Answers
Answer:
An important term in genetics that was not used by Mendel was the word "gene", a particle of the chromosome responsible for the traits of a living being. The molecule discovered by Oswald Avery - related to genes and inheritance - was DNA, a discovery he made in 1944.
Explanation:
Despite being considered the father of genetics and providing important information about the inheritance of traits, Mendel did not go so far as to use the term "gene," which is where the alleles responsible for those traits reside. The term "gene" was first used by another botanist, Wilhelm Johanssen, who in 1909 proposed the use of the word gene as the name of the particle responsible for inheritance.
In 1944, the Canadian physician Oswald Avery, faced with the mistaken belief that genes were found in proteins, proposed an experiment where he discovered that the molecule responsible for heredity was deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA.
Related Questions
Which is the broadest category of classification for the praying mantis?
Answers
The broadest category of classification for the praying mantis is referred to as animalia in this type of scenario.
What is Classification?This is defined as the process in which organisms are arranged into a group based on the similar features or characteristics between them. According to Linnaeus' hierarchical system of classification there are seven levels which include the following from broadest to narrowest.
KingdomPhylumClassOrderFamilyGenusSpecies.We can infer from the list given above that that the broadest category is Kingdom while the narrowest category is referred to as species which has smaller unique features.
Since praying mantis have similar features with animals such as being able to move, eat etc it is grouped under the Kingdom animalia which is the broadest group in this category thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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ANSWER ALL PARTS FOR THIS QUESTION 1. Describe role of Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system (RAAS) in the progression of heart failure. Explain the roles of the various hormones involved in this system and their roles in the body. 2. What hormone antagonizes aldosterone? 3. What blood test is ordered in patients with heart failure that indicates high levels of the above hormone? What does high levels of this hormone/blood test specifically indicate? Explain the pathophysiology involved.
Answers
The Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) plays a crucial role in the progression of heart failure.
1. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system response to reduced blood flow or low blood pressure, the kidneys release the enzyme renin, which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II by the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance, and stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands. Aldosterone promotes sodium and water retention in the kidneys, leading to increased blood volume and further vasoconstriction. These mechanisms ultimately contribute to increased workload on the heart and worsening of heart failure.
2. The hormone that antagonizes aldosterone is atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP is released by the atria of the heart in response to increased blood volume and pressure. It acts on the kidneys to promote sodium and water excretion, leading to diuresis and vasodilation, which counteracts the effects of aldosterone.
3. The blood test ordered in patients with heart failure to assess the levels of aldosterone is called aldosterone concentration or aldosterone level test. High levels of aldosterone indicate hyperaldosteronism, which can be primary (due to adrenal gland dysfunction) or secondary (due to activation of the RAAS). In heart failure, the high levels of aldosterone contribute to sodium and water retention, leading to fluid overload and worsening of heart failure symptoms Cardiovascular system. The pathophysiology involves the dysregulation of the RAAS, where increased aldosterone production further exacerbates the volume overload and vasoconstriction seen in heart failure.
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The city of Green Valley, Arizona, is trying to determine where to locate a new fire station. The fire station is expected to serve four neighborhoods.
Neighborhood X coordinate Y coordinate Number of homes
Birchwood 0.5 3.5 172
Cactus Circle 2 0.5 42
De La Urraca 3 1.5 223
Kingston 3 1 44
a The X* coordinate of the weighted center of gravity for the new fire station is _____. Enter your response to 2 decimal places.
b. The Y* coordinate of the weighted center of gravity for the new fire station is _____. Enter your response to 2 decimal places.
c. What other factors might come into play when making the final decision?
a. Zoning Considerations
b. Distance from other fire stations
c. Available space
d. All of the above.
Answers
(a) The X* coordinate of weighted center of gravity for new fire station is 1.82. (b) The Y* coordinate of weighted center of gravity for new fire station is 2.06. (c) The factors might come into play when making the final decision is Zoning Considerations, Distance from other fire stations, Available space. Option D is correct.
To determine the location for the new fire station in Green Valley, we need to calculate the weighted center of gravity based on the coordinates and the number of homes in each neighborhood.
The X* coordinate of the weighted center of gravity can be calculated using the formula;
X* = (X₁ × N₁ + X₂ × N₂ + X₃ × N₃ + X₄ × N₄) / (N₁ + N₂ + N + N₄)
where X₁, X₂, X₃, X₄ are the X coordinates of the neighborhoods, and N₁, N₂, N₃, N₄ are the number of homes in each neighborhood.
Using the given data:
X* = (0.5 × 172 + 2 × 42 + 3 × 223 + 3 × 44) / (172 + 42 + 223 + 44)
X* ≈ 1.82
Therefore, the X* coordinate of the weighted center of gravity for the new fire station is approximately 1.82.
The Y* coordinate of the weighted center of gravity can be calculated using the same formula, replacing the X coordinates with Y coordinates:
Y* = (Y₁ × N₁ + Y₂ × N₂ + Y₃ × N₃ + Y₄ × N₄) / (N₁ + N₂ + N₃ + N₄)
Using the given data:
Y* = (3.5 × 172 + 0.5 × 42 + 1.5 × 223 + 1 × 44) / (172 + 42 + 223 + 44)
Y* ≈ 2.06
Therefore, the Y* coordinate of the weighted center of gravity for the new fire station is approximately 2.06.
When making the final decision on the location of the fire station, several other factors might come into play;
Zoning Considerations: The city needs to consider any zoning regulations or restrictions that might limit the potential locations for the fire station.
Distance from other fire stations: The proximity to existing fire stations is an important factor to ensure efficient coverage and response times across the area.
Available space: The availability of suitable land or buildings that meet the requirements for a fire station, such as accessibility, size, and infrastructure, should be considered.
Ultimately, the decision should take into account a combination of factors, including zoning considerations, distance from other fire stations, and available space. This comprehensive approach ensures that the fire station is strategically located to serve the four neighborhoods effectively and efficiently.
Hence, D. is the correct option.
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PLEASE HELP ITS TIMED I REALLY NEED IT 25 POINTS
1. Which are the two whose primary role is to carry out photosynthesis?
a. stomata & palisade mesophyll cells
b. cuticle & palisade mesophyll cells
c. upper epidermis & stomata
d. palisade mesophyll cells & spongy mesophyll cells
2. Which of the following correctly lists the terms in order from smallest to largest?
a. seed, embryo, fruit
b. fruit, embryo, seed
c. embryo, seed, fruit
d. embryo, fruit, seed
3. In a particular species of plant, the female reproductive structures mature early in the morning when the flower first opens, and the anthers do not produce pollen until late in the evening. Which of the following statements is likely to be true?
a. Its flowers will likely be pollinated by insects
b. Self-pollination is unlikely
c. Self-pollination is highly likely
d. This flower is likely to wind pollinated
4. What part of a flower produces the male gametes?
a. stigma
b. anther
c. filament
d. ovary
Answers
Question 1
The two structures whose primary role is to carry out photosynthesis in plants are option d, palisade mesophyll cells and spongy mesophyll cells.
Palisade mesophyll cells are located in the upper part of the leaf and are responsible for most of the photosynthesis in plants. These cells contain many chloroplasts, which are the organelles responsible for capturing light energy and converting it into chemical energy through photosynthesis.
Spongy mesophyll cells are located beneath the palisade mesophyll cells and also contain chloroplasts. These cells have a more loosely packed structure, which allows for the diffusion of gases, such as carbon dioxide and oxygen, necessary for photosynthesis.
Stomata (option a) are pores located on the underside of leaves that allow for gas exchange, but they are not directly involved in photosynthesis. Cuticle (option b) is a waxy layer on the surface of leaves that helps reduce water loss, but it is not directly involved in photosynthesis either. Upper epidermis (option c) is a protective layer that covers the top of the leaf and does not directly carry out photosynthesis.
Question 2
The correct order of the terms from smallest to largest is option a, which is: seed, embryo, fruit.
A seed is the mature ovule of a plant that contains an embryo, which is the earliest stage of a young plant. The embryo is enclosed within the seed coat, which protects it during dormancy until it has a chance to germinate and grow into a mature plant.
A fruit, on the other hand, is a mature ovary of a flower that encloses seeds. It develops from the flower after pollination and fertilization and provides protection and nourishment to the developing seeds until they are ready for dispersal.
Therefore, the correct order from smallest to largest is seed, embryo, and fruit, which is listed in option a. Option b is incorrect because it lists fruit first, which is larger than the embryo and seed. Option c and d are also incorrect because they do not have the correct order from smallest to largest.
Question 3
Based on the information provided, option a, "Its flowers will likely be pollinated by insects," is the most likely statement to be true.
The fact that the female reproductive structures of the plant mature early in the morning when the flower first opens suggests that the plant is adapted for pollination by insects, which are typically most active during the day. The fact that the anthers do not produce pollen until late in the evening suggests that the plant is adapted to prevent self-pollination, which can occur if the plant's own pollen is released before the female reproductive structures are mature.
Option b, "Self-pollination is unlikely," is not necessarily true based on the information given, as it is possible for self-pollination to occur if the flower remains open long enough for the anthers to release pollen and for the pollen to reach the female reproductive structures.
Option c, "Self-pollination is highly likely," is not true based on the information given, as the plant appears to be adapted to prevent self-pollination.
Option d, "This flower is likely wind-pollinated," is unlikely based on the information given, as wind-pollinated flowers typically do not have specialized timing for reproductive structure maturation and pollen release, as they rely on wind to disperse pollen.
Question 4
The male gametes, also known as pollen grains, are produced by the anther in a flower.
The anther is a part of the male reproductive structures of the flower, called the stamen, and is typically located at the top of a long, slender stalk called the filament. The anther is made up of lobes or sacs that contain pollen grains, which are the male gametes. When the pollen is mature, the sacs split open to release the pollen grains into the air or onto an insect that will transport the pollen to the female reproductive structures of the flower.
Therefore, option b, "anther," is the correct answer to the question.
what enzyme can proof-read the dna molecule, minimizing the mistakes made during the process of dna replication?
Answers
DNA polymerase enzyme can proofread the DNA molecule, minimizing the mistakes made during the process of DNA replication.
Fortunately, cells have developed extremely complex mechanisms to correct most but not all of those errors. Some of the errors are fixed during replication in a step known as proofreading, while others are fixed in a step known as mismatch repair after replication. Replication is halted when an erroneous nucleotide is added to the developing strand because it has an exposed 3′-OH group that is in the incorrect location. DNA polymerase enzymes notice this during proofreading and swap out the wrongly inserted nucleotide to allow replication to proceed. About 99 percent of total corrections can be corrected through proofreading, but that is still insufficient for healthy cell activity.
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Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway?
a. glycolysis, NADH, oxidative phosphorylation, ATP, oxygen
b. citric acid cycle, FADH2, electron transport chain, ATP
c. electron transport chain, citric acid cycle, ATP, oxygen
d. pyruvate, citric acid cycle, ATP, NADH, oxygen
e. citric acid cycle, NADH, electron transport chain, oxygen
Answers
The majority of electrons in an active mitochondrion travel through which pathway: citric acid cycle, Nadph, aerobic respiration, and oxygen.
Unattached or attached to an atom, an electron is a negatively charged elementary particle (not bound). One of the three main types of atoms inside an atom, along with protons and neutrons, is indeed an electron that is linked to the atom. An atom's nucleus is made up of electrons, protons, and neutrons. The exterior of the nucleus is surrounded by negatively charged electrons in orbit. It can be challenging for scientists to monitor them since they rotate so quickly. They are the littlest particles in a particle and can fit 1 million of them into a central particle. People are drawn to the protons' positive charge.
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What is the purpose of the osculum in sponges?
Answers
Answer:
It is a large opening through which the water containing waste exits the sponge. (got it correct on my quiz)
Explanation:
The osculum is the site of waste exit.
The osculum is an excretory framework in the living sponge, consisting of a large opening to the outside through which the water current exits after passing through the spongocoel.
What is a sponge?Sponges, members of the phylum Porifera, are a basal animal clade that is related to diploblasts.
They are multicellular organisms with pores and channels that allow water to circulate through their bodies, which are made up of jelly-like mesophyll sandwiched between two thin layers of cells.
The osculum is a large opening that forms the sponge's excretory tract. Contractile myocytes regulate the volume of water expelled from the sponge by determining the size of the osculum opening.
Sponge bodies have multiple pores called ostia that allow water to enter the sponge in addition to the osculum.
Porocytes, single tube-shaped cells that act as valves to regulate the flow of water into the spongocoel, form ostia in some sponges.
Thus, this is the main purpose of the osculum in sponges.
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What is the term for the site where the muscle attaches that does not move when the muscle contracts?.
Answers
The attachment site at the origin is where the muscle attaches; the attachment site at the insertion is where the muscle attaches but moves during contraction.
The place where muscles connect is known as what?Muscle and bone are joined together by tendons, which are fibrous connective tissues. Muscles can be joined to tissues like the eyeball through tendon connections as well.
The distinction between voluntary and involuntary muscles is that the former can move under conscious control or at the command of the mind, while the latter move automatically or without conscious command. Smooth muscles and cardiac muscles fall within the category of involuntary muscles.
Skeletal muscles with voluntary action are those that can be consciously controlled to contract and relax. Body movement is controlled by these muscles, which are attached to bones.
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Of the muscles that move the glenohumeral joint,two originate on the axial skeleton.Which ones? A: Latissimus dorsi. B: Deltoid C: Pectoralis major
Answers
The two muscles that move the glenohumeral joint and originate on the axial skeleton are:
A: Latissimus dorsi
C: Pectoralis major
1. Latissimus dorsi: The latissimus dorsi muscle is a large muscle that originates from the lower half of the back, specifically the thoracic vertebrae T7-T12, thoracolumbar fascia, and the iliac crest (the upper border of the hip bone). It extends superiorly and laterally, covering a large portion of the back. The muscle fibers of the latissimus dorsi converge towards the anterior side of the body and insert onto the humerus (upper arm bone) at the bicipital groove, which is located near the glenohumeral joint.
The latissimus dorsi muscle plays a significant role in various movements of the glenohumeral joint, including shoulder extension (moving the arm backward), shoulder adduction (bringing the arm toward the midline of the body), and shoulder medial rotation (rotating the arm inward).
2. Pectoralis major: The pectoralis major is a large, fan-shaped muscle located in the anterior (front) chest region. It originates from the sternum (breastbone), the clavicle (collarbone), and the first to sixth ribs. The muscle fibers converge towards the shoulder and insert onto the humerus, specifically, the intertubercular groove, which is also near the glenohumeral joint.
The pectoralis major muscle is responsible for various movements of the glenohumeral joint, including shoulder flexion (bringing the arm forward), shoulder adduction (bringing the arm toward the midline of the body), and shoulder medial rotation (rotating the arm inward). It is often involved in activities such as pushing, lifting, and throwing.
So, both the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major muscles originate on the axial skeleton (the thoracic region) and insert onto the humerus near the glenohumeral joint, making them important muscles for movement and stabilization of the shoulder joint.
Therefore, the correct options are A and C.
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Wallpapers for skate boarders :))) because i love skate boarding
FOR SCHOOL SURVEY :)))
Answers
Answer:
cool thx
using the second one
Explanation:
Answer:
i think the one you have got is good
Explanation:
4. Tia has 15 metamorphic, 8 igneous,
and 7 sedimentary rocks. She displays
her rocks equally in 2 cases. Which
shows how she found the number of
rocks to put in each case? (10-8)
A 2×16
B 16 2
C 2 × 30
D 30 2
Answers
Answer:
The answer is D) 30+ 2 15.
Tia has a total of 15+ 8+7=30 rocks. She wants to display them equally in two cases, so she needs to divide the total number of rocks by 2:
30+2=15
Therefore, Tia should put 15 rocks in each case.
Explanation:
if it helped u please mark me a brainliest :-))
______ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time.
Answers
If the same antigen is encountered a second time, memory cells allow the immune system to respond quickly and robustly.
Memory cells are a type of immune cell that is created following an initial immune response to a foreign antigen. When a pathogen enters the body for the first time, the immune system mounts a response to eliminate the invader.
During this response, a small number of immune cells, known as memory cells, are generated. These cells are specialized to recognize the specific antigen that triggered the initial immune response.
Following the clearance of the pathogen, the majority of immune cells die off, but the memory cells remain in the body for an extended period of time. The presence of memory cells enables the immune system to recognize and rapidly respond to the same pathogen if it enters the body again.
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According to the base-pairing rules for DNA, which of the following statements
NOT true?
A always pairs with T
C always pairs with G
T always pairs with G
T always pairs with A
Answers
Answer:
T always pairs with A
Explanation:
I think so I'm super sorry if its wrong :)
According to the base pairing rule, guanine always forms a bond with cytosine, while adenine always pairs with thymine, T is not paired with G, hence option C is correct.
What is base-pairing in DNA?Because it is RNA, there is no complementary base pairing between the bases adenine and thymine in DNA. Uracil, which has a structure remarkably similar to that of thymine, is present in place of thymine.
Base pairing rule, guanine always forms a bond with cytosine, while adenine always pairs with thymine structure of DNA is created by the binding of these base pairs
Although they keep the two strands of DNA together, they are not strong enough to withstand replication.
Therefore, the base pairing rule, guanine always forms a bond with cytosine, while adenine always pairs with thymine, hence option C is correct.
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It addition to fungi, what other organism is responsible for returning nutrients to an environment by break down decaying matter?
A. Plants
B.Bacteria
Answers
write the UNBALANCED chemical equation for photosynthesis. don't forget to include energy
Answers
Answer:
ubalanced chemical equation for photosynthesis
Male gamete of a plant has 20 chromosomes. State the number of chromosomes in
a) Female gamete
b) zygote
c). endosperm
d). cells of sepals
Answers
the scientific name for a giraffe is giraffa camelopardalis. what two levels of classification does this name represent?
Answers
The scientific name "Giraffa camelopardalis" represents two levels of classification: genus and species. In the case of the giraffe, "Giraffa" is the genus name, and "camelopardalis" is the species name. Therefore, "Giraffa camelopardalis" represents the species name of the giraffe, and indicates that it belongs to the genus Giraffa.
Each species in the binomial nomenclature system is assigned a distinctive two-part scientific name that consists of the name of the genus and the name of the species. The most specific level of taxonomic organization is the species, which is a grouping of one or more closely related species.
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question 37 1) all of the living things on earth along with all of the places where life exists is known as a) an ecosystem. b) the biosphere. c) a biological community. d) a population.
Answers
Answer:
Biosphere
Explanation:
Because the biosphere is made up of the parts of Earth where life exists.
The physical appearance of an organism is known as its
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. allele
D. testcross
Answers
Answer:
B.Phenotype
Explanation:
The term "phenotype" refers to the observable physical properties of an organism; these include the organism's appearance, development, and behavior. An organism's phenotype is determined by its genotype, which is the set of genes the organism carries, as well as by environmental influences upon these genes.
What are the yellow arrows showing . Please no links :) ill mark brainlest if you give correct answer
Answers
Answer:i am not 100 percent sure but i think the yellow arrows are showing the wasted carbon
Which term describes the uneven way that glass breaks? cleavage luster fracture hardness
Answers
Answer:
the term that best describes the uneven way that glass breaks is cleavage
Explanation:
Because in defining cleavage scientifically is the splitting of rocks or crystals in a preferred plane or direction.
Answer:
the term that best describes the uneven way that glass breaks is cleavage
Explanation:
Because in defining cleavage scientifically is the splitting of rocks or crystals in a preferred plane or direction.
Comment about global health concerns such as malaria and malnutrition, and how such issues are tackled.
Answers
Global health concerns such as malaria and malnutrition significantly impact the well-being of millions of people worldwide. Malaria, a mosquito-borne infectious disease, predominantly affects populations in tropical and subtropical regions, while malnutrition is a result of inadequate or imbalanced intake of essential nutrients, affecting both developing and developed countries.
To tackle malaria, various strategies are implemented, including the use of insecticide-treated bed nets, indoor residual spraying, and antimalarial drugs. Additionally, public health initiatives focus on raising awareness, early diagnosis, and prompt treatment to prevent severe cases and reduce transmission.
Addressing malnutrition involves a multifaceted approach, including promoting access to nutritious food, improving maternal and child health, and implementing nutrition education programs. Efforts are also made to enhance agricultural productivity, diversify diets, and strengthen social safety nets to ensure food security.
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which statement best describes a polygenic trait?(1 point) responses a polygenic trait is only controlled by multiple environmental factors. a polygenic trait is only controlled by multiple environmental factors. a polygenic trait is controlled by multiple genes and influenced by the environment. a polygenic trait is controlled by multiple genes and influenced by the environment. a polygenic trait is only controlled by one gene and influenced by the environment. a polygenic trait is only controlled by one gene and influenced by the environment. a polygenic trait is only controlled by one environmental factor.
Answers
The statement that describes a polygenic trait is as follows: a polygenic trait is controlled by multiple genes and influenced by the environment (option B).
What is a polygenic trait?Polygenic in genetics refers to being controlled by the interaction of more than one gene.
Polygenic trait is a characteristic, such as height or skin color, that is influenced by two or more genes. It can be said that because multiple genes are involved, polygenic traits do not follow the patterns of Mendelian inheritance.
In humans, height, skin color, hair color, and eye color are examples of polygenic traits.
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One of the scientists is shown gathering hair samples from an uncontaminated wolf den. Why would these samples be useful in studying animal life in the exclusion zone?
Answers
As the hair sample contain DNA of the particular organism, this can help in studying animal life in the exclusion zone.
What is exclusion zone?An exclusion zone is a location or activity that people are not permitted to enter or perform, for example, because it would be dangerous.
Hair DNA is genetic material that is used to build our hair. "Our hair follicle contains nucleic acid DNA, while our hair shaft contains mitochondrial DNA."
The hair follicle and the hair shaft are the two parts of hair from which DNA can be extracted and isolated.
Because the hair sample contains genetic information means DNA from the specific organism, it can aid in the study of animal life in the exclusion zone.
Thus, the DNA can give all the genetic information regarding the wolf.
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What is the term given to sand, clay, and decaying organic matter?
Answers
Waste removal in a flatworm is best described by which statement?
A) Flatworms store waste in their bodies until they die.
B) Flatworms have no specialized waste removal system.
C) Flatworms process solid, liquid, and gaseous waste in the same body system.
D) Flatworms have an extensive branched system that removes liquid waste.
Answers
The science of genetics has demonstrated repeatedly:
1. that variation is the result of speciation
or
2. that variation among species is not the result of evolution
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
1.Variation is the result of speciation as species have evolved over time to adapt to enviromental changes
Passive Transport- high concentration to low concentration examples?
Answers
Looking at the drawings below, what 2 organelles does the cell on the right have that the cell on the left does not have?
Answers
Answer:
◻ Nucleus
◻ Mitochondria
explain how their bodies would have responded to the decrease in body temperature by
Answers
It has been discovered that the body contains an internal thermostat that functions quite similarly to the thermostat you could have in your home.
RegulationMessages about body temperature are sent to the hypothalamus from every part of the body. The heating center, a part of the hypothalamus, is activated if the hypothalamus begins to receive excessive signals from the body that it is chilly. We experience cold when the heating center is engaged, and we act in order to stay warm by putting on more clothing, looking for a heat source, or finding refuge. In order to prevent heat loss, the heating center also increases our body hair, constricts the blood vessels at the skin's surface, and can cause shaking, which causes tiny, nearby blood vessels to constrict and produce heat.For more information on body temperature kindly visit to
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