In cladistic analyses, the most ______ cladogram is often regarded as the best one because it requires the fewest evolutionary changes needed to explain the data.

Answers

Answer 1

Cladistic gram is often used by scientists in classification. the most Maximum parsimony cladogram requires the fewest evolutionary changes needed to explain the data.

Maximum parsimony is known to be the evolutionary tree that only needs the few or the least evolutionary changes to explain data.

A phylogenetic tree and cladogram are known to be a tree structure that stands for the evolutionary relationships/history within a group of organisms

Scientists do use the following when placing an organism on a cladistic gram. They are:

The place organisms based on common ancestryThe ancestral species and all of its descendants

Maximum parsimony is said to be a point under which the phylogenetic tree that reduces the total number of character-state changes that is needed.

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In Cladistic Analyses, The Most ______ Cladogram Is Often Regarded As The Best One Because It Requires

Related Questions

there are 22 grams of media per 1000 mL of liquid, how many grams of media would it take to make only 100 mL of liquid?

Answers

Answer:

1ml

Explanation:

ddddddn

svscwjdvjwdvwjdvwjskqskwsg

If the specimen is living, then cells ______
be present when the specimen is viewed through a microscope.

Answers

If the specimen is living, then cells would be present when the specimen is viewed through a microscope.

What is a microscope?

A microscope can be defined as an optical device that is typically designed and developed to produce an enlarged (magnified) image of a minute (very small) object, in order to show all the littlest and tiniest details about the object which cannot be seen by the natural human eye.

This ultimately implies that, a microscope is generally used for viewing specimens of organisms and other non-living organisms.

In this context, cells would be observed to be present whenever a living specimen of an organism is viewed through a microscope because there are the smallest and fundamental unit of life.

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Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee? Question options:
a) iliopsoas and rectus femoris b) vastus medialis c) biceps femoris d) gastrocnemius e) soleus

Answers

Paralysis of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee: biceps femoris. The biceps femoris is a muscle of the hamstring group, located in the posterior thigh.

Paralysis of the biceps femoris muscle would make an individual unable to flex the knee. The biceps femoris is one of the hamstring muscles located at the back of the thigh. It is responsible for flexing the knee joint and extending the hip joint.

When the biceps femoris muscle is paralyzed, the individual will have difficulty flexing their knee, which can lead to impaired mobility and discomfort.

Other muscles that can contribute to knee flexion include the iliopsoas and rectus femoris muscles located at the front of the hip, and the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles located at the back of the calf. However, paralysis of these muscles would not directly affect knee flexion.

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Respiration is a process where many chemical bonds inside the body break and release energy. This energy is used to perform various activities such as moving muscles. Explain the energy transformation in this process.
A. Chemical energy from broken bonds is transformed into mechanical energy for muscles.
B. Mechanical energy from broken bonds is transformed into chemical energy for muscles.
C. Mechanical energy from broken bonds is transformed into electrical energy for muscles.
D. Heat energy from broken bonds is transformed into electrical energy for muscles.

Answers

Answer:

I'm not great at science and especially not biology but

Explanation:

the energy is transformed by the nucleus inside the cell and energy is held there it will soon release motonchdria holds the blood cell and energy will be transformed somewhat that way sorry if it doesnt help

Answer: A Chemical energy from broken bonds is transformed into mechanical energy for muscles.

Explanation:

PLATO

regardless of whether it matures into a b cell or a t cell, a lymphocyte that is capable of responding to a specific antigen by binding to it is said to have

Answers

Regardless of whether it matures into a B cell or a T cell, a lymphocyte that is capable of responding to a specific antigen by binding to it is said to have immunocompetence.

Immunocompetence is the ability of a lymphocyte to recognize and respond to an antigen. This is achieved through the process of clonal selection, in which lymphocytes that have receptors that bind to a particular antigen are selected and proliferated.

The process of clonal selection begins when a lymphocyte encounters an antigen. The lymphocyte's receptor binds to the antigen, and this binding triggers a series of events that lead to the proliferation of the lymphocyte. The proliferated lymphocytes then produce antibodies or other immune cells that can specifically target the antigen.

Clonal selection is a very important process in the immune system. It allows the immune system to respond to a wide variety of antigens, and it helps to ensure that the immune system can mount a rapid and effective response to any infection.

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Choose all of the physical changes: (There are FOUR) Group of answer choices
tarnish
evaporate
bend
react
melt
explode
dissolve

Answers

Answer:

evaporate, bend, melt, dissolve

Explanation:

Please Answer These Math Questions LOT OF QUESTIONS LOTS OF POINTS (Questions in picture)

Please Answer These Math Questions LOT OF QUESTIONS LOTS OF POINTS (Questions in picture)

Answers

Answer:

this is not science questions it is of maths

Answer:

j

Explanation:

What criteria does 1,3-cyclobutadiene follow for aromaticity? what criteria does 1,3-cyclobutadiene not follow for aromaticity?.

Answers

1,3-cyclobutadiene does not fulfill the criteria for aromaticity as it lacks planarity, effective conjugation, and the required number of π-electrons. It is considered non-aromatic or antiaromatic, which typically exhibits higher reactivity and instability compared to aromatic compounds.

1,3-cyclobutadiene does not follow the criteria for aromaticity, known as Hückel's rule, which states that for a molecule to be aromatic, it must fulfill the following criteria:

1. Planarity: The molecule must have a planar, cyclic structure to allow for the delocalization of π-electrons.

2. Conjugation: The molecule must possess a continuous loop of overlapping p-orbitals, allowing for the delocalization of π-electrons.

3. Aromatic number of π-electrons: The molecule must have a number of π-electrons that follows the formula 4n + 2, where n is an integer (known as the Hückel's rule). This condition ensures maximum stability due to complete delocalization of π-electrons.

Now, let's analyze 1,3-cyclobutadiene based on these criteria:

1. Planarity: 1,3-cyclobutadiene is non-planar due to the inherent strain caused by the angle strain in the four-membered ring. The bond angles in the ring deviate significantly from the ideal 120° required for planarity.

2. Conjugation: While 1,3-cyclobutadiene has a cyclic structure, the p-orbitals necessary for conjugation are not effectively aligned due to the non-planarity of the molecule. This prevents the delocalization of π-electrons.

3. Aromatic number of π-electrons: According to Hückel's rule, a molecule with a four-membered ring would require 4π-electrons (n = 1) to be aromatic. However, 1,3-cyclobutadiene has four π-electrons, which does not satisfy the 4n + 2 requirement.

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What is an example of dissociation?

A. vegetable oil dissolving in water
B. table salt dissolving in water
C. hydrogen chloride dissolving in water
D. table sugar dissolving in water

Answers

Answer:

I'll say B cause the Nacl ion breaks down and get surrounded by hydrogen and hydroxyl ion

Table salt dissolving in water is the example of dissociation.

What do you mean by dissociation?

Dissociation is the process by which chemical molecules (or ionic compounds such as salts, or complexes) break down into simpler constituents such as atoms, ions or radicals, usually in a reversible manner.

Moreover, the dissociation of water is an equilibrium reaction in which one water molecule donates its proton to another water molecule.

Salts that are soluble in water dissociate into their ions and are electrolytes. Salts that are insoluble or only slightly soluble in water form very few ions in solution and are nonelectrolytes or weak electrolytes.

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outline how can discussion,projects,campaign and events support victims of drug abuse?​

Answers

Discussion , projects , campaigns and events supports victims of drug abuse through Preventions of human trafficking . so that they can overcome the barriers .

What is human trafficking ?

It is unlawful acts which includes use of force , fraud and some type of labor and sex acts , etc.

It can be happen in any community , victims of this can be of any age , race , gender or nationality .

Laws of human trafficking :

there are three elements of this law are prevention , protection and prosecution .

The law protects citizens rights to life , security and liberty .

The law punishes people who violates .

The law provides support and protection to the victims .

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help anybody pleaseeee and number them <3 happy holidays !!!!

help anybody pleaseeee and number them &lt;3 happy holidays !!!!

Answers

Answer:

It's 1

Explanation:

Ionic bonding is from metal to metal and happy holidays to you too! <3

Choose the correct answer:The ability of an atom to attract the shared electrons in a covalent bond is its:A) electronegativityB) bonding abilityC) polarityD) ionic characterE) nonpolarity

Answers

i am not exactly sure but i believe it’s A:)

All of the following posterior compartment muscles of the lower leg cross the ankle joint on the posterior side and are involved in plantarflexion of the foot exceptA) The soleusB) The plantarisC) The gastrocnemiusD) The popliteus

Answers

All of the following posterior compartment muscles of the lower leg cross the ankle joint on the posterior side and are involved in plantarflexion of the foot except the popliteus

The popliteus muscle is not involved in plantarflexion of the foot and does not cross the ankle joint on the posterior side. The popliteus muscle is located in the posterior compartment of the leg, but its primary action is to unlock the knee joint by internally rotating the tibia. It plays a role in initiating knee flexion rather than plantarflexion of the foot.

On the other hand, the muscles A) The soleus, B) The plantaris, and C) The gastrocnemius are all involved in plantarflexion of the foot and cross the ankle joint on the posterior side. The gastrocnemius, along with the soleus, forms the calf muscle and is a powerful plantarflexor of the foot. The plantaris muscle is a smaller muscle located deep to the gastrocnemius, and it also contributes to plantarflexion.

Among the listed options, the posterior compartment muscle of the lower leg that does not cross the ankle joint on the posterior side and is not involved in plantarflexion of the foot is the popliteus muscle (option D).

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A new team of epidemiologists was tasked with examining the association between measles vaccination (exposure) and developing measles (outcome) in a retrospective cohort study of school children in Washington, D.C. during 2008. In 2008, 21 school children were diagnosed with measles while 138 children never acquired measles. Health records from 2004 showed that 18 of the 21 measles cases were vaccinated, while 134 of 138 non-cases were vaccinated.


What following interpretation should the team of epidemiologists make regarding the calculated relative risk obtained in question number 28?


a. The relative risk is less than 1.0, indicating a decreased risk "for the exposed (vaccinated) children.

b. The relative risk is greater than 1.0, indicating an increased risk for the exposed (vaccinated) children.

c. The relative risk is equal to 1.0, indicating the risk for the exposed (vaccinated) children is equal to the risk in the non- exposed children.

d. Not sufficient evidence to generate an interpretation of relative risk.

Answers

The following interpretation that the team of epidemiologists should make regarding the calculated relative risk obtained in question number 28 is: The relative risk is greater than 1.0, indicating an increased risk for the exposed (vaccinated) children. The correct option is B).

A cohort study is a research study design in which one or more samples are followed up to establish the relationship between exposure and outcome variables. In this study, epidemiologists were assigned to study the link between measles vaccination and the development of measles in a retrospective cohort study of school children in Washington, D.C. in 2008.

A retrospective cohort study is a study that follows up on previous exposure. Exposure and outcome data are collected from past records or interviews with patients. They're less expensive than prospective studies and provide faster answers.

Relative risk is the ratio of the risk of developing an outcome among those exposed to a risk factor compared to the risk among those who are not exposed. Therefore, the relative risk ratio greater than 1.0 indicates that those exposed (vaccinated) are more likely to develop measles.

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A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)

Answers

Answer:

It's an organelle

Explanation:

Answer:

organelles are structures within a cell that performs a specific function

Explanation:

they are suspended in the cytoplasm (fluid)

Seismic waves go faster through
S waves
than through

Answers

Seismic waves go faster through S waves than through P waves.

1. Seismic waves are waves of energy that travel through the Earth's interior, primarily generated by earthquakes or other geological disturbances.

2. There are two main types of seismic waves: P waves (primary waves) and S waves (secondary waves).

3. P waves are compressional waves that travel by compressing and expanding the material they pass through. They can travel through solids, liquids, and gases.

4. S waves, on the other hand, are shear waves that move particles perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. They can only travel through solids.

5. The speed of seismic waves depends on the properties of the material they pass through. Generally, P waves travel faster than S waves.

6. However, when seismic waves encounter a boundary between different materials, their speeds can change. In some cases, S waves may travel faster than P waves through certain materials.

7. This phenomenon occurs because the elasticity and density of the materials affect the speed of the waves. The specific properties of the materials at a given location determine how seismic waves will propagate through them.

8. In most cases, S waves travel at about 60% to 70% of the speed of P waves. This speed difference is one of the factors that seismologists use to analyze seismic data and determine the nature of the Earth's interior.

9. By studying the arrival times and characteristics of P and S waves at different seismic stations, scientists can gain valuable insights into the structure and composition of the Earth's layers.

10. Therefore, it is accurate to state that seismic waves go faster through S waves than through P waves, as long as we consider their relative speeds within a specific material or medium.

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A person sees a ball and kicks it, in part because of actions of the nervous system. Using the parts of the nervous system listed, describe the path of nerve impulses that cause the person to (1) see the ball and (2) kick the ball.

Answers

Answer:

In the case of seeing a ball and kicking it can be expressed in the actions of the nervous system as follows:

Part 1. Eyes see the ball and send signals with the help of sensory neurons that carry this message to the spinal cord.

PArt 2. The spinal cord processes the information and sends an "impulse" of kicking the ball that will transfer to motor neurons that transfer it to the brain and then muscles.

Sensory neurons --> spinal cord --> motor neurons --> brain---->leg muscles

consider two genes with the alleles aand a and b and b. if the two genes are 30 m.u. apart what gametes will an individual with the genotype ab/ab be expected to produce?

Answers

An individual with the genotype ab/ab has two alleles, "a" and "b," on each homologous chromosome.

In biology, the term "genotype" refers to the genetic makeup or the specific combination of genes that an organism possesses. It represents the complete set of genes or alleles present in an individual's genome.

Genes are segments of DNA that contain instructions for the development, functioning, and characteristics of an organism. Each gene can have different versions called alleles, which may result in variations in traits.

Given that these genes are 30 m.u. apart, this indicates a 30% chance of recombination between them during the formation of gametes. As a result, the expected gametes produced by this individual would be:

1. 70% chance of producing ab gametes (without recombination)

2. 30% chance of producing Ab or aB gametes (with recombination)

So, the individual is expected to primarily produce ab gametes, with a smaller proportion of recombinant gametes (Ab and aB).

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what time of year are date palms usually pollinated?

Answers

Date palms are generally pollinated during the spring season. This is the time when the male flowers produce pollen and the female flowers receive it.

Date palm pollination is wind pollinated but is not very effective so it is usually done artificially. Hand pollination is done by collecting pollen from the male flowers and then applying it to the female flowers through a process called dusting. This is typically done in the months of March and April, during the spring season and in the fall almost a year after flowering, they mature.

The date is an elongated fruit, measuring 2.5 to 8 cm, yellow at first and later reddish brown, with a single very hard stone with a deep longitudinal groove.

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Please complete the numbers on the flowchart using words.

Please complete the numbers on the flowchart using words.

Answers

Answer:

1=producers (plants)

2=carnivores

3=omnovores

how would you test the Presence of starch in leaves ?​

Answers

Answer: (You can search it up on google and find this) Lodine Solution is used to test leaves for the presence of starch. you need to: Heat a plant leaf in boiling water for 30 seconds (This stops its chemical reactions) heat it in boiling ethanol for a few minutes (This removes most of its colour)

Explanation:

what is human intercose

practical of human intercose​

Answers

Answer:

Sexual intercourse, also called coitus or copulation, reproductive act in which the male reproductive organ (in humans and other higher animals)

Apply the five concepts of Darwin's theory of natural selection to the evolution of the horse?

Answers

Answer:

Darwin's theory of natural selection explains how species evolve over time in response to changes in their environment. The evolution of the horse provides a good example of how these concepts work. Here are the five concepts of natural selection and how they apply to the evolution of the horse:

Variation: Natural variation exists within populations of horses, with some horses being taller, smaller, faster, or stronger than others.

Inheritance: These variations are passed on from one generation to the next through genetic inheritance. Horses with desirable traits are more likely to pass those traits on to their offspring.

Differential Survival: In any population, there is a struggle for survival, with some individuals being better adapted to their environment than others. For example, horses that can run faster or digest tougher grasses are more likely to survive and reproduce.

Reproduction: The horses that survive and reproduce pass on their advantageous traits to their offspring, increasing the frequency of those traits in the population over time.

Time: Over many generations, natural selection can result in significant changes in the population, leading to the evolution of new species. In the case of the horse, the gradual changes in hoof shape, tooth structure, and size over millions of years have led to the development of modern horses, zebras, and donkeys.

In summary, the five concepts of natural selection help explain how the evolution of the horse occurred over millions of years, resulting in the development of the modern equine species we see today.

1. If a heterozygous individual (Aa) were crossed with another heterozygous individual (Aa), what
is the chance that their offspring would have a heterozygous genotype?
A 0%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The chance that their offspring would have a heterozygous genotype is 50%. The correct option is B.

What is a heterozygous individual?

In terms of genetics, being heterozygous means having inherited various alleles (variations) of a certain genomic marker from each biological parent. A person who has two copies of a genetic marker is said to be heterozygous for that marker.

When two heterozygous people are crossed, the offspring's genotype and phenotypic ratios will be predictable.

A person who is heterozygous for a gene has two distinct alleles. In this scenario, there would be a 50% probability that the person would inherit one allele and a 50% chance that they would receive the other allele.

There is a 1/4 chance of having children that are heterozygous for both genes.

Therefore, the correct option is B. 50%.

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bacteria grow and reproduce during the _____ stage.

Answers

Bacteria grow and reproduce during the exponential stage.

During the exponential stage, bacteria reproduce rapidly by a process called binary fission. In binary fission, the bacterial cell makes a copy of its genetic material (DNA) and then physically splits into two daughter cells. This is a relatively fast process, and under optimal conditions, bacteria can double in number every 20 minutes. This exponential growth is possible because the bacteria has a simple cell structure and a small genome, which allows them to reproduce quickly. Once the resources that the bacteria need to grow become limiting, the growth rate will slow down and eventually stop, this is called the stationary stage, after that, if the environmental conditions continue to be unfavorable, the bacteria will start to die and decrease in number, this is called the death phase.

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which of the following structures plays an important role in the rewarding effects of food, sex, and drugs? group of answer choices the ventral tegmental area the superior colliculi the substantia nigra the inferior colliculi

Answers

The pleasurable effects of food, sex, and narcotics are significantly influenced by the ventral tegmental region structures.

The ventral tegmental region is what?

The ventral tegmental area's (VTA) dopamine-releasing neurons play crucial roles in behavior that is goal- and reward-directed. The afferent and efferent connectivity of VTA dopamine-releasing neurons varies, and in certain situations, these neurons release GABA or glutamate in addition to dopamine.

Recent studies have demonstrated that non-dopamine-releasing projection neurons, which have their own unique connections, can also transmit motivational signals originating from the VTA. To produce specific output firing patterns, both dopamine-releasing and non-dopamine-releasing VTA neurons combine afferent impulses with regional inhibitory or excitatory inputs.

It has been demonstrated that a variety of individual inputs, outputs, and local connections are sufficient to produce reward- or aversion-related behavior, demonstrating the remarkable contribution of this small population of neurons to behavior.

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the figure to the right is a microscope image of a homologous pair of chromosomes. what stage of the cell cycle is depicted?

Answers

Answer:

The figure appears to show a pair of homologous chromosomes during the process of meiosis. Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in specialized cells called gametes, such as eggs and sperm, in which the number of chromosomes is halved.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material through a process called crossing over. This is visible in the figure as the homologous chromosomes are shown in close proximity to each other, with small sections of their chromatids (the two identical strands that make up each chromosome) visibly swapped with each other.

After crossing over is complete, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell, followed by the final separation of the two sets of chromosomes in the cell. This process produces four genetically unique daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes of the original cell. This is why meiosis is important for sexual reproduction, as it allows for genetic diversity among the offspring.

Marfan’s syndrome is a disease associated with faulty manufacture of the extracellular protein fibrillin. Since this is a component of elastin, in which of the numbered cells would the damaged gene be expressed?.

Answers

Marfan syndrome is related to an autosomal dominant condition.

There are several organs constructed of elastic fibres. Skin, skeletons, and joints are the most frequent organs. Marfan syndrome will show as the chest form, long as well as thin bones (arms, legs, fingers), stretch marks inside the skin, or eye lens.

Marfan syndrome, the genetic illness, affects connective tissue, or even the fibres that hold and attach the organs and other body parts. Marfan syndrome most usually affects the skeleton, blood vessels, heart, and vision. It occurs since the normal growth of connective tissue cannot continue with just one functional copy of such FBN1 gene.

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Caffeine blocks the activity of cAMP phosphodiesterase in the epinephrine pathway. Therefore, caffeine ingestion would interact with this pathway by:

Answers

Answer: prolonging the action of epinephrine

Explanation:

caffeine inhibits the breakdown of cyclicAMP, which the messenger that activates epinephrine release

10 points to whoever can answer the question in the following attachment

10 points to whoever can answer the question in the following attachment

Answers

Answer:

a,1 b,2 c,3 d,4

Explanation:

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