In a green plant, the majority of photosynthesis takes place in the mesophyll.
What is photosynthesis?
Photosynthesis is a chemical reaction that occurs in green plants, algae, and some bacteria. This process is responsible for converting light energy from the sun into chemical energy that can be used by living organisms. The oxygen produced during photosynthesis is released into the atmosphere, where it is breathed in by humans and other animals.
The process of photosynthesis occurs in specialized organelles known as chloroplasts, which are found in the leaves of green plants. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, a pigment that absorbs light energy and gives plants their green color. Chloroplasts are located primarily in the mesophyll, which is the layer of tissue in the interior of the leaf.
Thus, the majority of photosynthesis takes place in the mesophyll of the leaf. In the thylakoids, light-dependent reactions take place, whereas, in the stroma, light-independent reactions occur.
In addition, the mesophyll layer of the leaf is responsible for gas exchange. During photosynthesis, the mesophyll tissue takes in carbon dioxide from the air and releases oxygen.
Hence, the correct answer is mesophyll.
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Using Figure 17.5 , identify a 5' → 3 ' sequence of nucleotides in the DNA template strand for an mRNA coding for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Pro-lys. a. 5'-UUUGGGAAA-3' b. 5 '-GAACCCCTT-3' c. 5 '-CTTCGGGAA-3' d. 5 '-AAACCCUUU-3
Answer: 5′-CTTCGGGAA-3′
Explanation:
it use solar energy to convert ______ and ____ into the electron carriers _____ and ____
Which type of reproduction results in the greatest amount of genetic variation?.
Answer:
That would be - reproduction. - reproduction allows for independent assortment and crossing over to occur. This is fancy language for the genetic material gets mixed up a lot. Since the genetic material gets mixed up, variation will result.
Explanation:
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1. Given the double-stranded stretch of DNA below, determine the base sequence of
messenger RNA strand produced using this gene as the template. *Hint: Only one of the
two strands is used as the template.
5'ATGCCATTGCTTAAGCGGGCATTATATCCAAGA 3'
3' TACGGTAACG AATTCGCCCGTAAT ATĄGGTACT 5
AUGCCAUUGCUU AAG-CGG-GCAULAUAU CCA UGA
How many amino acids will this protein contain?
Answer:
AUG-CCA-UUG-CUU-AAG-CGG-GCA-ULA-UAU-CCA-UGA
so 11
Explanation:
because every 3 bases code for 1 amino acid and to make it easier to count split into 3 so u can count easily.
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Regarding the triplet code of DNA, which of the following sentences is true? 1 pike each DNA base codes for three amino acids there are three genes that code for a protein, each amino acid is coded for by three DNA bases each triplet codes for several amino acids
Answer:
The following sentence is true regarding the triplet code of DNA: Each amino acid is coded for by three DNA bases.
Explanation:
The genetic code is a set of rules that specify the correspondence between the three-letter codons in DNA and the twenty standard amino acids used to build proteins. Each codon codes for a single amino acid, except for three "stop" codons that signal the end of the protein sequence. Therefore, a sequence of three DNA bases (a triplet) corresponds to a specific amino acid, and the order of the triplets determines the order of amino acids in the protein sequence.
Why would having a shock-absorbing skull be a disadvantage for woodpeckers
Having a shock-absorbing skull causes the dissipation of head kinetic energy, which means woodpeckers have to work more to drill into the trunk of a tree.
How do woodpeckers absorb shock?The front of a woodpecker's skull is made of spongy bone as an adaptation to absorb or disperse shocks from its pecks, safeguarding its soft brains.
A woodpecker's skull is made up of bones that protect the brain and prevent concussions.
But having a shock-absorbing skull is a disadvantage for woodpeckers because it dissipates the kinetic energy in the head, due to which they have to work more to drill into the trunk of a tree.
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What is meant by the term epidemiology?
answer:Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations, and the application of this study to the control of health problems (1). Key terms in this definition reflect some of the important principles of epidemiology.
PLS HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!
Answer:
Look Below
Explanation:
1. 60/1: 60 min in an hour = 1500 minutes
2. 1/3: 1 yard for every 3 feet = 5 1/3 yards
3. 4/1 and 2/1: 4 quarts in a gallon and 2 pints in a quart = 120 pints
4. 1/60, 1/60, and 1/24: = 500/ 86400 or 0.0058 days
Double-check the final answers if you have time.
What do mitochondria do in healthy cells, and ny had defective mitochondria caused
David to lose his vision?
Muscle weakness, intolerance to exercise, decreased hearing and vision, ataxia, seizures, learning difficulties, heart problems, diabetes, and poor growth are the hallmark signs of mitochondrial myopathy.
What will happen if have a defective mitochondria?Defects in mitochondria, the body's energy producers that may be found inside practically all cells, are the root cause of mitochondrial disorders. mitochondrial myopathies are mitochondrial diseases that create noticeable muscular issues, while mitochondrial encephalomyopathies are mitochondrial disorders that cause noticeable muscular and neurological abnormalities.Several of the syndromes linked to mitochondrial disease include Barth syndrome, Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, Leigh syndrome, Mitochondrial DNA depletion syndromes , Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, Lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes, Mitochondrial neurogastrointestinal encephalomyopathy, Myoclonus epilepsy with ragged red fibers, Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa , Pearson syndrome.The mtDNA mutation that causes NARP also causes MILS, and the two disorders can coexist in the same family. NARP can cause developmental delay, seizures, and dementia in addition to the primary symptoms for which it is called.To learn more about mitochondria refer :
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Which of the following is true of the impact of testosterone on aggressive behavior in males?
a. Prenatal androgenization decreases aggressiveness in primates.
b. Androgens have organizational effects after puberty.
c. Castration of sex-offenders may reduce aggressive sexual attacks.
d. Testosterone exerts effects on muscles before puberty.
e. Physical castration does not alter aggression.
The correct statement regarding the impact of testosterone on aggressive behavior in males is c. Castration of sex offenders may reduce aggressive sexual attacks.
Testosterone is a hormone that is known to influence aggression in males. While prenatal androgens can have organizational effects on the brain, resulting in differences in behavior, it is not necessarily true that androgenization decreases aggressiveness in primates. Androgens, including testosterone, can have both organizational and activational effects on behavior, but the activational effects are more prominent after puberty.
Castration, or the removal of the testes, has been shown to reduce aggressive sexual attacks in some sex offenders, suggesting that testosterone plays a role in these behaviors. Testosterone can also exert effects on muscle development and function before puberty. Finally, physical castration can indeed alter aggression, as the removal of the testes reduces the production of testosterone, which can decrease aggressive behavior in some males.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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phases of mitosis in the cell cycle
Answer:
These phases are prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Cytokinesis is the final physical cell division that follows telophase, and is therefore sometimes considered a sixth phase of mitosis.
Explanation:
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In an experiment investigating the time needed to kill a certain type of bacteria at 100°, which of the following variables need to be controlled?
time only
temperature and type of bacteria only
temperature only
time and temperature only
Baed on the nature if the investigation, the temperature and type of bacteria need to be controlled in this experiment.
What are variables in an experiment?Variables are quantities whose values determine the result or can affect an experiment.
Variables may either be:
dependent variableindependent variable constant variableSince the experiment is investigating the time needed to kill a certain type of bacteria at 100°, the temperature and type of bacteria need to be controlled.
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water movement through the soil and water held in a cylindrical tube result from a common phenomenon. what is this phenomenon? question 1 options: capillary action barometric pressure vacuum suction surface tension
Capillary action is the process by which a liquid flows through a confined space unaided or indeed against external forces similar as graveness. This is option A.
Capillary action the process by which soil humidity can move in any direction through the fine pores( i.e., capillaries) of the soil under the influence of face pressure forces between water and soil patches.
capillary action is important for the movement of water. It's the movement of water in and out of the cellular structure that deposits vitamins, nutrients and essential blood tube.
Without this inflow, your body cells would not be rehydrated and essential body- brain communication would be braked down.
Question
The movement of water through the ground and water confined in a spherical tube is a universal miracle. what kind of miracle is this
A) Capillary action
B) air pressure
C) vacuum suction
D) face pressure
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Organisms without exonuclease activity would replicate somewhat faster than other organisms, since time would not be spent checking newly synthesized DNA and excising mismatched bases. The mutation rate would also be higher true or false
This is true that The mutation rate would also be higher.
What is mutation?A mutation is a change in the nucleic acid sequence of an organism's, virus's, or extrachromosomal DNA's genome. DNA or RNA can be found in the viral genome.
Environmental elements known as mutagens are what trigger mutations. Radiation, chemicals, and pathogenic agents are examples of mutagens. Mutations may occur naturally spontaneously.
Because it generates a new DNA sequence for a particular gene, the mutation is crucial in the initial stage of evolution because it results in the creation of a new allele. Through intragenic recombination, recombination can also produce a new DNA sequence (a new allele) for a particular gene.
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HOW AND WHY HAS THE SEA-TURTLE CHANGE?
4. Give examples of pesticides that have caused food-associated poisoning. To what extent can these poisonings be prevented?
9. Name three acts and/or amendments that regulate food safety in the United States. Describe their purposes and the types of foods and com- ponents of foods to which they apply.
11. Discuss the risk factors for foodborne illness. Describe practical methods for the prevention of foodborne illness and indicate how you apply them in your own home or business.
12. What are the procedures that a local health department might use for investigating an outbreak of foodborne illness? (Refer to Exhibit 11.2). What factors could have been responsible for the S. aureus outbreak described in the exhibit?
Pesticides such as organophosphates, carbamates, and pyrethroids have caused food-associated poisoning.
Pesticides like organophosphates, carbamates, and pyrethroids have been linked to food-associated poisoning when used improperly or in excessive amounts. To prevent such poisonings, it is essential to follow recommended application rates, use protective gear during application, store pesticides safely, and adhere to guidelines provided by regulatory authorities.
The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) aims to prevent foodborne illnesses by shifting the focus from responding to contamination incidents to preventing them. The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) sets safety standards for all domestic and imported foods, ensuring they are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled. The Bioterrorism Act requires food facilities to register with the FDA and implement safety measures to protect the food supply from intentional contamination.
Foodborne illnesses can result from factors such as poor hygiene, improper cooking temperatures, cross-contamination between raw and cooked foods, and consumption of contaminated items. Practical methods for prevention include frequent handwashing, using separate cutting boards for raw and cooked foods, cooking meats to recommended temperatures, and storing perishable foods in the refrigerator.
During an outbreak investigation, a local health department may conduct interviews with affected individuals to identify potential sources of contamination. They will collect samples for laboratory analysis to confirm the presence of pathogens. In the S. aureus outbreak described in the exhibit, factors like improper food handling, inadequate refrigeration, or contaminated food ingredients may have contributed to bacterial growth and subsequent illness among consumers.
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When a species no longer exists in a specific
portion of their range but can be found
elsewhere, it is called
A. extinction
B. speciation
C. extirpation
D. hybridization
Answer:
The answer would be extirpation.
Explanation:
The term for when a species no longer exists in a specific portion of their range but can be found elsewhere is extirpation.
Help!!!!! 59 points!!! how do the events depicted in both the literature and historical documents you have read introduce and develop a theme refated to colonial america's identity? select two of these texts to help explain your analysis and provide evidence for your response.
The events in literature and historical documents develop a theme related to Colonial America's identity by highlighting cultural diversity and the struggle for freedom and independence.
The events depicted in literature and historical documents, such as Thomas Paine's "Common Sense" and the Declaration of Independence, introduce and develop themes related to Colonial America's identity. "Common Sense" emphasized the need for freedom and self-governance, while the Declaration of Independence formally stated the colonies' desire to separate from Britain.
Both texts demonstrate the struggle for freedom and independence that defined Colonial America's identity. Additionally, literature like Phillis Wheatley's poetry showcases the cultural diversity of Colonial America, with African American voices contributing to the development of a unique American identity.
These two texts, among others, provide evidence that Colonial America's identity was shaped by the pursuit of freedom and the diverse cultural influences present in the colonies.
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in a musculoskeletal lever system, what force does the muscle contraction provide?
In a musculoskeletal lever system, the force that the muscle contraction provides is the effort force.
Musculoskeletal lever system refers to the arrangement of muscles and bones that creates a lever, where the muscle provides the force needed to move the bone. Levers consist of a rigid object that pivots around a fixed point known as a fulcrum. In musculoskeletal levers, the fulcrum is the joint, and the bone acts as a lever. The muscle is attached to the bone, and when it contracts, it provides the force required to move the bone.The force that the muscle contraction provides is known as the effort force, which is the force required to lift or move a load.
The effort force in a musculoskeletal lever system is provided by the muscle, which is contracted when the joint is moved. The load is the weight of the object being lifted or moved, and it is located at the opposite end of the lever. The effort force is required to overcome the resistance of the load, and the force required depends on the distance between the effort and load, and the position of the fulcrum.
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Please help this will help me pass high school I just need this one answer please will like it
Answer:
B
Explanation:
How do pressure systems affect weather
Which of the following is an example of positive feedback
A Body shivers to generate heat
B Blood vessels dilate to lower temperature
Blood clotting
D Regulation of blood sugar
Answer:
a the body shivers to generate heat
Question:
Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?
Answer: CORRECT (SELECTED)
A blood clot inducing more blood clotting.
Explanation:
Positive feedback loops amplify the starting signal. In this case, the clotting of blood stimulates more blood to clot.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? O it prevents passage of possible therapeutic drugs it prevents the flow of proteins across it O it allows easy passage of lipid-soluble substances O it consists mainly of gap junctions astrocytes play a primary role
The statement it allows easy passage of lipid soluble substances is NOT true regarding the blood-brain barrier BBB. The blood brain barrier BBB is a highly selective and tightly regulated barrier that separates the brain from the circulating blood.
Its main function is to protect the brain from harmful substances, such as toxins and pathogens, while allowing essential nutrients to pass through. The blood brain barrier BBB prevents the passage of possible therapeutic drugs and the flow of proteins across it, as they are usually too large and cannot pass through the tightly packed endothelial cells that line the blood vessels in the brain.
Instead, lipid soluble substances, such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and certain drugs, can pass through the BBB by diffusion. The BBB consists mainly of tight junctions that connect the endothelial cells and limit the movement of substances between them. Astrocytes also play a primary role in the regulation of the BBB by releasing signaling molecules that control the permeability of the barrier.
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When an organism such as a yeast lives by fermentation, it converts the pyruvate from glycolysis into a different compound, such as alcohol. Why doesn't it secrete the pyruvate directly? Group of answer choices The conversion yields one NADH per pyruvate molecule. A buildup of pyruvate in the surrounding environment would be too toxic. The conversion is needed to regenerate the molecules needed for glycolysis. The conversion yields 32 ATP per pyruvate molecule.
Answer:
The conversion is needed to regenerate the molecules needed for glycolysis
Explanation:
Fermentation is a metabolic process by which microorganisms generate ATP by the anaerobic (without oxygen) degradation of organic nutrients. Fermentation allows to microorganisms convert carbohydrates into alcohol or acid. During glycolysis, two NAD+ molecules are reduced and glucose molecules are split into two pyruvate molecules, thereby producing two NADH molecules and two ATP molecules. During fermentation, pyruvate molecules are metabolized to different compounds because the energy stored in the pyruvate molecules is unavailable to the cell. In fermentation, NADH from glycolysis is oxidized back to NAD+ by being used to reduce pyruvate or a pyruvate derivative.
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.
a. diphasic impulses
b. large nerve fibers
c. erratic transmission of nerve impulses
d. the myelin sheath
Answer:
myelinating Schwann cells
Explanation:
In the peripheral nervous system, saltatory conduction is made possible by a series of morphologically and molecularly distinct subdomains in both axons and their associated myelinating Schwann cells.
during respiration, does glucose become more oxidized or more reduced?
Answer:
During cellular respiration, glucose becomes more oxidized as it is broken down and releases energy.
Explanation:
During cellular respiration, glucose undergoes a process of oxidation. In other words, it becomes more oxidized as it is broken down into smaller molecules and releases energy.
Oxidation is a chemical reaction in which a molecule loses electrons, making it more positively charged. During cellular respiration, electrons are stripped from glucose and transferred to oxygen, which combines with hydrogen ions to form water. This transfer of electrons results in the conversion of glucose into smaller, more highly oxidized molecules, such as carbon dioxide and water.
water in plants can be lost through what
Answer:
transpirationExplanation:
Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves, stems and flowers. Water is necessary for plants but only a small amount of water taken up by the roots is used for growth and metabolism. The remaining 97–99.5% is lost by transpiration and guttation.
I hope my answer will help you keep safeWhich two phases of the moon are expected to come immediately after the phase on August 23?
Answer:
my name is mister nisegy ok
Explanation:
1. fatty acids2. amino acids3. phospholipids4. hydrogen5. peptide6. tertiary7. secondary8. rough endoplasmic reticulum9. ribosome10. Golgi apparatus11. vesicle
The production of antibodies inside the lymphocytes starts at the ribosome (organelle) by joining amino acids together, creating peptide bonds, and forming the primary level structure polypeptide. The polypeptide bends and folds tertiary in the Golgi apparatus (organelle), to form the next level of structure. For instance, the secondary level of structure is formed by hydrogen bonds to create alpha helix or beta-pleated formations.
In order for an antibody to be released into the blood, a fully formed antibody will move from rough endoplasmic reticulum (organelle) to another organelle named Golgi apparatus to sort and be processed for shipment out of the cell. Antibodies transport from organelle to organelle and to the plasma membrane in a vesicle, which is made out of fatty acids-phospholipids.
1. fatty acids
2. amino acids
3. phospholipids
4. hydrogen
5. peptide
6. tertiary
7. secondary
8. rough endoplasmic reticulum (organelle)
9. ribosome (organelle)
10. Golgi apparatus (organelle)
11. vesicle
Please help for 25 points and brainliest. NO LINKS. In order for meiosis to create four, genetically different gametes, DNA replication must occur. Which of these best describes when DNA replication would occur during meiosis?
a. Prior to metaphase of meiosis I
b. Prophase I in meiosis I
c. Prior to meiosis I and meiosis II
d. Prior to meiosis II
DNA replication occurs prior to meiosis I and meiosis II.
During meiosis, DNA replication occurs during interphase before the start of meiosis I. This replication process is necessary to ensure that each of the four daughter cells produced during meiosis has a complete set of genetic information.
After DNA replication, the cell undergoes meiosis I, which results in the separation of homologous chromosomes into two daughter cells. Then, meiosis II occurs, which separates sister chromatids into four genetically different gametes.
So, the correct answer is c. Prior to meiosis I and meiosis II.
What is DNA replication?DNA replication is the process by which a cell makes a copy of its DNA.
DNA replication is a vital process that occurs before cell division in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
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