how would the nurse respond to the parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria who ask how long will our child have to be on this diet

Answers

Answer 1

"This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions be continued for life will our child have to be on this diet.the nurse respond to the parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria

Phenylketonuria, generally known as PKU, is a rare genetic illness that results in the body's phenylalanine levels to rise. A mutation in the phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene results in PKU. This gene aids in the production of the enzyme required to degrade phenylalanine. Phenylalanine hydroxylase, or PAH (pronounced fen-l-AL-uh-neen hy-DROK-suh-leys), is an enzyme that aids in the production of PKU. The amino acid phenylalanine must be transformed into other compounds by this enzyme.

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Related Questions

After a signal binds to a signal receptor, the next step is transduction. Why is the signal transduction step necessary?.

Answers

Cells respond to environmental effects through signal transduction, which promotes healthy cell growth and normal cell function.

Why is the signal transduction step necessary?

The reason why after a signal binds to a signal receptor, we need the next step is as follows:

For the purpose of triggering an appropriate cellular response, living creatures have evolved a vast range of intricate procedures to send signals from the outside to the inside. These molecular pathways can develop flaws that result in a variety of ailments, including diabetes, cancer, and psychotic conditions. It is the mechanism by which a cell responds to the stimuli it receives from the environment by diffusion of those signals to its internal compartments. Signal transduction is the process by which a cell translates a given signal or external stimulus into another signal or specific response. First, a particular receptor on the cell's membrane or cytoplasm must be activated by a signaling molecule (also known as a ligand). transduction.Ligand-receptor binding is extremely specific; it can be compared to a lock and key. Second messengers are chemicals that enable intracellular signal amplification after a signal has been received. A ligand's interaction to a receptor may result in the production of hundreds of second messenger molecules, which may then change thousands of effector molecules to cause a variety of reactions. Signal transduction enables cells to perceive, interpret, and react to various environmental signals, enabling them to carry out their usual functions.

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you are on the scene of a home ventilator patient whose ventilator has experienced a mechanical failure. the patient is conscious and you have taken over the function of the ventilator with a bag-valve mask. as an emt, you should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following? question 4 options: a) ventilation rate b) ventilation volume c) ventilation pressure d) all of the above

Answers

The patient's comfort level for all of the above options, including ventilation rate, ventilation volume, and ventilation pressure.

As an EMT, in this scenario, you should verify the patient's comfort level for all of the above options, including ventilation rate, ventilation volume, and ventilation pressure. The function of the ventilator is to help the patient breathe by delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide. The mechanical failure of the home ventilator requires the EMT to take over this function manually using a bag-valve mask. However, it is important to ensure that the patient is comfortable during this process, and monitoring all three aspects of ventilation is crucial for maintaining their comfort level.

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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.

Answers

Answer:

HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).

Explanation:

Smooth muscles are found mainly in the ______
A. Walls of the cardiac muscles
B. Walls of the chest
C. Walls of hollow organs
D. Walls of the lumbar spine

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C>

Explanation:

Don't believe me

Smooth muscle cells are found in the walls of hollow organs, including the stomach, intestines, urinary bladder and uterus, and in the walls of passageways, such as the arteries and veins of the circulatory system, and the tracts of the respiratory, urinary, and reproductive systems.

i hope you get it  right

can i get brainlest please

I believe the answer would be option C

which hep poses the greatest risk to workers because it is more common and more easily transmitted than other bloodborne diseases.

Answers

The workers have the great risk to  Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and hepatitis C virus (HCV) are three of the most common bloodborne pathogens.

What is a Bloodborne Pathogen?

The infectious microorganism which stay a longer period in blood and cause disease in humans are called bloodborne pathogens.

These pathogens are hepatitis B (HBV), hepatitis C (HCV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

The sources of infection include Needlesticks and other sharps-related injuries leads bloodborne pathogens

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) viruses causes infections and liver damage.

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) virus causes HIV/AIDS.

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In which situation would the nurse consider family members as the primary source of information?

Answers

The nurse regards family members as that of the main source of information.

2 The client is an infant or child.

3 The client is brought in as an emergency.

4 The client is critically ill and disoriented.

The correct option are 2,3,4.

What is infant?

An infant is a formal or specialized synonym for the colloquial term baby, which refers to human beings' extremely young progeny. This word can also refer to the juvenile offenders of other organisms.. A newborn is an infant who is only a few hours, days, or up to a month old.

What is critically ill?

Critical illness is a potentially fatal multisystem condition that can cause considerable morbidity or mortality. Most patients have a period of physiological deterioration before developing critical illness; however, data suggests that the early indicators of this are usually missed.

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I understand that the question you are looking for is:

When should the nurse consider family members as the primary source of information? Select all that apply

1 The client is an elderly adult.

2 The client is an infant or child.

3 The client is brought in as an emergency.

4 The client is critically ill and disoriented.

5 The client visits the outpatient department

The Nuclear Medicine section lists body systems by name for character 2. There is one character 2 heading that is not identified with the word systems. These terms are all:

Answers

Answer:

hope this helps

Explanation:

the body systems in which the procedure is preformed.

select the correct answer. larissa gave birth a month ago and feels great. when is the next time she should visit her medical care provider? a. around six weeks after birth b. at her next annual visit c. when she gets sick d. around six months after birth e. when the doctor calls

Answers

After giving birth, it is recommended for women to have a postpartum check-up. The correct answer is a. around six weeks after birth.

This visit allows the healthcare provider to assess the mother's physical and emotional well-being, address any concerns, and provide necessary follow-up care. Therefore the correct answer is a. around six weeks after birth.  After giving birth, it is generally recommended for women to have a postpartum check-up with their medical care provider around six weeks after delivery.

This visit allows the healthcare provider to assess the mother's physical recovery, address any concerns or complications related to childbirth, and provide guidance on postpartum care and family planning. During this visit, the healthcare provider may discuss topics such as postpartum healing, breastfeeding, contraception, emotional well-being, and any other specific concerns the mother may have.

It is an important opportunity to ensure that the mother is healing properly and to address any issues that may have arisen since childbirth. While regular visits to a medical care provider are important for overall health, in the context of postpartum care, the six-week visit is particularly significant in monitoring the mother's well-being after giving birth. The correct answer is a. around six weeks after birth.

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The most prominent reason for the decline in the number of procedures performed in hospitals is:
a. Most of these procedures were shifted to outpatient setting
b. Most of these procedures were deemed outdated
c. Most of these procedures were unsafe
d. Most of these procedures used technology that was too expensive

Answers

The main reason for the decrease in the number of procedures performed in the hospital is that the majority of these procedures have been transferred to outpatient settings.

What is outpatient care called?

Outpatient care is any consultation, procedure, treatment or other medical service provided without an overnight stay in a hospital or medical facility.

What is outpatient setting (services)?

Primary care physicians, community health clinics, urgent care clinics, specialist outpatient clinics, pharmacies, and emergency departments are examples of outpatient settings (services).

What is the main difference between inpatient and outpatient care?

In general, inpatient care requires you to stay in the hospital, while outpatient care does not. The big difference is whether you need to be hospitalized or not.

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A physician assistant orders 0.7 mg of digoxin to be injected in office. If you have 350mcg/mL on hand, how many mL would you inject?

Answers

0.7 mg is 700mcg.
So if you only have 350mcg you’ll only inject 0.35mg.
You wouldn’t have enough for a 0.7 mg dose of digoxin that’s needed.
I don’t think you’ve put the right measurements maybe nanogram not milligrams ??

Sally is 55 years old and just been diagnosed with type2 diabetes. She as a family history of diabetes but she thought she was living healthy. She is 5.7 tall and 195 pounds weight. What concerns should she have moving forward? What aspect of lifestyle are going to need to change immediately and long-term
Planning change
Stages change
Risk factors for disease
Lifestyle changes
Rationale for choice making

Answers

Answer:

Sally's diagnosis of type 2 diabetes puts her at risk for several complications, such as heart disease, nerve damage, kidney damage, and eye damage. She should be concerned about managing her blood sugar levels to avoid these complications. In the short-term, Sally will need to change her diet and exercise habits to manage her blood sugar levels. Long-term, she will need to maintain a healthy lifestyle and monitor her blood sugar levels regularly.

Explanation:

Lifestyle changes refer to the modifications a person makes to their diet, exercise, and other habits to improve their health. Sally will need to make changes to her lifestyle to manage her diabetes, such as reducing her intake of sugar and refined carbohydrates, increasing her consumption of fruits and vegetables, and engaging in regular physical activity.

Studies abbreviations used in text message to identify the author:
forensic linguist
forensic animator
forensic videographer
forensic artist

Answers

Answer:

forensic linguist

Explanation:

From the available options provided the only individual position that does this would be a forensic linguist. The responsibilities of this position include analyzing language on text or recorded documents. They do this in order to understand and uncover different details within the document that may help law enforcement solve a crime. This also involves studying abbreviations used in text messages to identify the author, what the abbreviation means, in what context it is being used, hidden meanings, etc. All of which can be highly valuable in a criminal case.

You are missing a layer of the epidermis on your palms and soles of your feet. However, you do have a clear layer called the _________________.

Answers

I believe it’s stratum lucidum. Correct me if I’m wrong.

Which is the largest among the followings?

Answers

Answer:

ITS PROBABLY A NUCLEOTIDE

Explanation:

BRAINLEST ME?

Those suffering from celiac disease suffer an immune reaction when they eat?

Answers

Those suffering from celiac disease experience an immune reaction when they eat gluten-containing foods.

Celiac disease is basically an autoimmune disorder which happens to get triggered by the consumption of gluten which is a protein that is found in wheat, rye as well as barley. In individuals with celiac disease, the immune system mistakenly recognizes gluten as harmful and launches an immune response. This immune reaction damages the lining of the small intestine, specifically the villi, which are responsible for absorbing nutrients from food.

As a result, individuals with celiac disease may experience various symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, bloating, fatigue, and nutrient deficiencies. The only effective treatment for celiac disease is a strict gluten-free diet, which helps manage symptoms and prevent further damage to the intestine.

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what is the purpose of the explanation of Benefits?

Answers

What explanation of benefits is is that

Which abbreviation is related to inflammation of multiple joints that results in crippling deformities

Answers

Answer:

RA (Rheumatoid arthritis)

Explanation:

What nutrient provides the body with more stored energy than carbohydrates?

A.Protein
B.Lipids
C. Simple sugar
D.Cholesterol

Answers

The correct answer is lipids
The correct answer is lipids

What is amino acid? how many amino acid are there? their structure, classification and importance?​

Answers

Amino acids are organic compounds that serve as the building blocks of proteins. They are composed of an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a side chain (also known as an R group) attached to a central carbon atom called the alpha carbon (α-carbon).

The side chain varies among different amino acids, giving each amino acid its unique properties.

There are 20 commonly occurring amino acids that are used to build proteins in living organisms. These amino acids differ based on their side chain, which can be categorized into different groups: nonpolar, polar, acidic, basic, or special cases.

Nonpolar amino acids: These have hydrophobic side chains and tend to be buried inside the protein core away from water.

Polar amino acids: These have hydrophilic side chains that can form hydrogen bonds with water or other polar molecules.

Acidic amino acids: These have side chains with a negative charge at physiological pH.

Basic amino acids: These have side chains with a positive charge at physiological pH.

Special cases: These include amino acids with unique properties, such as cysteine, which can form disulfide bonds.

Amino acids are essential for various biological processes. They are involved in protein synthesis, where they are linked together through peptide bonds to form polypeptide chains.

Proteins are crucial for the structure, function, and regulation of cells and tissues. Amino acids also play important roles in enzymatic catalysis, signal transduction, neurotransmission, and the immune system.

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Theory theory refers to the ability to think about other people's thoughts.
True
False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Mark me the brainliest and rate me please

Make them brainliest!!! Spreading early Christmas cheer and a happy Halloween!!!

Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?

Answers

The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest

The correct answer choice is option a.

Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedure

From the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.

So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.

Complete question:

Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?

a. Bed rest

b. Chewing exercises

c. Taking an antibiotic

d. Clear liquid diet.

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30. What is ossification

Answers

Answer:

Bone formation, generally referring to soft tissues becoming calcified and hardened.

Explanation:

Intramembranous ossification is the process of bone development from fibrous membranes. It is involved in the formation of the flat bones of the skull, the mandible, and the clavicles. Ossification begins as mesenchymal cells form a template of the future bone.

brainliest?

it is formation of bone or of a bony substance

comparing attitudes between baby boomers, generation x, and millennials about same-sex marriages exemplifies __________ influences.

Answers

Comparing attitudes between baby boomers, Generation X, and millennials about same-sex marriages exemplifies generational influences.

Generational influences refer to the impact of the historical, social, and cultural context in which individuals are born and raised. Each generation tends to have unique experiences, values, and perspectives that shape their attitudes and beliefs. As societal attitudes towards same-sex marriages have evolved over time, studying the differences in attitudes between baby boomers (born roughly between 1946 and 1964).

Generation X (born roughly between 1965 and 1980), and millennials (born roughly between 1981 and 1996) can highlight how generational factors have influenced opinions on this issue.

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Question 7 of 20 :
Select the best answer for the question.
7. Which one of the following statements is true of major complicating conditions (MCCs)?
O A. They often change the reimbursement for DRGs.
OB. They never change the reimbursement for DRGs.
O C. They decrease the reimbursement for DRGs.
D. They maximize the reimbursement for DRGs.
Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
<< Previous Question
Next Question >>

Answers

I think the answer it A. They often change the requirement for DRGS

Acupuncture is an example of
A.
an accepted medical treatment
B.
a substitute medical treatment
C.
alternative medical treatment
D.
a traditional medical treatment

Answers

Acupuncture is classified as an alternative medical treatment (Option C).

Acupuncture is a therapeutic technique originating from traditional Chinese medicine. It involves the insertion of thin needles into specific points on the body to stimulate and balance the flow of energy or "qi." While acupuncture is not considered a mainstream or conventional medical treatment in many Western countries, it is recognized as an alternative medical treatment. Alternative medicine refers to practices that are used in place of or alongside conventional medical treatments. Acupuncture is often sought out by individuals seeking alternative approaches to managing pain, promoting relaxation, and addressing various health conditions.

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Absolute contraindications to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) include:
congestive heart failure
pregnancy
myocardial infarction 5 months prior to therapy
increased intracranial pressure

Answers

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a medical treatment used to treat severe mental health conditions. However, there are certain situations where ECT may not be appropriate due to the risk of complications or negative outcomes. These are called contraindications.

Absolute contraindications to ECT include congestive heart failure, pregnancy, myocardial infarction within the last five months prior to therapy, and increased intracranial pressure. These conditions can put the patient at risk for serious complications during or after ECT.

It is important to note that ECT is a complex medical procedure and should only be performed by trained medical professionals who can assess a patient's individual risks and benefits. If you have any concerns about ECT or your eligibility for the treatment, it is important to discuss this with your healthcare provider.

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A clinical trial is conducted for a new drug to test its efficacy in lowering blood pressure in patients suffering from hypertension. The control subjects receive a marketed drug. The investigators specify the endpoint as the percentage reduction in diastolic blood pressure (the pressure in the blood vessels while the heart is relaxing). Denote by μ tr

and μ c

the true mean percentage reduction in blood pressure for the treatment group and the control group, respectively. The 12 Chapter 2 Implementation of Statistics in Clinical Trials researchers agree that the following quantities are to be used for the sample size computation: - The hypotheses of interest are H 0

:μ tr

=μ c

and H 1

:μ tr

>μ c

. The one-sided alternative is taken because researchers are confident that the tested drug cannot do worse than the marketed one. - The probability of type I error α=maxP (reject H 0

∣H 0

is true) is set at 0.05. - The minimum detectable difference δ=μ tr

−μ c

is considered to be 5%; that is, δ=5. - The probability of type II error β=P( accept H 0

∣H 1

:μ tr

−μ c

=δ holds ) is fixed at 0.25. - The probability of type II error β=P( accept H 0

∣H 1

:μ tr

−μ c

=δ holds) is fixed at 0.25. - The data obtained at the Phase II trial suggest that the underlying distribution is approximately normal with a standard deviation of σ=15. - The two-sample z-test is used with an equal number n of subjects in each group. The objective in this example is to find the value of n, the required group size in the clinical trial. Denote by x
ˉ
tr

and x
ˉ
c

the unknown mean values of the endpoint that will be observed in the Phase III trial in the treatment group and the control group, respectively. The two groups are assumed to be independent. Under H 0

, the test statistic Z= σ 2/n

x
ˉ
tr

− x
ˉ
c


∼N(0,1) The acceptance region-the region in which H 0

is accepted-is of the form {Z ​
x
ˉ
tr

− x
ˉ
c


ˉ
tr

− x
ˉ
c


} for some positive real constant k. If a specific alternative H 1

:μ tr

−μ c

=δ holds, then x
ˉ
tr

− x
ˉ
c

∼N(δ,2σ 2
/n) The probabilities of type I and II errors define two equations for n and k : 1−α=P(Z ​
=P( x
ˉ
tr

− x
ˉ
c


∣ x
ˉ
tr

− x
ˉ
c

∼N(δ,2σ 2
/n))
=Φ(k− σ 2/n

δ

)

where Φ denotes the cumulative distribution function of a N(0,1) random variable. It can be shown (see Exercise 2.1) that from Equations 2.1 and 2.2, n=2(σ/δ) 2
(Φ −1
(1−α)−Φ −1
(β)) 2
In reality, n is taken as the smallest integer exceeding this value, which results in probability of type II error being slightly smaller than the specified value. In this example, plugging into Equation 2.3 the values α=0.05,β=0.25, σ=15, and δ=5, results in a sample size of n≥96.83; that is, n=97 per group is needed. The actual probability of type II error corresponding to this sample size is 0.249.

Answers

A clinical trial is carried out to check the efficacy of a new drug in reducing the blood pressure in hypertensive patients. The control group is given a marketed drug. The percentage reduction in the diastolic blood pressure is considered as the endpoint in the study. The true mean percentage reduction in blood pressure for the treatment group and the control group are μtr and μc, respectively.

The hypotheses of interest are H0: μtr = μc and H1: μtr > μc. Researchers are confident that the tested drug cannot do worse than the marketed one, so the one-sided alternative is taken. Probability of Type I error α = max P(reject H0 | H0 is true) is 0.05.

The minimum detectable difference δ = μtr − μc is 5%. Probability of Type II error β = P(accept H0 | H1: μtr − μc = δ holds) is fixed at 0.25. The data from Phase II trials suggest that the underlying distribution is approximately normal with a standard deviation of σ = 15.

The two-sample z-test is used with an equal number of n subjects in each group. The objective is to find the value of n, the required group size in the clinical trial. Denote xtr and xc the unknown mean values of the endpoint that will be observed in the Phase III trial in the treatment group and the control group, respectively. The two groups are assumed to be independent.

Under H0, the test statistic Z = σ2/n(xtr − xc) ∼ N(0, 1). The acceptance region, where H0 is accepted is {Z < k} for some positive real constant k. If a specific alternative H1: μtr − μc = δ holds, then xtr − xc ∼ N(δ, 2σ2/n).

The probabilities of type I and II errors define two equations for n and k:

1-α = P(Z < k - σ2/n δ) where Φ denotes the cumulative distribution function of a N(0,1) random variable.

n = 2(σ/δ)2(Φ-1(1-α)-Φ-1(β))2

In this example, plugging into Equation 2.3 the values α = 0.05, β = 0.25, σ = 15, and δ = 5, results in a sample size of n ≥ 96.83. The smallest integer exceeding this value, n = 97 per group is needed. The actual probability of type II error corresponding to this sample size is 0.249. Therefore, a sample size of at least 97 subjects in each group is needed in the clinical trial.

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a disorder in which a person repeatedly eats too much food at one time is called:

Answers

Binge Eating Disorder is a mental health condition involving recurrent episodes of excessive food intake, loss of control, and emotional distress. Addressing this disorder requires a multifaceted approach, including professional help and support from loved ones.

A disorder in which a person repeatedly eats too much food at one time is called Binge Eating Disorder (BED). BED is a serious mental health condition characterized by recurrent episodes of excessive food consumption, accompanied by feelings of loss of control and, often, guilt or shame.

During a binge episode, an individual consumes large amounts of food in a short period, typically eating even when not physically hungry. Binge eaters often eat more quickly than usual, consume food until uncomfortably full, and may eat alone due to embarrassment about their behavior.

Binge Eating Disorder differs from other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa in that there are no compensatory behaviors, such as purging or excessive exercise, to counteract the overeating. As a result, people with BED may struggle with weight gain and obesity-related health issues.

It is crucial to understand that BED is not simply a lack of willpower or self-control. It is a complex psychological condition often rooted in various factors, including genetics, environment, and emotional well-being. Treatment options for BED may include therapy, medication, and nutrition counseling to address both the psychological and physical aspects of the disorder.

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The ……. refers to the two orbs
that sit on top of the
midbrain.
A. cerebellum
B. motor cortex
C. thalamus

The . refers to the two orbsthat sit on top of themidbrain.A. cerebellumB. motor cortexC. thalamus

Answers

The answer is:
A. Cerebellum

The cerebellum refers to the two orbs that sit on top of the midbrain.

What is the roof of the midbrain called?

Anatomically, the tectum is that portion of the mesencephalon, or midbrain, sitting between the hindbrain and the forebrain.

What parts of the brain are in the midbrain?

There are three parts to the midbrain the colliculi, the tegmentum, and the cerebral peduncles.

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What features of EHRs are important to training specialists

Answers

Training specialists need to be well aware of the wide variety of information stored in electronic health records. For everyday practice, one needs to know how and when to pull up such documents such as patient demographics, medical diagnoses, and treatments. Knowing where different providers' orders are stored is also crucial, for knowing when a specific order will take effect. There's a lot more that goes into learning what an EHR does than just understanding its features - there's a whole science behind how these systems work.

Although the extent to which EHRs are beneficial for training specialists is still debated, it is known that they can help to minimize errors in clinical documentation and improve efficiency. This has been shown across multiple studies - some children hospitals have seen reduced medication discrepancies after implementing electronic health records. The completion of tasks, including filling laboratory orders and checking labs, also improved significantly when using modern technology during patient care rounds at a large research hospital in New York. At the same time, some experts argue that process-driven activities through these systems could reduce face-to-face interactions between doctors on team shifts with each other's patients on observation status, leading to

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