this is or is not legal.
Answer:
When Can the Police Stop and Frisk You on the Street?
A look at the history of "stop and frisk," and the circumstances required to make its use legal.
by Marcia Layton Turner
updated September 04, 2020 · 3 min read
Man standing by crosswalk
The United States' “stop and frisk" rule originated from the Fourth Amendment's language regarding unreasonable searches and seizures.
The policy actually allows police to stop and “pat down" anyone they suspect may be committing, have committed, or are about to commit a crime. Their suspicion alone is what permits them to stop you and search you.
The current stop and frisk policy has been legal since 1968, when the Supreme Court ruled in Terry v. Ohio to allow police officers the flexibility to temporarily detain and search someone they suspect has done or is in the process of doing something illegal.
Since then, all 50 states have adopted this ruling in some form.
Unfortunately, rather than rooting out crime, the American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) of New York reports that 9 out of 10 New Yorkers who have been stopped and frisked were innocent. Some people see stop and frisk as a form of harassment.
Explanation:
If a police officer suspects you are in some way involved in illegal activity, they have the authority to stop you, whether you're walking, driving, biking, boating, or engaged in some other activity.
“During a stop, you are not under arrest, but you are not free to leave," explains Tod Spodek, managing partner of the Spodek Law Group.
“When an officer stops your car, the officer must have a reasonable suspicion that someone in the car committed a crime, or probable cause to believe the driver committed a traffic violation."
There are likely dispute resolution centers in your area. research the office of the district court administrator to define the scope of their jurisdiction?
The scope of jurisdiction for an office of the district court administrator may vary depending on the jurisdiction and legal system of the specific region or country.
The jurisdiction of dispute resolution centers is extremely broad and covers a wide range of disputes. Their main objective is to offer a substitute for conventional court procedures and to facilitate the efficient and just resolution of disputes. These centers frequently deal with civil disputes, including those involving contracts, property, consumers, families and employment.
Ordinarily, local laws and regulations establish the jurisdiction of dispute resolution centers. They might have the power to suggest various forms of ADR, such as mediation, negotiation and arbitration. These procedures enable parties to have frank discussions, identify areas of agreement and come to mutually beneficial solutions.
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The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990, led to most states requiring:
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990 was a landmark piece of legislation that had a profound impact on the way states deliver healthcare services.
The act established a number of requirements for states in order to receive federal funding. Most notably, the act mandated that states establish a Medicaid fraud control unit, which is responsible for detecting and preventing fraud in the Medicaid system.
Additionally, the act required states to develop and implement quality assurance and utilization review programs for Medicaid services. Furthermore, OBRA established a National Practitioner Data Bank to track malpractice settlements and disciplinary actions taken against healthcare providers, in order to protect patients from negligent practitioners.
As a result of the OBRA, states are now required to meet a host of federal standards in order to ensure the safety, quality, and efficiency of healthcare services across the country.
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geoff has learned a complaint has been filed against him. what legal rights will help him be prepared and well represented in court?
Geoff has learned a complaint has been filed against him. Due process legal rights will help him be prepared and well-represented in court.
A prerequisite of due process is that people must be treated fairly and that legal disputes must be resolved in accordance with established norms and principles. Due process is required in both criminal and civil cases.
People in nations with advanced legal systems anticipate that their constitutional rights will be upheld in a fair manner. Individuals' expectations of their local, state and federal governments are outlined in this expectation of due process, specifically that their rights won't be infringed upon.
Procedural Due Process: When the federal government takes a step that deprives a citizen of their life, liberty, or property interest, procedural due process mandates that the citizen be given notice, an opportunity to be heard, and a determination by an impartial decision-maker.
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The maximum fine for a first non-driving alcohol-related offense of possession or consumption of alcohol by a minor is.
What is the admissibility of character evidence?
The purpose for which character evidence is offered will determine whether or not it is admissible during a trial.
It is not admissible to use evidence of a person's character or personality traits to demonstrate that they behaved in a particular way on a given occasion. The "propensity" rule which goes by this name, is meant to stop unjustified bias against the defendant. For instance it would typically be improper to introduce evidence that a defendant has a history of violence in order to establish that they committed a particular act of violence.
The propensity rule does have a few exceptions, though. For instance, if a defendant's character or trait of character is offered to prove another relevant fact, like motivation, intent or the lack of error then it may be admissible. It may be possible to prove that the victim was the aggressor in a physical altercation in some circumstances by introducing evidence of the victim's character.
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The Immigration and Naturalization Service, a federal agency involved in immigration security, has applied a rule stating that prior to deportation, an individual must be allowed a due process hearing at which they can make a case against their deportation. This would be which of the following types of laws?
Administrative laws are The Immigration and Naturalization Service, a federal agency involved in immigration security, has applied a rule stating that prior to deportation.
Ensuring responsibility for administrative agencies is the basic goal of administrative law. This body of law limits the authority of the executive branch and ensures public transparency by allowing for the judicial process of agency actions.
An essential component of the Indian government is administrative law. It makes sure that government officials abide by the Indian Constitution and respect the rights of their constituents. The administration of particular laws is regulated by Indian administrative law.
Officials or organizations (administrators) that exercise public authority and carry out public functions are subject to administrative law regulations. It is intended to make sure that administrators decide fairly.
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which one of these does not pose a risk to security at a government facility?
A person expressing boredom with the US mission. Schools, healthcare, colleges, electricity, sanitation, public transportation, and safe drinking water are examples of public facilities.
The Government Facilities Sector encompasses a wide range of structures owned or leased by federal, state, municipal, and tribal governments in the United States and elsewhere. Many government buildings are available to the public for commerce, commercial transactions, or recreational activities, whilst others are not because they contain extremely sensitive information, materials, procedures, or equipment.
General-purpose office buildings and special-purpose military sites, embassies, courthouses, national labs, and structures that may hold vital equipment, systems, networks, and services are examples of these facilities.
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1. Explore the summary titled Hate Crime Victimization, 2005-2019. What does this summary
state about the rate of violent hate crime in 2005 in comparison to the rate of violent hate crime
in 2019? Does this comparison surprise you? Why or why not? What motivated most of these
hate crimes? Who was most likely to commit these crimes?
The rate of violent hate crime in 2005 was less than the rate of violent crime in 2019.
Comparing the rates of violent hate crime across the years. Violent hate crime was at a rate of just over 0.8% in 2005.In 2019, this had risen to a rate of 1%.This comparison is not surprising because there had been a downward trend in violent hate crime but this began to rise in 2016 till it reached the rate of 1.0% in 2019.
Motivations and perpetrators of those hate crimes Motivated by race and ethnicity. Perpetrated by far right activists.With the election of Donald Trump, far right activists gained renewed momentum as they felt he was on their side. As a result, they increased their tendency to engage in violent hate crime.
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Test strips are most often used for _____.
Answer: to test the drug content in the blood
Explanation:Option C
Puffing _______.
a. creates an express warranty
b. is making statements of fact about a product
c. is illegal under federal law
d. is making obvious and lawful exaggerations about a product
e. none of the above
Answer:
Puffing is illegal under federal law.
Explanation:
Puffing and commendation of goods do not create an express warranty, nor does as affirmation of the value of the goods. However, leaving your car running, unattended, to warm it up in cold weather is called "puffing" and it's illegal in many places
Label these examples as either instances of representative or direct democracy. Representative democracy:-A major bill supported by the majority of citizens passes a state legislature.-Congress votes to impeach an unpopular president.
Representative democracy:
-A major bill supported by the majority of citizens passes a state legislature.
Representative democracy:
-Congress votes to impeach an unpopular president.
-A major bill that many legislators campaigned on passes Congress.
Direct democracy:
-A state constitution is amended following a referendum.
-California's citizens vote to recall their governor.
In contrast to direct democracy, representative democracy is based on the idea that elected officials should represent a group of people. It is also referred to as indirect democracy or representative governance.
Larger nations, where the sheer number of persons involved would make direct democracy unworkable, are more likely to use representative democracy.
Direct democracy, often known as pure democracy, is a type of democracy in which the people makes decisions regarding major policy matters without the assistance of elected officials. This is distinct from representative democracies, which make up the majority of currently existing democracies.
The complete question is:
Label these examples as either instances of representative or direct democracy.
-A major bill supported by the majority of citizens passes a state legislature.
-Congress votes to impeach an unpopular president.
-A major bill that many legislators campaigned on passes Congress.
-A state constitution is amended following a referendum.
-California's citizens vote to recall their governor.
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Which 1st Amendment right are parents exercising when they sign a statement asking that a new school be built in their community ?
ANSWER QUICK
How do Amendments 9 and 10 limit the power of the federal government?
Explanation/answer:
9th:
gives a ton of freedom to the people basically saying that they have the freedom to retain the rights even though they were not specifically discussed in the bill of rights, this limits the power of the government because it gives the people more power
10th:
Lets the states impose their own laws special to those states. having its own law would let the state become nearly as powerful as the federal government, so that takes away power from the federal government.
Honestly, it's good that the federal government doesn't have all the power otherwise it would be kinda like a dictatorship.
What document explains your rights and responsibilities as a federal student loan.
Master Promissory Note document explains your rights and responsibilities as a federal student loan.
What is Master Promissory Note?An MPN is a legal instrument that outlines the borrower's rights and responsibilities as well as the repayment terms and conditions. The MPNs for Direct PLUS and Direct Subsidized / Unsubsidized loans are different.
The references should be persons who can help us contact you in the future if we can't reach you. References are only used for this purpose, and you will never be compelled to return your loan.
The full MPN process must be done in a single session, so make sure you have plenty of time before beginning. Each MPN takes about 30 minutes to finish.
By going to studentloans.gov and inputting your FSA ID, you can obtain a copy of your Master Promissory Notes.
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Nkombe and smet classification of African philosophy strengths and weaknesses
An attempt is made to classify the various philosophical traditions that exist on the African continent using the Nkombe and Smet classification of African philosophy.
Strengths and weaknesses of African philosophy as classified by Nkombe and Smet?This classification system's recognition of the diversity of African philosophy and the various factors that have shaped it, including colonialism and cultural exchange, is one of its main advantages. Additionally, it enables a more nuanced comprehension of the various philosophical traditions and their individual contributions to the subject. The classification system, according to some critics, can be constrictive, reinforce stereotypes, or essentialize particular philosophical traditions. The process of classifying philosophies can also be subjective and may not fully reflect the nuanced differences between each tradition.
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What is the Nkombe and smet classification of African philosophy? What are its strengths and weaknesses?
why do business managers need to pay attention to the developments in a social cultural environment?
Explanation:
Business managers need to know the trends and what is popular to help grow business.
I was walking my dog yesterday. Some mans dog ran out of its yard with its teeth bared. My dog is a service dog and is trained to keep me safe. I let go of my dog in case they start fighting. My dog snaps at the dog and it runs back to the house. I continue my walk. The dog comes after us again. This time I freeze and my service dog pulls me to keep walking. What is "illegal" about this?
I will give brainlyist!
Answer:
You let the dog go because he's a service dog that's taking advantage of the dog and what if your dog got hurt.
Explanation:
T/F. reform groups were very important for politicizing women since they encouraged militant activities that sought to achieve suffrage and other ambitious aims in the shortest possible time.
False. Since they supported aggressive efforts that aimed to attain suffrage and other ambitious goals in the shortest amount of time, reform organizations were crucial for politicizing women.
Politicization is a term used in political science and theory to describe the process by which concepts, objects, or collections of facts acquire a political tone or character and are subsequently associated with the ideologies and strategies of a specific group or party, whereupon they become the focus of debate. Politicization, which is associated with political polarization, has been described as weakening objectivity. On the other hand, it has been demonstrated to increase the responsiveness of supranational organizations like the European Union and can have a democratizing influence and improve political choice. When arguments for political violence are accepted by a society or when there are no norms that forbid violence, a group is more likely to become politicized.
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Why is renting an apartment usually cheaper than buying a house?
A. Leases have lower interest rates than mortgages.
B. Buying a house is an investment that pays off in the long run.
C. Apartments are usually smaller than houses.
D. Renting involves hidden costs like the security deposit.
The correct option is B ; Buying a house is an investment that pays off in the long run is renting an apartment usually cheaper than buying a house
In reality, renting is often cheaper than buying a house due to several factors such as property taxes, maintenance costs, and insurance. Homeowners are responsible for property taxes, which can be a significant expense, while renters are generally not burdened with this cost. Additionally, maintenance and repair expenses are typically the responsibility of the landlord in rental properties, whereas homeowners have to cover these costs themselves. Homeowners also need to consider insurance payments, which can be higher than renters' insurance premiums. These factors contribute to the overall affordability of renting compared to buying a house.
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a contract that violates state or federal statutory law is: a.illegal, but enforceable. b.legal, but unenforceable. c.illegal and unenforceable. d.legal and enforceable.
A contract that violates state or federal statutory law is illegal and unenforceable. So, the correct answer is option c. illegal and unenforceable.
What is a contract?A contract is a written or spoken agreement that is legally binding between two or more parties. When entering into a contract, there are a variety of considerations to consider, including who is obligated to what, who is liable for what, and what happens if the contract is broken or breached.
When a contract violates the law, it is considered void and cannot be legally enforced by either party. Thus, the correct answer is "c. illegal and unenforceable.". In any country, a contract must be legal and enforceable.
When one party violates the agreement, the other party has the legal right to seek a remedy. If the contract is illegal, it is unenforceable in court, and neither party can seek a remedy.
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