Answer:
B. Establishing or maintaining patient profiles, including lists of medications taken by individual patients.
D. Answering telephones and responding to questions and requests.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
What is the complication of chronic granulomatous disease?
The complication of chronic granulomatous disease is recurrent bacterial and fungal infections.
Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is a genetic disorder that affects the immune system's ability to fight off bacterial and fungal infections. People with CGD have a defect in certain immune system cells called phagocytes, which are responsible for killing harmful bacteria and fungi. As a result, these individuals are more susceptible to infections, particularly of the skin, lungs, and digestive tract.
The recurring nature of these infections is the main complication of CGD. Despite treatment with antibiotics and antifungal medications, infections often return and can become chronic. In addition, people with CGD may develop abscesses and granulomas (small, firm, raised areas of inflammation) in various parts of the body, such as the skin, liver, and lymph nodes.
In summary, the complication of chronic granulomatous disease is a high risk for recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, leading to chronic infections, abscesses, and granulomas.
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long-term effects of an outpatient rehabilitation program in patients with chronic recurrent low back pain
Answer:
Prolonged nerve irritation, which occurs when the back pain is left untreated for too long. Which can also lead to permanent disabilities.
Explanation:
Prolonged nerve irritation is from back pain being left untreated for a period of time. But on the other hand untreated vertebrae injuries can even lead to spinal stenosis. (The narrowing of the spinal canal), radiculopathy. (Severe nerve pain), and nerve damage. I hope this helped!!
Which of the following are ways in which masks help prevent the spread of 5 points
viruses? (Select all that apply.) *
A Masks catch respiratory droplets before they evaporate, preventing them from
becoming microdroplets that can be easily carried through the air.
B. Masks reroute droplets to the sides of a person's face.
C. Masks reduce the momentum of droplets they don't catch.
D. Masks prevent us from breathing as deeply, making us produce fewer droplets.
________ is the ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of acts. Static strength Extent flexibility Dynamic flexibility Explosive strength Trunk strength
List and elaborate on three reasons Long term care regulations that were introduced. Were the reasons political? Were the reasons justifiable? If so why? As of date, have these regulations been proven effective, or have they hurt long term care programs and services? Be sure to post supportive arguments to make your response effective.
Here are three reasons for the introduction of long-term care regulations, and an analysis of their justifiability and effectiveness:
1. Ensuring quality of care: Long-term care regulations were introduced to elaborate on the minimum standards of care that facilities must provide to their residents. These regulations aim to protect the well-being and rights of the residents, ensuring they receive proper medical, personal, and social care. The reasons are justifiable, as it is crucial to maintain a high quality of care for vulnerable individuals in long-term care facilities. These regulations have been effective in improving the overall quality of care provided in many facilities.
2. Protecting residents' rights: Regulations were established to protect the rights of residents in long-term care facilities, such as their right to privacy, dignity, and autonomy. These regulations are justifiable, as they aim to ensure that residents are treated with respect and have control over their own lives to the extent possible. The effectiveness of these regulations varies; while they have improved the overall treatment of residents in many facilities, challenges still remain in fully upholding these rights in all long-term care settings.
3. Promoting financial accountability: Long-term care regulations were introduced to ensure that facilities operate in a financially responsible manner, preventing fraud and the misuse of funds. These regulations are justifiable, as they protect taxpayers' money and ensure that funds are used to improve the quality of care for residents. These regulations have proven effective in promoting financial accountability and reducing instances of fraud in the long-term care industry.
In summary, long-term care regulations were introduced for justifiable reasons, such as ensuring quality of care, protecting residents' rights, and promoting financial accountability. While these regulations have been effective in many aspects, there is still room for improvement to fully achieve their intended goals.
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Albuterol 1.2mg po TID is ordered for a child weighing 27 lbs. The package insert
states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided
doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL. Determine the following:
Is the dosage safe
Answer:
The package insert states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL.
Explanation:
Dr. Mullis conducting testing on a fourth grade student who is having difficulty with math. He is most likely a?
Answer:
Dr. Mullis is most likely a psychologist testing for dyscalculia or another math learning disability rather than simply needing extra support in math. A psychologist can also give input as to the possibility of other learning differences, such as ADHD or dyslexia.
What is the difference is Licensure, Regulation, and Accreditation?
Answer:
Licensure is about getting the legal right to practice or serve in a specific role. Accreditation is about enabling a facility to have the respect of its industry peers. Another critical distinction between licensing and accreditation is who they apply to. A license applies to a single individual looking to practice
Answer:
Licensure is the act of granting authority by the state. Each state has agencies responsible for issuing and renewing licenses to health care professionals.
Registration means that you have graduated from an accredited school and have passed a standardized national exam administered by a nongovernmental agency.
Accreditation is an educational institution that is recognized by an outside agency, such as national board or commission, as having standards that qualify graduates for professional practice.
Explanation:
A diagnostic test is done on a patient who is struggling to breathe. The lab shows Streptococcus. Which is the most likely cause of the patient's problem?
O viral pneumonia
O bacterial pneumonia
O silicosis
O byssinosis
Answer:
Bacterial Pneumonia
Explanation:
The bacteria causing the Streptococcus has entered the lungs causing pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae) and therefore is a bacterial pneumonia.
Streptococcus is a Gram-positive, spherical bacteria therefore giving the diagnosis of the dyspnea that the patient is experiencing a bacterial pneumonia.
Answer:
The answer is bacterial pneumonia :)
what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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a nurse is making a home visit to a postpartum client. which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a woman is experiencing postpartum psychosis?
The finding that would lead the nurse to suspect that a woman is experiencing postpartum psychosis is the sudden development of delusions and hallucinations.
The term "postpartum psychosis" refers to a rare but severe mental illness that can affect a woman after giving birth. It is frequently marked by delusions, hallucinations, and other symptoms of psychosis.
The following are some signs that a woman is experiencing postpartum psychosis:
Sudden development of delusions and hallucinations Believing that her baby is dead or missing, that someone is plotting against her or her baby, or that she has committed a crime Loss of touch with reality or being unsure of what is real or not Rapid mood swings, agitation, and disorientation Difficulty sleeping and nightmares are all common symptomsLearn more about postpartum psychosis at https://brainly.com/question/22981291
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which ntervention would help the nurse communicate with patient swith varying degress of hearing losss
Answer: The different interventions to help the nurse communicate with patients with varying degrees of hearing loss are alternative communication methods, patient-centered communication and face-to-face communication.
There are different interventions to help the nurse communicate with patients with varying degrees of hearing loss.
One of the interventions is through the use of alternative communication methods.
Alterative communication methods include writing or typing down the message, using sign language, or using assistive devices such as text messaging, communication boards or picture cards. The use of technology can also help nurses to communicate with patients with hearing loss.
Some of these technologies include cochlear implants, hearing aids and captioned phones. The nurse can also use some techniques to enhance communication.
One such technique is face-to-face communication.
In this approach, the nurse speaks directly to the patient in a well-lit area and facing the patient directly. This technique also involves using clear and concise sentences that are easy to understand. The nurse can also use visual cues such as facial expressions, body language and gestures to enhance communication.
The use of interpreters can also help nurses to communicate with patients with hearing loss. Interpreters can be family members, friends or professional interpreters. They help to relay the message from the nurse to the patient and vice versa.
The nurse can also use patient-centered communication to enhance communication with patients with hearing loss. In this approach, the nurse listens carefully to the patient, acknowledges their feelings and concerns and then responds appropriately. This approach helps to build trust and respect between the nurse and the patient.
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a school district had a strict policy that prohibited the nonmedical possession, use, and sale or other distribution of any drug on school grounds. administrators at a middle school in the district were informed by a student that other students had talked about bringing prescription medications from home to school to take at lunchtime for recreational use. one day the following week, the same student gave a school administrator a pill, which the school nurse determined contained prescription-strength medication. the student stated that he had been given the pill by another student that morning. as a threshold matter, what standard does the administrator need to satisfy in order to conduct a search of the other student's person for possession of prescription medications?
As a threshold matter, the administrator needs to satisfy the standard of reasonable suspicion in order to conduct a search of the other student's person for possession of prescription medications.
Reasonable suspicion is a legal standard that requires the administrator to have specific and articulable facts that would lead a reasonable person to believe that a search is necessary to maintain school safety or to enforce the school's policies.
In this case, the administrator has received information from a student that other students have been talking about bringing prescription medications from home for recreational use. Additionally, the same student has given the administrator a pill that has been determined by the school nurse to contain prescription-strength medication. The student has also stated that they received the pill from another student that morning.
Based on these facts, the administrator has reasonable suspicion that the other student may be in possession of prescription medications on school grounds. This reasonable suspicion justifies the need for a search of the student's person to determine if they are indeed in possession of prescription medications in violation of the school district's policy.
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Reflect on strategies for personal awareness,
Specifically, mindfulness meditation is one of the best ways to learn more about how your thoughts work. When you practice watching and observing our thoughts without attaching to them or thinking about them, you begin to realize a powerful idea: You are not your thoughts.
what should a medical/health care professional do if they suspect an infant has been prenatally exposed to drugs and alcohol?
If a medical professional suspects prenatal drug and alcohol exposure in an infant, they should observe, examine, and communicate with parents. Referral, collaboration, and providing support are essential for the infant's well-being.
If a medical/healthcare professional suspects that an infant has been prenatally exposed to drugs and alcohol, they should take the following steps:
1. Observation and Assessment: The professional should closely observe the infant for any physical or behavioral signs that may indicate prenatal exposure to drugs and alcohol.
These signs may include low birth weight, feeding difficulties, irritability, tremors, poor muscle tone, and abnormal sleeping patterns.
2. Medical Examination: The professional should conduct a thorough medical examination of the infant, including screening for any specific physical or developmental abnormalities associated with prenatal substance exposure.
This may involve ordering laboratory tests, such as meconium or urine drug screenings, to confirm the presence of substances.
3. Communication: The professional should communicate their concerns with the infant's parents or caregivers in a sensitive and non-judgmental manner. It is important to maintain confidentiality and establish trust to ensure open dialogue with the parents.
4. Referral and Collaboration: Depending on the severity of the situation, the professional should refer the infant and parents to appropriate specialists, such as a pediatrician, developmental pediatrician, or child psychologist, who have expertise in evaluating and managing infants with prenatal substance exposure.
Collaborating with other healthcare professionals and social service agencies is essential to provide comprehensive care and support to the infant and family.
5. Support and Education: The professional should provide support and education to the parents regarding the potential effects of prenatal substance exposure on the infant's health and development.
This may include guidance on accessing appropriate interventions, therapies, and support services available in the community.
Ultimately, the goal is to ensure the well-being of the infant by facilitating early identification, appropriate evaluation, and comprehensive care for any potential effects of prenatal substance exposure.
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A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives about potential adverse effects of the medication.
The nurse should instruct the client who is on prescription for oral contraceptives to notify the provider in the case of shortness of breath. The correct answer is option D.
The combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is a medication that works by preventing ovulation.
It also works by altering the cervical mucus, rendering it difficult for sperm to enter the uterus, and altering the endometrium, rendering it unfavorable for implantation.
However, a COC pill has potential adverse effects that the nurse should instruct the client about. Such as breast tenderness, nausea, vomiting, and breakthrough bleeding.
Most of the time, these are harmless, and the client can continue taking the pill.
However, if the client experiences any difficulty breathing or shortness of breath, the nurse should instruct them to notify their provider right away.
This may be an indication of a severe adverse reaction to the medication. This could be caused by blood clots in the lungs, which can be fatal if not treated immediately.
Therefore, it is essential to monitor the client's reaction to the medication and advise them on what to do in the event of an adverse reaction.
So, the correct answer is option D. Shortness of breath.
The complete question is -
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives(COC) about the potential adverse effects of the medication. For which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to notify the provider?
A. Breast tenderness
B. Vomiting
C. Breakthrough bleeding
D. Shortness of breath
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The patient has lost their appetite, and is screaming in pain. She stated it hurts on her lower right side of her abdomen. When she describing the organization of the body;where would her pain be described?what might it be?is it an emergency?
Explanation:
Abdominal pain can have causes that aren't due to underlying disease. Examples include constipation, wind, overeating, stress or muscle strain
The affected person has misplaced their urge for food and is in ache on her decrease proper of the stomach suggests the signs and symptoms of appendicitis.
And the ache that happens withinside the appendix is the projection from the colon withinside the decreased proper aspect of the stomach. This happens due to the infection of the appendix and the appendix receives packed with pus.
This state of affairs reasons the lack of urge for food, ache. This state of affairs of infection is due to numerous factors, just like the digestive tract infection, increase withinside the appendix, blockage of the appendix, and any trauma or harm withinside the stomach.Appendicitis is an emergency state of affairs as that is the Inflammation of the appendix and the appendix should be eliminated as quickly as possible.What is appendicitis?
A condition in which the appendix becomes filled with infected pus that causes severe pain. It is a pouch structure at the end of large intestine.
Hence concluded that Appendicitis is an emergency.
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Beth, age 33, is being seen in the emergency room of a local hospital. Her major complaint is a stomach ache. She tells the doctor it has gotten
progressively worse over the past 2 days. After
examining Beth and conducting several laboratory tests, the doctor tells her that he suspects appendicitis.
When he asks Beth to point to the area of pain, she points to her right lower side
You can tell Beth that her appendix is in the:
Thoracic Cavity
Cranial Cavity
Right Lower Quadrant
Right Hypochondriac Region
The answer is C right lower quadrant.
Which ancient discoveries are you most interested in learning about? check all that apply. Calendars farming math medicine astronomy music.
The ancient discoveries that are most interesting in learning about are math and astronomy.
Аncient Egyptiаn civilizаtion wаs аn аdvаnced culture in terms of аstronomy аnd mаthemаtics. However, these were not only scholаrly pursuits. These developments hаd аn importаnt impаct in the everydаy аctivities of common people. That's why mathematics and astronomy are most interesting in learning about.
There were significаnt аchievements in the field of аstronomy аs well. Bаsed on their observаtions of the sun аnd the moon's movements, the Egyptiаns developed аn аccurаte cаlendаr orgаnized in twelve 30-dаy months, three seаsons of four months eаch, plus аn extrа five dаys, giving а 365-yeаr dаy but with no wаy of аccounting for the extrа quаrter dаy eаch yeаr. Dаy аnd night were split into 24 units. This аllowed people to fаrm the lаnd more successfully.
Your options are not well arranged, but most probably your options were
a. Calendars farming
b. math
c. medicine
d. astronomy
e. music
Thus, the correct answer is B and D.
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An 18-month-old established patient receives a DT that is administered intramuscularly by the physician, after the physician counseled the parents on the vaccine.
An 18-month-old established patient receives a DT that is administered intramuscularly by the physician, after the physician counseled the parents on the vaccine therefore the CPT and ICD-10-cm codes are CPT:90702, 90460, 90461 and ICD10: Z23, Z76.2.
What is Medical coding?This is referred as the translation of medical diagnosis, treatment etc into numeric and alphanumeric characters to reduce ambiguity.
The code for the intramuscularly administration of the vaccine by the physician is denoted as CPT:90702, 90460, 90461 and ICD10: Z23, Z76.2 thereby making it the correct choice in this type of scenario.
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An_______ is a technician who specializes in grinding lenses and preparing eyeglasses and contact lenses.
An Optician is a technician who specializes in grinding lenses and preparing eyeglasses and contact lenses.
An optician, or allocating optician, is a specialized guru who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for the correction of a person's vision. Opticians determine the specifications of colorful ophthalmic appliances that will give the necessary correction to a person's sight.
Registered or certified opticians also design and fit special appliances to correct ornamental, traumatic, or anatomical blights. These biases are called shells or artificial eyes. Other registered or certified opticians manufacture lenses to their own specifications and design and manufacture spectacle frames and other biases.
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which of the following is a provider factor associated with low vaccination rates in adults?
Answer: Lack of effective reminder or recall systems.
Compare the effects of moderate and heavy alcohol consumption
Answer:
The effects of moderate alcohol consumption include the reduction of mortality. Secondly, it reduces the risk of heart disease and is known to help with digestion and blood flow. Heavy alcohol consumption juxtaposed with liver failure and early death. It affects the brain, kidneys, liver and lungs. Alcohol poisoning occurs and can kill the individual. Liver failure, cancer or car accidents are other leading causes of heavy alcohol consumption.
Explanation:
1. When incising the cranium between burr holes, what attachment to the powered craniotome is necessary to prevent injury of underlying tissues?
2. Which instrument is used to strip and separate the galea and pericranium from the skull before placement of burr holes?
When incising the cranium between burr holes, a guard attachment or a stop plate is necessary to prevent injury to underlying tissues.
1. A guard attachment or stop plate is required when incising the skull between burr holes to protect the surrounding tissues.
This attachment serves as a protective barrier and limits the depth of the craniotome blade, ensuring that it does not penetrate too far and cause damage to the brain or other vital structures.
2. The instrument commonly used to strip and separate the galea and pericranium from the skull before placement of burr holes is called a periosteal elevator.
This instrument has a flat, curved, or angled blade that is gently inserted beneath the galea and pericranium to create a separation.
By lifting and separating these layers, the surgeon can expose the underlying bone to prepare for the placement of burr holes during various cranial procedures.
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The 8th grade is selling tickets to the 8th grade formal the cost per ticket is 15 the decorations and food cost 600 each ticket cost 0.50 to print. How many tickets need to be sold in order for the 8th grade to make profit
Answer:
600 > 620. This is not true, so 40 tickets isn't enough.
Explanation:
Each ticket is $15. The number of tickets is what we are trying to solve for. The class spends a certain amount of money to prepare for the formal. They hope that the money they make in ticket sales is MORE than what they spend. The expression that represents the number of tickets at $15 each is 15x, where x is the number of tickets. They hope that the sales are greater than what they spend, so what we have so far is
15x >
Greater than what, though? What do they spend? They spend 600 for the food, so
15x > 600...
but they also have to print a certain, unknown number of tickets at .50 each. The expression that represents the printing of each ticket is .5x (we can drop the 0; it doesn't change the answer or make it wrong if we drop it off). So the cost for this affair is the food + the printing.
15x > 600 + .5x
Solve this inequality for x. Begin by subtracting .5 from both sides to get
14.5x > 600 so
x > 41.3
Because we are not selling (or printing) .3 of a ticket, it's safe to say (and also correct!) that they need to sell (and print) 41 tickets. If they sell 41 tickets, the profit is found by
15(41) > 600 + .5(41)
615 > 600
This means that at 41 tickets, they make a profit. At 40 tickets, the inequality looks like this:
15(40) > 600 + .5(40) and
600 > 620. This is not true, so 40 tickets isn't enough.
A pharmacy technician filled a prescription and accidentally added a double dosage to the liquid medication. When he
noticed this, he immediately refilled the prescription.
Which best describes the possible outcome if the pharmacy technician missed catching the mistake?
O The medication could have a placebo effect.
O The medication could have a poisonous effect.
O The medication could have an agonistic effect.
O The medication could have an antagonistic effect.
Answer:
The medication could have a poisonous effect
Explanation:
im late, but this seems like the most plausible answer to me. the question didnt mention the person taking other med so a an antagonistic/agonistic effect would be impossible. Placebo is when you arent taking any medication but start to feel better, it could mean that the person might feel better faster but I might be looking in it too deep.
But doubling a liquid medication would definitely cause an accidental OD, maybe even a fatal one depending on what it is.
a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
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You are manning a telephone hotline in a city experiencing an outbreak of pandemic flu. You have been given a set of questions to ask callers (for example, do you have a fever?) and information to provide depending on the expressed concerns of callers.
Answer:
what is the question that is being asked here?
Explanation:
Which statement best describes how eponyms are different from Latin medical terms?
Answer:
Eponymous are not as easy to break down into smaller word parts.
Explanation:
PEDIATRIC CALCULATIONSExample: A child weighing 76 lbs. is ordered to receive 150 mg of Clindamycin every six (6) hours. The recommended pediatric dose is 8-20 mg / kg / day in four divided doses.The Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets.1. What is the weight in kg
Complete question: A child weighing 76 lbs. is ordered to receive 150 mg of Clindamycin q6h.
The pediatric drug handbook states the recommended dose is 8-20 mg/kg/day in four divided doses.
The Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets.
1.) What is the weight in kg?
2.) What is the safe total daily dose?
3.) Is the prescribed dose safe?
4.) Calculate the number of tablets to give.
Answer:
1.) 34.55 kgs
2.) 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day
3.) YES
4.) 1.5 tablets
Explanation:
Paediatric calculations are performed by medical personnel using the child's weight to avoid medication errors. Clindamycin is a broad spectrum antibiotics which is used for the treatment of different infections both in adult and children. It's dosage should be properly calculated by the medical personnel to avoid drug abuse and serious adverse effects.
1.) To calculate the body weight of the child from pound( lbs) to Kilogram ( kg):
1 kg = 2.2 lbs
Therefore 76 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 34.55 kgs
2.) To determine the safe total daily dose:
The recommended pediatric dose is 8-20 mg / kg / day in four divided doses.
Therefore, safe total daily dose: 34.55 x 8 = 276.36 mg
34.55 x 20 = 690.91 mg
safe dosage range: 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day
3.) To determine if the prescribed dose is safe is:
150 mg x 4 doses/day = 600 mg/day;
Since 600 mg/day is within the safe dosage range which is 276.36 - 690.91 mg/day, the prescribed dose is SAFE.
4.) To determine the number of tables to give:
Note that the Clindamycin is supplied in 100 mg scored tablets. But the child is ordered to receive 150mg of Clindamycin. Therefore the number of tablets to receive is;
150 ÷ 100 = 1.5 tablets.