in developed countries, a protein deficiency would most commonly occur in: group of answer choices a child who is allergic to dairy. an alcoholic who swaps food for alcohol. an endurance runner who is vegetarian. a freshman with poor dietary habits. a weight lifter who is not taking protein supplements.
Answers
A protein shortage would often emerge in an alcoholic who substitutes meals for booze in industrialized nations.
What is the primary reason for a protein deficiency?If you don't eat enough protein-rich foods, you might develop a protein deficiency. Kwashiorkor is the name for severe protein shortage. In low income nations where there is a food shortage, this ailment is more prevalent. Due to dietary preferences or food aversions, some people may not get enough protein in their diet.
How is a protein deficit treated?Whether you consume a plant-based diet or include animal products in your meals, the best way to guarantee that your diet has enough amino acids is to give priority to foods like meat, dairy, eggs, fish, yogurt, beans, nuts, seeds, and whole grains.
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Related Questions
When taking a detailed surgical history all the following are questions that should be asked and documented except
Answers
Cefotaxime injection 1g tds×1/52..what is the total dose to be dispensed
Answers
Answer:
Give brainlist pls
Explanation:
Adults and children over 12 years in general receive 1 g Cefotaxime every 12 hours. In severe cases, the daily dose can be increased up to 12 g. Daily doses up ...
Priysha has just been hired as the receptionist in a medical office. She arrives at the office on her first day and is surprised and dismayed to notice that furniture is placed closer than 3
inches together and that there is no desk taller than 36 inches in the office area. Why is Priyasha most likely concerned about these details?
Medical assisting question
A. The office is not optimized for frequent deep cleaning.
B. The office is in violation of fire code and may be fined.
C. The office is likely to be perceived as cluttered due to the density of furniture.
D. The office is not accessible to people who use wheelchairs.
Answers
Answer:
the answer is D
Explanation:
A general conventional wheelchair has a total width of 65cm, a total length of 104cm, and a seat height of 51cm.
Apparently three inches won't allow a wheelchair to pass
Answer:
D. The office is not accessible to people who use wheelchairs.
Explanation:
1. There's a cure for lung cancer; about 85% of lung cancer patients get better within 5 years.
True
False
Answers
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
The statement is not accurate. While advances in treatments have improved the prognosis for some lung cancer patients, the cure rate for lung cancer is not as high as 85%. In fact, the 5-year survival rate for lung cancer is only about 18%. This emphasizes the importance of early detection and prompt treatment for lung cancer.
A nurse is explaining prep to a patient. the nurse tells the patient that:
prep may reduce the risk of hiv infection up to 50%.
prep should be taken by anyone who injects illicit drugs.
prep eliminates the need to use other hiv prevention strategies.
prep is a prescription pill that contains two medications used to treat hiv.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
prep may reduce the risk of hiv infection up to 50%.
The correct thing that the nurse is trying to explain to the patient is that PrEP may reduce the risk of HIV infection up to 50%.
What is PrEP?The term PrEP is an acronym for Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis. This is one of the most effective methods of HIV prevention.
Hence, the correct thing that the nurse is trying to explain to the patient is that PrEP may reduce the risk of HIV infection up to 50%.
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Natasha is a toxicologist. During an investigation, she collected blood from the subjects arm. What type of blood specimen is it?
Answers
Answer:D.
antemortem
Explanation:
can a consumer who qualifies for low income subsidy receive financial assistance for their part of medicare part d cost?
Answers
Answer:
Individuals with incomes up to 150 percent of the federal poverty level can receive help with their Part D costs for premiums, deductibles and co-pays through the Part D Low Income Subsidy (known as “LIS” or “Extra Help”), which is administered by the Social Security Administration.
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:Through subsidies that offer lower or no cost monthly premiums and lower or no cost copays
1) a) Imagine that you have a sibling with an eating disorder. Write a journal entry describing the signs that led you to suspect there was a problem. Explain how you plan to support your sibling.
b) Write an article for a newspaper, website, or newsletter on Nutrition for athletes and write at least 8 valid sentences related to the topic.
Answers
a) Journal entry: Today, I noticed that my sister has been skipping meals and excessively exercising. She also seems to be losing a significant amount of weight in a short period of time. I am starting to suspect that she may have an eating disorder.
b) Article: Nutrition for athletes is a crucial aspect of sports performance. Proper nutrition can improve endurance, speed, and overall physical fitness. Here are eight essential tips for athletes looking to optimize their nutrition:
Hydrate: Drinking enough water is vital for athletes to prevent dehydration, which can lead to decreased performance, cramps, and even heat exhaustion.Fuel up: Athletes need to consume enough calories to meet their energy requirements. Timing: Eating the right foods at the right times can make a significant difference in athletic performance. Protein: Protein is essential for building and repairing muscles. Athletes should consume protein-rich foods such as lean meat, fish, and eggs.Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates provide the body with energy, and athletes should consume complex carbohydrates such as whole grains and fruits.Healthy fats: Consuming healthy fats such as those found in nuts, avocados, and fish can improve brain function and provide sustained energy.Supplements: Supplements can be helpful in providing additional nutrients that athletes may not be getting from their diet. Recovery: Proper nutrition is essential for recovery after exercise.Learn more about “ eating disorder “ visit here;
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A 19 year old patient sitting in the waiting room experiences a grand mal seizure. What should cheryl the medical assistant do to prevent injury to the patient. After the seizure the patient needs to be placed in the recovery position maintain her airway. Explain how to place her in this position.
Answers
Answer:
Protect them from injury by helping them to the floor and clearing away furniture or other items. Do not put anything in their mouth as it could lead to injury. Do not try to stop their movements. You may remove eyeglasses or other items that could cause injury. Time the seizure, call 9-1-1 if it lasts longer than 5 minutes. Reassure them and try to help them stay calm . Gently help them roll onto their side and push the angle of the jaw forward to assist with breathing, this is the recovery position
Explanation:
Lanoxin pediatric solution available in 0.5mg/ml. If a patient takes 0.25 mg of lanoxin per day, what will be the dispensed quantity im ml for 30 bdays
Answers
Answer:
15 mL
Explanation:
order/on hand x # days
0.25 mg/0.5 x 30
Compare the effects of moderate and heavy alcohol consumption
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Answer:
The effects of moderate alcohol consumption include the reduction of mortality. Secondly, it reduces the risk of heart disease and is known to help with digestion and blood flow. Heavy alcohol consumption juxtaposed with liver failure and early death. It affects the brain, kidneys, liver and lungs. Alcohol poisoning occurs and can kill the individual. Liver failure, cancer or car accidents are other leading causes of heavy alcohol consumption.
Explanation:
what does a PT doctor do?
Answers
Answer:
A physical therapist does various exercises, and trainings with their patients to help with mobility, or other purposes.
la importancia de la precisión y la
documentación adecuada de las tablas en caso de que la
reclamación de nuestro médico sea denegada o la
compañía de seguros reduzca el pago.
Answers
Answer:
don't understand
Explanation:
Don't understand
Dr. Jones has a permit to perform CLIA-waived tests in his medical office. What is meant by a CLIA-waived test?
Answers
It is a simple test with low risk of incorrect results :)
How often should adults have a tetanus booster quizlet?
Answers
Adults should have a tetanus booster injection or shots after every 10 years as recommended by the health care practitioners.
The toxoid vaccination tetanus vaccine, also called tetanus toxoid, is used to prevent tetanus. It is advised to administer five dosages during childhood and a sixth during adolescence. Almost everyone becomes immune after three treatments, however further doses every ten years are advised to maintain immunity. If the wound has broken your skin and you haven't had your tetanus shot in a while, you could need one.
The first two shots of the tetanus boosters or injections should be given within the gap of 4 weeks, but the third shot should be definitely given within 6-12 moths. And than the other shots should be given with gap of 10 years for lifetime.
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what is an expected outcome for an adult client with well-controlled asthma?
Answers
An expected outcome for an adult client with well-controlled asthma is to have minimal or no symptoms and maintain normal activity levels.
An adult client with well-controlled asthma should experience minimal or no symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. They should be able to maintain normal activity levels without having to use their rescue inhaler. They should also have a good understanding of their triggers and how to avoid them.
An important aspect of well-controlled asthma is being able to manage it with daily controller medications as prescribed by their healthcare provider. With proper management, an adult with well-controlled asthma can live a normal and active life. It's important for them to continue to monitor their symptoms and have regular check-ups with their healthcare provider to ensure they are maintaining good control of their asthma.
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What effect does parathyroid hormones have on bones?
Answers
Answer:
Parathyroid hormone regulates serum calcium through its effects on bone, kidney, and the intestine: In bone, PTH enhances the release of calcium from the large reservoir contained in the bones. Bone resorption is the normal destruction of bone by osteoclasts, which are indirectly stimulated by PTH.
the diagnostic and statistic manual-5 (dsm-5) is valuable to the work we do at hoffman homes because it identifies diseases and mental disorders.truefalse
Answers
True diagnostic and statistic manual-5 (dsm-5) is valuable to the work we do at hoffman homes because it identifies diseases and mental disorders.
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual-5 (DSM-5) is a comprehensive guide that is used to diagnose and classify mental disorders. It is valuable to the work that is done at Hoffman Homes because it helps to identify specific mental disorders and provide guidance on appropriate treatments. The DSM-5 provides a common language that is used by mental health professionals to communicate and understand mental health disorders. This understanding helps to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and support. Therefore, it is true that the DSM-5 is valuable to the work we do at Hoffman Homes because it identifies diseases and mental disorders.
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When using the area health education centers model, the student should first state the consequence
Answers
Explanation: The Area Health Education Centers (AHEC) Program is a federally funded program established in the United States in 1972 "to improve the supply, distribution, retention and quality of primary care and other health practitioners in medically underserved areas." The program is "part of a national effort to improve access to health services through changes in the education and training of health professionals." The program particularly focuses on primary care.
Answer:
This is true.
Explanation:
Please help!!
What are 10 key facts about Nursing?
Answers
2.the first nursing school was in 250 b.c
3.communication is key
4.nurses walk a 5k every shift
5.students who study nursing often end up as a nurse
6.it’s a very important job
7.there are more than 3 million nurses in the world
8.nurses aren’t just in hospitals
9.most nurses call it there calling
10.it’s is in the 100 best jobs
Some neurological disorders affecting older adults may affect which of the following?
Answers
Answer: Weakness, numbness, poor balance, stroke, Parkinson's , and seizures. Neurological disorder can also cause memory loss.
Grady has an inflamed knee from doing a lot of physical exercise the day before. He stops by the pharmacy to find a drug to relieve the inflammation and asks the pharmacist to recommend a drug. The pharmacist asks Grady if he has a history of peptic ulcers. Which best describes why the pharmacist needs to know this?
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-drug interaction by taking aspirin, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking aspirin, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-drug interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication.
Answers
Answer: So the pharmacist can prescribe him something that won't upset the stomach acids in his stomach the causes the ulcers
Explanation:
Answer: A peptic ulcer could result in a drug-disease interaction by taking beta blockers, a common anti-inflammatory medication
Explanation: I have a peptic ulcer
what is the avg pp size
Answers
Answer:
the average"PP" size is at least 5.16
Explanation:
The effect of a medication on blood pressure is being tested. Let Ai and Bi denote the pre-treatment and post-treatment measures of the blood pressure on subject i. The possible effect of the medication is measured by the differences Di = Ai − Bi , which are assumed to be independently distributed, with the same mean and variance. Fifty patients are included in the study, so it is assumed that Di are N(µD, σ2 D) distributed. The null hypothesis is that µD = 0. The null hypothesis will be rejected at the significance level of α = 0.05. Earlier tests suggest that σD = 20. The marketing division has requested that the medication show a decrease in blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg (alternative hypothesis). Find the rejection region for the test and the power of the test
Answers
The rejection region for the test is z < -1.645 and the power of the test is 1.12%.
Let Ai and Bi denote the pre-treatment and post-treatment measures of blood pressure on subject i. The possible effect of the medication is measured by the differences Di = Ai − Bi, which are assumed to be independently distributed, with the same mean and variance. 50 patients are included in the study, so it is assumed that Di are N(µD, σ2D) distributed.
The null hypothesis is that µD = 0. The null hypothesis will be rejected at the significance level of α = 0.05. Earlier tests suggest that σD = 20. The marketing division has requested that the medication show a decrease in blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg (alternative hypothesis).
The rejection region for the test:
The test of the hypothesis is: H0: µD = 0 vs. Ha: µD < -10, where µD is the true difference between pre- and post-treatment blood pressure measures in the population of all patients taking this medication and σD = 20. α = 0.05 is the significance level of the test.
The test statistic is: z = (D' - (-10)) / (σD / √n)
Here, z is the test statistic; D' is the sample mean of the differences in blood pressure measures; n is the sample size. The rejection region is given by:
z < -1.645
The power of the test:
Power of a test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is true. Here, the alternative hypothesis is µD < -10. Let us assume that the true mean difference is µD1 = -15.The power of the test is given by:
P(z < zα | µD = -15) = P(z < -z0.05 | µD = -15)
P(z < -1.645 | µD = -15) = Φ(-1.645 - (10 / (20 / √50))) = Φ(-2.295) = 0.0112
Therefore, the power of the test is 0.0112, or approximately 1.12%. Thus, the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when the true mean difference is -15 is very low.
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The plan that starts on the resident's admission and assists when the resident goes home is called
Answers
Answer:
discharge plan
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable abbreviation for subcutaneous?
Multiple Choice
SC
SCC
SQ
subcut
Answers
Subcut is NOT an acceptable abbreviation for subcutaneous.
What is subcutaneous?
Skin-deep is a synonym for subcutaneous. The medication is injected into the tissue layer between the skin and the muscle using a little needle in this type of injection. Medication is often absorbed over a longer period of time—sometimes up to 24 hours—when administered using this method than if it were injected into a vein.
What is treatment ?
Management and care to prevent, cure, alleviate, or slow the evolution of a medical illness: the action or method of treating a patient or a condition medically or surgically.
Therefore, Subcut is NOT an acceptable abbreviation for subcutaneous.
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what strain of marijuana can i grow in 40 degrees weather
Answers
Answer:
to can calculate for popolation destiny it is imporative to divide rhe number of popolation bt the number size of the area
Explanation:
read book thats im my hope
Javier is recording a patient’s temperature every hour to determine if it rises or falls throughout the day. What type of graph is best for him to use?
Answers
Explanation: if the temperature is measured in the y axis and the hour is recorded in the x axis, it will be easy to see if the temperature has increased or decreased between the hour or in the day. It will also let Javier know if his patient is having a high temperature at a certain time during the day!
How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?
Answers
Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.
David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.
David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.
Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.
This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.
Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.
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Since im studying animals (im training to be a vet) what is the most fragile part of a dogs body?
Answers
Probably their muzzle.