How To Start A New Life?

How To Start A New Life?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

have you finished one piece?


Related Questions

What is one of the moves in the Salt Shaker dance? (write a response below)

Response =

ps this is for gym.

Answers

throwing your hands in the air

Which disease is caused by a buildup of plaque in blood vessels? celiac disease type 2 diabetes sickle cell disease cardiovascular disease

Answers

Blood vessels are part of the circulatory system and transport the blood in the body. Plaque deposition in the blood vessels will cause cardiovascular disease. Thus, option D is correct.

What is cardiovascular disease?

Cardiovascular diseases are disorders that affect the heart and the other components of the circulatory system. Plaque deposition is one of the main causes of Coronary artery disease.

Plaque deposition in the vessels or the walls of arteries blocks the flow of blood to the heart and causes disorders or heart attacks. Plaques are usually made of cholesterol that narrows the vessels.

Therefore, plaque deposition in blood vessels causes cardiovascular disease.

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Answer:

D

Explanation:

edge 2022

Stress is the body's automatic physical reaction to real or imagined forces.truefalse

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Stress is the body's automatic physical reaction to real or imagined forces.

How drugs and alcohol can affect the body and make you unable to participate in sports and fitness-related activities.

Answers

Using drugs in sport undermines values like fair play and teamwork. When sportspeople use drugs, they not only might damage their own health, they also give sport a bad reputation and set a poor example to others.

Alcohol reduces your body's ability to convert food to energy. It also reduces carbohydrates and blood sugar levels. These and lactic acid build-up and dehydration, combine to reduce aerobic performance.



hope this helps:)

Ccording to bruch's theory of eating disorders, disturbed mother–child interactions lead the child to _____ and severe _____; together these lead to disordered eating.

Answers

Disturbed mother-child interactions lead the child to helplessness and severe anxiety, which together contribute to disordered eating, according to Bruch's theory of eating disorders.

Bruch's theory emphasizes the role of interpersonal dynamics and psychological factors in the development of eating disorders.

Disturbed mother-child interactions refer to situations where there is a lack of attunement, emotional availability, and appropriate responsiveness between the mother and child.

This can include inconsistent or overly controlling parenting styles, poor communication, or emotional neglect.

These disturbed interactions can lead the child to experience a sense of helplessness, feeling overwhelmed by their emotions, and a lack of control over their environment.

Additionally, the child may develop severe anxiety due to the constant tension and uncertainty in their relationship with their mother.

As a coping mechanism, the child may turn to disordered eating behaviors as a way to regain a sense of control and manage their emotional distress. This can manifest as restrictive eating, binge eating, or other forms of unhealthy food-related behaviors.

In summary, according to Bruch's theory, disturbed mother-child interactions contribute to a child's feelings of helplessness and severe anxiety, which in turn increase the likelihood of developing disordered eating patterns.

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how you feel at different stages of menstrual cycle

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You feel change of mood, sore or tender breasts, bloating etc.

Please help for number 1 thanks

Please help for number 1 thanks

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you need to show the chart from 2012 and 2022

Question 1(Multiple Choice Worth 3 points)
(06.01 MC)
Richard's doctor says that he has become obese. What health risks is Richard now facing?
Early signs of cardiovascular disease and sleep apnea
Unease getting around and breathing difficulties
Insulin resistance and low blood pressure
Bone thickening and respiratory problems

Answers

Answer:

early signs of cardiovascular disease and sleep apnea

Explanation:

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following conditions is an indication for fetal assessment using electronic fetal monitoring?
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Leukorrhea
D. Periodic tingling of the fingers

Answers

The conditions is an indication for fetal assessment using electronic fetal monitoring is  oligohydramnios.

Among the listed condition, the only condition that requires the use of electronic fetal monitoring to diagnose the abnormal condition, is the above-mentioned condition. Whereas other condition listed in the option not really requires the use of these device, hence the above-mentioned condition is the appropriate answer for the given question.

Oligohydramnios is a pregnancy condition in which there is less amniotic fluid than would be normal for the gestational age of the baby. A water-like substance called amniotic fluid envelops your unborn child in your uterus. It cushions your baby's motions while they are in the womb and guards against infection and umbilical cord compression. Additionally, amniotic fluid maintains your baby's temperature and aids in the development of their respiratory and digestive systems.

Your baby may experience health issues if there is insufficient amniotic fluid, which may also indicate an underlying ailment. These problems can impair your baby's growth or make labor and delivery more difficult.

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The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to produce __________ of copies in a few hours.
A. hundreds
B. thousands
C. millions
D. billions

Answers

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a powerful tool used in molecular biology to amplify a specific DNA sequence, resulting in millions or billions of copies of the target DNA sequence. PCR is a highly sensitive and efficient technique that can detect very low levels of DNA in a sample.

PCR involves several steps, including denaturation, annealing, and extension. In the denaturation step, the double-stranded DNA template is heated to separate the two strands. In the annealing step, short DNA primers complementary to the ends of the target sequence are added, allowing the primers to bind to the single-stranded template. In the extension step, a DNA polymerase enzyme adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the primers, synthesizing new DNA strands complementary to the template.

The amplification of the target DNA sequence occurs through multiple cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension, with each cycle doubling the number of DNA copies. As a result, PCR can produce millions or billions of copies of the target sequence in just a few hours.

PCR has numerous applications in research, clinical diagnostics, and forensic analysis. It is used to detect infectious agents, identify genetic mutations, and study gene expression. PCR is also used in paternity testing and criminal investigations, where it can be used to amplify DNA from small or degraded samples.
Hi! The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a powerful molecular biology technique that can be used to produce billions of copies of a specific DNA sequence in just a few hours. By employing repeated cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension, PCR amplifies the target DNA exponentially, generating large quantities of the desired fragment. This process is highly useful in various applications, such as genetic testing, forensics, and disease diagnostics.

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Which physiological demands are highly emphasized in baseball?
(Select all that apply.)

Which physiological demands are highly emphasized in baseball?(Select all that apply.)

Answers

Answer:

Reaction time

Aerobic endurance or muscular endurance

Answer:

The physical demands of baseball are very specific to the sport. Baseball requires repetitive high intensity explosive movements, with time for full-recovery between plays, and all this spread out over nine innings

Which is an example of an emotional cost of violence on society as a whole?
possible criminal record
tendency to replay the event over and over
billions of dollars in healthcare costs
day-to-day fears and suspicions

Answers

Day-to-day fears and suspicions is an example of an emotional cost of violence on society as a whole.

What is an emotional cost of violence on society?

The emotional cost of violence on society refers to the negative impact that violence has on the emotional well-being of individuals and communities. This can include feelings of fear, anxiety, and mistrust, which can lead to long-term mental health problems such as post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), depression, and anxiety. Exposure to violence can also lead to feelings of hopelessness, anger, and helplessness, which can contribute to a breakdown of social cohesion and a loss of trust in the community.

The emotional cost of violence can be felt by victims, witnesses, and even those who are only indirectly exposed to violence through the media. This emotional toll can have far-reaching effects on individuals and communities, including decreased quality of life, reduced productivity, and increased healthcare costs.

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Help with answering this?

case study scenarios 1. decontamination principles: dr. frankie is a prestigious neurosurgeon at glory medical center. during the last week, the surgical technician in the operating room has noticed that dirty instruments have made it into the or. the technician finally decides to consult with the supervisor because the incident has now occurred three days in a row. what issue has occurred, and what may be the cause of this/these errors? what might the sterile processing department have to do to resolve this issue? explain the decontamination process. what extra efforts can be made to ensure that clean instruments are delivered to the surgical suite?

Answers

Instruments with microbial contamination are a potential source of many diseases.

What are the decontamination principles?

The three decontamination levels are:

1. Cleanup -- Cleaning initially entails removing the contaminant and any other undesirable materials from floors, walls, doors, and windows with the help of straightforward cleaning supplies, detergents, and, occasionally, soap and water.

2. Sanitation -- Disinfection, a more advanced stage, is the use of chemicals or heat on specific items to eliminate germs from surfaces and objects to lower the risk of infection. Disinfection decreases the presence of microorganisms to stop the spread of dangerous bugs and diseases, even if it cannot be relied upon to completely eradicate all of them.

3. Sanitation -- Sterilization can be accomplished in a number of ways, including through irradiation, moist heat, dry heat, or the use of chemicals. It removes any lingering bacterial spores, germs, and viruses. Sterilization, which is frequently employed in a medical setting, is largely used on decontamination equipment since it eliminates all traces, preventing the undesired compounds from being transported elsewhere.

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At least how cold should you keep whipped cream during holding?
a. 31°F (-1°C)
b. 41°F (5°C)
c. 51°F (11°C)
d. 61°F (16°C)

Answers

Answer: The temperature you should whipped cream during holding is 31°F (-1°C). That is option A.

Explanation:

The temperature you should whipped cream during holding is 31°F (-1°C). That is option A.

What is temperature?

Temperature is the measure of how hot or cold a surface is expressed and it is measured in either Fahrenheit or degree centigrade.

The whipped cream is a mixture of fat and milk which when combined is expected to be stored in a temperature of 31°F or below to hold.

Therefore, the temperature you should whipped cream during holding is 31°F (-1°C).

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The complete question is:

At least how cold should you keep whipped cream during holding?

a. 31°F (-1°C)

b. 41°F (5°C)

c. 51°F (11°C)

d. 61°F (16°C)

Elizabeth wants to choose her day’s menu from cereal, cheeseburgers, and french fries. However she must choose so that she gets at least 210 grams of carbohydrates, 20 grams of dietary fiber, and 80% of minimum daily requirements of vitamin A. The foods contain the following:How many units of each food should she use in order to meet the restrictions and minimize calories?

Answers

She should order 5 units of cereals, 0 units of cheeseburger, 1 unit of fries.

Finite Mathematics is a calculus-free college and university mathematics curriculum in mathematics education. For Finite Mathematics, a precalculus course can be required.

The course covers a wide range of topics that are frequently used in business and social research, including mathematical models, matrix multiplication, Markov processes, finite graphs, and finite probability spaces.

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Which statement is true in infant CPR?*
•Infants never need CPR
•Infants only need CPR but no breaths
•Use on two fingers (index, middle) when giving an infant CPR
•Infants do not need an AED in CPR

Answers

Answer:

"Infants do not need an AED in CPR"

Explanation:

It’s the third option, since infants are so small, you’ve got to use only two fingers and be more gentle.

After teaching a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery using moderate sedation, the nurse determines that the patient has understood the teaching based on which of the following statements

Answers

The nurse determines that the patient has understood the teaching based on "I'll be sleepy but able to respond to your questions." statement.

An operation/procedure in which the patient is dismissed on the same working day, as opposed to an office/surgery or outpatient operation/procedure. A patient who is admitted and dismissed on the same working day after undergoing an operation or procedure, excluding an office / surgery or outpatient operation/treatment. A sedation degree at which a person is sleeping yet awakens when talked to or touched. Special medications provide moderate drowsiness, which is used to assist ease anxiety during some medical or surgical operations.

With mild sedation, the patient can keep a patent airway (that is, he or she does not require a tube to breathe), preserve protective airway reflexes, and respond to verbal and tactile cues. With mild sedation, the patient is not unconscious. Local anaesthesia includes anaesthetizing or numbing the surgical site.

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Plz plz plz can you Guys help me I have to ask my mentor a 15 Questions abut nursing but i can not research online plz plz I don't have enough time 

Answers

Answer:

I have a few

Explanation:

I

“Why did you decide on a career as a nurse?”

“What do you find rewarding about this job?”

How you deal with someone who isn't satisfied with your patient care?

“What you feel your greatest skill as a nurse is.”  

“How do you handle the stress of the job?

Please answer it for me!!!
I need this by tomorrow

Please answer it for me!!! I need this by tomorrow

Answers

Metal

Appearance: Shiny

Ductility : Ductile

Malleability : Malleable

Electricity conductivity : Good

Heat conductivity : Good

Melting point : High

Non metal

Appearance: Dull

Ductility : Non ductile

Malleability : Brittle

Electricity conductivity : Poor

Heat conductivity : Poor

Melting point : Low

which of the following is always an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

Answers

Option C is the correct answer : GABA. Most people consider some neurotransmitters to be "excitatory, "increasing the likelihood that a target neuron will fire an action potential. Most people view others as "inhibitory, "reducing the likelihood that a target neuron would fire an action potential. For instance, the central nervous system's primary excitatory transmitter is glutamate.

In the brain of an adult vertebrate, GABA serves as the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter.

The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord is glycine.

However, we can't properly categorize neurotransmitters into "excitatory" and "inhibitory" categories in a straightforward manner. Instead, depending on the situation, a neurotransmitter may occasionally have either an excitatory or an inhibitory impact.

How is that possible? It turns out that each neurotransmitter has a variety of receptors. In contrast, a single neurotransmitter typically has the ability to bind to and activate numerous distinct receptor proteins. The presence of a certain neurotransmitter's receptor(s) on the postsynaptic (target) cell determines whether its impact is excitatory or inhibitory at specific synapses.

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Which of the following neurotransmitters is always inhibitory?

A. Acetylcholine

B. Dopamine

C. GABA

D. Norepinephrine

Which action should anyone take before beginning an exercise program?


drink a sports drink


consult a doctor


eat a sports-nutrition bar


purchase expensive equipment

Answers

Answer:

consult a doctor

Explanation:

become if you have health issues it's best to check with your doctor to see if you are able to participate in the program.

The answer is B. Consult a Doctor

why does a child of less than three years old often experiace negative emotions

Answers

Answer: That is around the time a child (3 years of age) starts to understand emotions

and can tell the difference between mad and angry and happy and sad. So therefore when they are less than 3 and still in the ‘baby stage’ of growth they feel a lot of negative emotions

Children under three years old often experience negative emotions due to various developmental factors.

Firstly, their language skills and ability to express themselves verbally are still developing, leading to frustration and difficulty in communicating their needs and emotions effectively.

Secondly, young children are learning to navigate and understand the world around them, and encountering new experiences or challenges can evoke fear, confusion, or discomfort.

Additionally, toddlers are also beginning to assert their independence but may face limitations, leading to feelings of anger or defiance. Overall, these factors contribute to a range of negative emotions as part of their normal emotional development.

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PLEASEEE HELPP ME ASAPPP SOMEONEEEE!!!!!!
choose a career of the area of physical fitness, sports medicine, or athletics. In a 5-paragraph typed essay. describe the educational requirements, responsibilities, employment opportunities, pay, and working conditions related to this career. Include a bibliography.

Answers

Answer:

sports medicne

Explanation:

Athletic trainers work with people of all ages and all skill levels, from young children to soldiers and professional athletes. Athletic trainers are usually one of the first healthcare providers on the scene when injuries occur on the field. They work under the direction of a licensed physician and with other healthcare providers, often discussing specific injuries and treatment options or evaluating and treating patients, as directed by a physician. Some athletic trainers meet with a team physician or consulting physician regularly.

An athletic trainer’s administrative responsibilities may include regular meetings with an athletic director or another administrative officer to deal with budgets, purchasing, policy implementation, and other business-related issues. Athletic trainers plan athletic programs that are compliant with federal and state regulations; for example, they may ensure a football program adheres to laws related to athlete concussions.

How did the public’s perception towards vaccination during the polio epidemic differ from now? Why?

Answers

Answer:

A current misconception is the belief that the polio is a 'disappeared disease'

Explanation:

Poliomyelitis (polio) is an infectious disease produced by a poliovirus. The polio is known to affect children under 5 years old and this infection can be spread among persons by fecal and oral routes.  Many people in developed countries erroneously believe that polio is a globally eradicated disease, thereby it is not necessary to apply the vaccine in children. However, poliomyelitis is not eradicated in the world, thus being imperative to vaccinate the children in order to prevent the introduction (and consequent re-infection) of this disease in developed countries.

Read the scenario and answer the question.
Mehir is new to resistance training. He wants a fast workout that will also build cardio endurance. He is not interested in building large muscles quickly, but he would like to slowly build muscle.
What training methods would meet these goals?
Select all that apply.

Answers

Answer:

The following training methods would meet Mehir's goals of a fast workout that builds cardio endurance and slowly builds muscle without quickly increasing muscle size:

Circuit training: This involves doing a series of exercises with little rest in between, which can help improve cardiovascular fitness while also building some muscle.High-intensity interval training (HIIT): This involves short bursts of intense exercise followed by periods of rest, and has been shown to improve both cardiovascular fitness and muscle strength.Bodyweight training: This involves using your own body weight as resistance, which can help build muscle gradually without the need for heavy weights or equipment.Plyometric training: This involves explosive movements like jumping, which can help improve power and speed while also building some muscle.

Therefore, the training methods that would meet Mehir's goals are circuit training, high-intensity interval training (HIIT), bodyweight training, and plyometric training.

Answer:

Circuit training and supersets

Explanation:

He needs to build cardio endurance but he still needs rest between sets and a quick workout

what is a cell bc idk​

Answers

Answer:

Cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of life.

All cells whether animal or plant, prokaryotic or eukaryotic they have common features and these are.

Plasma membrane or cell membrane:

a selective permeable membrane.

Cytoplasm:

A jelly like structure in which sub cellular structures are found.

Ribosome:

A sub cellular structure that is involved in protein synthesis.

DNA:

Deoxyribonucleic acid which contains hereditary material that is passed from parents to the offspring.

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Bereavement typically involves four phases.Which of the following is NOT one of the four phases?A) numbness and shockB) depressionC) separationD) reorganization

Answers

The phase that is NOT typically a part of the four phases of bereavement is separation.

The four phases of bereavement are numbness and shock, depression, bargaining, and reorganization. Separation is not a commonly recognized phase in the process of grief.
The term that is NOT one of the four phases of bereavement is C) separation. The four phases of bereavement typically include A) numbness and shock, which occurs immediately following the loss and may involve disbelief or denial; B) depression, which involves feelings of sadness, despair, and helplessness; and D) reorganization, which involves gradually adjusting to life without the lost loved one and finding ways to move forward. Separation, although related to feelings of loss, is not a distinct phase in the bereavement process.

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which of the following is not associated with a percent daily value on a food label A protein B calories C total fat D cholesterol ​

Answers

A protein percentage daily value on such a food label is related to the following. For the human body, proteins are crucial nutrients. They can act as a source of fuel in addition to being one of the basic components of biological tissue.

What daily protein intake should I aim for?

An average inactive adult should consume 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of weight to prevent deficiencies. For instance, 60 grams of proteins per day are recommended for a person that weighs 165 pounds, and 75 kilograms.

What happens when your protein intake increases?

PYY, a gastrointestinal hormone that gives you a full and content feeling, is produced more frequently when protein is consumed ( 2 ). In addition, eating a lot of protein raises your metabolism after meals and while you sleep while lowering ghrelin levels, sometimes known as the "hunger hormone" ( 3 , 4 ).

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Which statement about genital herpes is true?

a. Antibiotics can be used to cure genital herpes.
b. Genital herpes is only passed on when blisters are present
c. Genital herpes is causedoy bacteria.
d. Some people with genital herpes show no symptoms

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

People with genital herpes sometimes take years for any symptom to develop.

considered highly volatile microbe because of its ease of transmission and high fatality rate

Answers

The lung disease that is a highly volatile microbe because of its ease of transmission and high fatality rate is anthrax.

Anthrax is an infectious disease which is basically caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis which forms spores. It primarily affects livestock but can also infect humans through contact with infected animals or their products. The three main forms of anthrax in humans are cutaneous, which is the skin, gastrointestinal, and inhalation (lungs).

Cutaneous anthrax is the most common and least severe form, characterized by skin lesions. Gastrointestinal anthrax occurs through consuming contaminated meat and can cause severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Inhalation anthrax or the lung anthrax, the rarest and most severe form, occurs by inhaling spores and can lead to respiratory distress and systemic illness. Prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment with antibiotics are crucial for managing anthrax infections.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"The lung disease that is a highly volatile microbe because of its ease of transmission and high fatality rate is _____"--

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