Answer:
Smoking will cause many health problems, such as;
Cancer
Heart disease
Stroke
Lung diseases
COPD
Smoking also increases the risk for tuberculosis, certain eye diseases, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Smoking will cause lung disease because it damages your airways and the air sacs found in your lungs. Cigarette smoking causes most cases of lung cancer.
Smoking harms pretty much every organ in the body, like the heart, blood vessels, lungs, eyes, mouth, bones, bladder, and digestive organs.
Explanation:
What does spleen do?
Answer:
one of the spleen's major jobs is filter the blood.
Explanation:
One of the spleen’s main jobs is to filter your blood. It affects the number of red blood cells that carry oxygen throughout your body, and the number of platelets, which are cells that help your blood to clot. It does this by breaking down and removing cells that are abnormal, old, or damaged.
The spleen also stores red blood cells, platelets, and infection-fighting white blood cells.
The spleen plays an important role in your immune system response. When it detects bacteria, viruses, or other germs in your blood, it produces white blood cells, called lymphocytes, to fight off these infections.
1. Compare the practice of medicine in the ancient river civilizations, including ancient Africa. 5 marks
The ancient river civilizations practiced medicine based on spiritual beliefs, natural remedies, and surgery for emergencies. Ancient Africa used herbal medicine and circumcision as a rite of passage.
The practice of medicine in the ancient river civilizations was a combination of spiritual beliefs, natural remedies, and surgical procedures. In Mesopotamia, the oldest recorded medical documents, the Diagnostic Handbook, were created in 2600 BCE. In Ancient Egypt, medical practice was highly advanced, as evidenced by mummification techniques. Doctors were known as swnw and were highly respected, able to perform various surgeries, from amputations to brain surgeries.
Ancient African medicine was primarily based on herbal remedies. One of the most famous remedies, aspirin, was discovered by ancient Africans and used for pain relief. Circumcision was a rite of passage and also performed for medical reasons such as preventing the spread of sexually transmitted diseases. In conclusion, ancient civilizations in Africa and Mesopotamia had their unique medical practices, but their common goal was to prevent and treat ailments through their respective methods.
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6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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1. Explain why you think the office would have a "no cell phones" policy for employees
D
Answer:
hipaa violations
Explanation:
The office would have no cell phones policy for employees to increase the concentration during the working hours and increase the productivity of work.
What is no cell phone policy?No cell phone policy is the policy in which the use of cell phone is strictly prohibited and it is implemented in offices or working place to increase the productivity and concentration in workings hours.
Excessive use of cell phone at work can reduce the quality of work because while using phone brain stops to generate the good ideas and limit yourself.
During working hours mobile devices are could to be in the desk and advised not to keep the mobile phone in hand or nearby working table.
Cell phone policies is a set of guidelines regarding use of cellphone in the workplace. The employees of that workplace should be read cell phone policies before joining.
Several countries banned cell phone on working place to avoid distraction during work. It helps to maintain the productivity and total working are utilized properly in order to achieve the target.
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What makes opioids, or other drugs, so difficult to stop abusing once you are addicted?
Answer:
Opioids trigger the release of endorphins which muffles your perception of pain and boost feelings of pleasure, creating a temporary but powerful sense of well-being. When the dose wears off, you will often yourself wanting those good feelings back, as soon as possible.
Explanation:
A mother brought her four-year-old daughter to the doctor, complaining that her daughter didn't "look right." The child's forehead was enlarged, her rib cage was knobby, and her lower limbs were bent and deformed. X-rays revealed very thick epiphyseal plates. The mother was advised to increase dietary amounts of vitamin D and milk and to "shoo" the girl outside to play in the sun. Based on the child's signs and symptoms, what disease do you think she has
Answer:
Rickets disease.
Explanation:
Rickets disease occurs when there is a mineralization deficit of the extracellular bone matrix; as a result, the bones are soft, and they deform easily. The X-rays show thick epiphyseal plates because it is hyaline cartilage that should be calcified to become a bone. As there is a deficit of vitamin D, the mineralization of the plate can not be done, making bone is flexible and deformable.
The main cause for Rickets disease is a diet with low intakes of calcium and vitamin D, and poor exposition to the sun, which is the best way to produce vitamin D. These two components are crucial for the mineralization of the bones.
Juan and Terri take the same drug. Both Juan and Terri's internal and external awareness change significantly. However, Juan displays a higher level of awareness in comparison to Terri. In this scenario, both Juan and Terri are exhibiting
Answer:
Juan would have had an more harmful effect than Terri because of different genes and reactions.
Explanation:
a 22-year-old g2p1 woman at 39 weeks gestation was admitted to labor and delivery in spontaneous labor. her initial cervical examination was 6 cm dilated and 90% effaced. four hours later she is 7 cm dilated and 90% effaced. on external tocometer, she is having painful contractions every two to three minutes. the fetal heart rate tracing is category i. which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
The most appropriate next step in managing the patient described in the scenario is to continue with supportive labor management, which involves providing comfort measures, monitoring progress, and closely assessing maternal and fetal well-being.
Given the provided scenario of a 22-year-old G2P1 woman at 39 weeks gestation in spontaneous labor, with initial cervical examination of 6 cm dilated and 90% effaced, progressing to 7 cm dilated and 90% effaced four hours later, and experiencing painful contractions every two to three minutes, along with a category I fetal heart rate tracing, the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to continue with supportive labor management.
Based on the given information, the patient is already progressing in labor with appropriate cervical changes and regular contractions. The category I fetal heart rate tracing indicates a normal fetal status, suggesting good oxygenation and well-being. Therefore, there is no immediate indication for intervention or deviation from the normal course of labor.
Continuing with supportive management involves providing comfort measures, emotional support, and monitoring the progress of labor. This includes encouraging position changes, providing pain relief options such as relaxation techniques, pharmacological pain management if desired, and regular assessment of maternal vital signs, fetal heart rate, and cervical progress.
Close monitoring of maternal and fetal well-being should be maintained throughout labor. This includes regular assessments of cervical dilation, effacement, and station, as well as continuous fetal heart rate monitoring to ensure the ongoing safety of the mother and baby.
It is important to note that the management of labor is individualized, and decisions should be made based on the specific circumstances and clinical judgment of the healthcare provider. If there are any concerning changes in maternal or fetal well-being, appropriate interventions may be warranted. Therefore, regular reassessment and communication between the healthcare team and the patient are crucial to ensure optimal care and outcomes.
In conclusion, the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient is to continue with supportive labor management, including comfort measures, monitoring of progress, and close maternal and fetal assessment.
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what is a major criticism of the functionalist perspective of families and marriage?
-it fails to acknowledge the role of socialization in family
-it underemphasizes the economic, social, and cultural functions
-it ignores the power differentials in a relationship where one party if economically dependent on the other
- it focuses too much on family distinctions
Outcome Identification (2 points): Identify one personality characteristic that may be seen as an
opportunity for improvement. Enter a brief summary measurable outcome statement to achieve related
to the recognized personality characteristic.
A personality trait that can be seen as a opportunity for improvement is efficiency, You don’t have to work 12 hour days to be extremely productive. In fact, employees who are the most productive often don’t, a new workplace survey shows.
What are personality characteristics?Personality traits reflect people's characteristic patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Personality traits imply consistency and stability—someone who scores high on a specific trait like Extraversion is expected to be sociable in different situations and over time.
With this information, we can conclude that A personality trait is defined as something about a person that impacts how they tend to think, feel and behave on an ongoing basis. Personality traits are characteristic of enduring behavioral and emotional patterns, rather than isolated occurrences.
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a nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. for which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess? (select all that apply.)
Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs are characteristic clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure. Here option B is the correct answer.
A) Peripheral edema and distended neck veins: These are commonly seen in right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the impaired function of the left ventricle leads to a backup of blood in the pulmonary circulation, resulting in respiratory symptoms.
B) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs: Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a hallmark sign of left-sided heart failure. As the left ventricle fails to effectively pump blood, fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion and crackles upon auscultation.
C) Chest pain and cyanosis of the extremities: Chest pain is not typically associated with left-sided heart failure unless there is an underlying cause such as myocardial ischemia.
Cyanosis of the extremities is more commonly observed in conditions that affect peripheral circulation, such as arterial occlusion or severe hypoxemia. Therefore option B is the correct answer.
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Complete question:
Which of the following clinical manifestations would a nurse assess in a client with left-sided heart failure?
A) Peripheral edema and distended neck veins
B) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs
C) Chest pain and cyanosis of the extremities
D) Increased urine output and hypertension
which statement best fits the evidence for the biological basis of schizophrenia?
The biological basis of schizophrenia is supported by a combination of genetic and neurobiological factors.
What evidence supports the biological basis of schizophrenia?Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder, and research suggests that both genetic and neurobiological factors play a significant role in its development.
The main evidence supporting the biological basis of schizophrenia includes:
1. Genetic Factors: Family and twin studies have consistently demonstrated a higher risk of schizophrenia among individuals with close relatives who have the disorder.
This suggests a genetic component in its etiology. Advances in genetic research have identified specific gene variations associated with an increased susceptibility to schizophrenia.
2. Neurobiological Factors: Neuroimaging studies have revealed structural and functional abnormalities in the brains of individuals with schizophrenia.
These abnormalities involve various brain regions and neurotransmitter systems, particularly dopamine and glutamate.
Additionally, studies have shown altered connectivity and neural circuitry in individuals with schizophrenia, pointing to underlying neurobiological dysfunctions.
Understanding the biological basis of schizophrenia is essential for developing effective treatments and interventions.
While other factors, such as environmental influences and psychosocial stressors, also contribute to the development and course of schizophrenia, the evidence strongly supports the significant role of biological factors in its pathophysiology.
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How do I find the Cov(AHE,Age)?
The covariance between two variables AHE and Age can be found using statistical formulas that involve calculating the mean and deviations of the variables.
To find the covariance between two variables, AHE and Age, you need to follow these steps:
1. Calculate the mean of both variables: Compute the average (mean) values of AHE and Age from the available data.
2. Calculate the deviations from the mean: For each data point in the variables AHE and Age, subtract the respective mean value obtained in step 1. These deviations represent how each data point differs from the average.
3. Compute the covariance: Multiply the deviations of AHE and Age for each corresponding data point and sum them up. Then, divide the sum by the total number of data points minus 1 to obtain the covariance between AHE and Age.
The resulting covariance value provides information about the relationship between the two variables. A positive covariance indicates that the variables tend to vary together in the same direction, while a negative covariance suggests they vary in opposite directions. However, the magnitude of the covariance alone does not reveal the strength of the relationship between AHE and Age. It is commonly used in statistical analyses, such as regression analysis, to understand the extent of linear association between variables.
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a nurse is caring for a client with acute cystitis that has been prescribed nitrofurantoin. what client teaching should be provided to the client regarding this medication ati
Nitrofurantoin is an antibacterial drug which usually used to tract urinary tract infections. Dose of antibiotics must be finished even if symptoms are not shown. Medicine should be taken with food.
What are antibacterial drugs?The drugs which are derived from bacteria to used against bacteria itself are called as antimicrobial drugs. These agents used only against bacteria, they cannot be used against viral or fungal infections.
Nitrofurantoin is also an antibacterial agent, commonly used for treatment of urinary tract infections. not completing given dosage of the medication can lead to recurrent infections.
Therefore, when prescribed nitrofurantoin, the education about drug and usage is given to patient.
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What’s the most likely Reasons a patient’s HMO won’t pay for her dermatologist office visit
Answer:
What’s the most likely Reasons a patient’s HMO won’t pay for her dermatologist office visit
Your provider "accepts your insurance" — but isn't in your plan's network. There's missing information.
Often, insurance companies will request additional information from the provider, and for whatever reason, the provider does not give the information or it gets lost in processing at the insurance company. If you are not diligent in following up when you receive an insurance statement indicating that nothing was paid, your claim may never be
The most likely reasons a patient’s HMO won’t pay for her dermatologist office visit are as follow:
the insurance company made an error,Your provider "accepts your insurance" but isn't in your plan's network.Your free annual examination wasn't billed as a free exam.Your insurance company practices "bundling."What is a Health maintenance organization?A kind of health insurance plan that usually restricts the range to care from doctors who work for or lease with the HMO.
It typically won't cover out-of-network care except in trouble.
An HMO may demand you to live or work in its service area to be eligible for the range.
Thus, the above mention points might be the reason of patient’s HMO won’t pay for her dermatologist's office visit.
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a 58-year-old female presents to the clinic with concern for chest pain over the past three months. she describes the pain as sharp and stabbing, in the mid-sternal region, lasting for one to two minutes, occurring a few times a day. the pain can come on at rest or with exertion and resolves on its own. it has not become worse since it began. there is no associated diaphoresis, shortness of breath, nausea, jaw pain, or pain with movement, eating, or laying supine. she has a 10-year history of obesity and hypertension for which she takes chlorthalidone and lisinopril. she was recently diagnosed with diabetes that has been controlled by diet. physical examination shows her pulse is 86 beats/minute, respiration rate is 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure is 135/85 mmhg. her lungs are clear, heart sounds are normal, and there is no chest wall tenderness to palpation or abdominal tenderness. there is no peripheral edema. how would you best characterize her chest pain?
Answer:
Anxiety
Explanation:
Since there aren't any odd or unnatural events in the heart, and her diabetes and sicknesses are under control, the best guess would have to be anxiety. Also, another indicator is that this sharp pain comes on during any activity and goes away by themselves, I would believe this is anxiety.
The expenses involved in running a business have made which of the following rare today?
The expenses involved in running a business have made Solo practices rare today
What are Solo practices?By definition, a solo practice is one without partners or employment ties to other practice organizations. Small staff sizes and a generally constrained patient base are two characteristics of solo practices.
A licensed professional who runs a business alone—without any other partners—is known as a sole practitioner. There may be a large number of support employees to help the professional in such a practice.
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the patient returns without incident, and you document the time and condition of the patient on return to the room. the next day, you are summoned to the unit manager's office, along with the charge nurse and unit secretary. the manager describes how the patient was given a dose of glucophage the morning of the test. the physician wrote an order to hold the glucophage for 2 days prior to the test because of contraindications between the medication and the intravenous contrast dye. the manager demands an explanation for the incident because controls are in place because of similar incidents on the unit that should flag the medication, requiring the nurse to hold the medication prior to the test. who is responsible for initiating a root cause analysis (rca)? how would you conduct a root cause analysis to determine the cause of the problem? who would you include? what is the purpose for conducting the rca? the hospital has a nonpunitive policy for mistakes and errors. how does this affect the rca if the cause of the problem is identified as a mistake by the unit secretary?
• Everyone should be held accountable, but in this case, the charge nurse may bear the bulk of the blame.
• To conduct a RCA I would identify the possible causes of the issue and choose the cause that makes the most sense in the situation. I would include the charge nurse, the unit manager, the secretary, the physician, and anyone else who was involved. The purpose of RCAs are to eliminate the entire problem that happened and the factors that caused it rather than just eliminating the one last action that may have caused the problem.
• As a result, the RCA would no longer be applicable because it was a mistake and there is therefore no issue that requires fixing.
What is root cause analysis?
The cause analysis is the process of identifying root causes of problems in order to identify the best solutions (RCA). The principle of RCA is that root-cause analysis and systematic prevention produce better outcomes than treating symptoms as they arise and dousing fires.
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Trace a drop of CSF from a lateral ventricle to reabsorption at an arachnoid granulation.
Normal route of CSF from production to clearance is the following: From the choroid PLEXUS , the CSF flows to the lateral ventricle, then to the interventricular FORAMEN of Monro, the third ventricle, the cerebral aqueduct of SYLVIUS , the fourth ventricle, the two lateral foramina of Luschka and one MEDIAL foramen.
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Answer:
The choroid plexus of the ventricles (70 percent of the volume) produces the majority of CSF; the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles produces the rest. The remaining CSF is produced by transependymal flow from the brain to the ventricles.
Infant cpr
You Are in a restaurant and your infant has become very still and her skin is turning an odd bluish color what should you do
which is the progenitor of platetes
Answer:
The progenitor of the platelets is called a megakaryocyte.
Explanation:
Platelets are blood structures, which participate in the process of blood clotting. They are also known as thrombocytes.
The process of platelet formation is called thrombopoiesis, and it consists of
Formation of megakaryoblasts from the hemocyte, a hematopoietic precursor cell. Megakaryoblasts produce megakaryocytes. Megakaryocytes are precursors to platelets.Each megakaryocyte must fragment to form the thrombocytes or platelets.
The surgical term that means surgical fixation or repositioning of the kidney is:
a) nephr/o/rrhaphy
b) nephr/o/pexy
c) nephr/o/clysis
d) urethr/o/plasty
Answer:
Option B, nephr/o/pexy
Explanation:
Surgical fixation or repositioning is often represented by the suffix -pexy. So from this alone, we can deduce that option B is the answer. The prefixes that represent kidney are often ren/o and nephr/o. This confirms Option B as your answer.
The suffix -rrhaphy means suture. The suffix -clysis means injection or enema. The suffix -plasty means reconstruction or molding.
Bob and Carol and Ted and Alice live in the same house. Bob and Carol go out to a movie and when they return, Alice is lying dead on the floor in a puddle of water and glass. It is obvious that Ted killed her but Ted is not prosecuted or severely punished. What happened?
Answer: she slipped
Explanation:
She slipped and dropped a wine glass
why does edema (swelling) occur with overhydration and what symptoms are shared by these two conditions?
When blood volume is normal and overhydration occurs, the extra water typically goes into the cells instead of causing tissue swelling (edema).
What does the word "symptom" mean?The physical or mental issue that a person has that could be a sign of an illness or condition. Symptoms are invisible and do not appear on diagnostic tests. Headache, weariness, nausea, and soreness are a few symptoms.
What types of symptoms are examples?The symptom is a potential health problem that a patient feels but a doctor cannot see. The pounding headache caused by anxiety, stomach pains from eating undercooked meat, or extreme exhaustion are a few examples.
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Felicia is working with a patient who just had gastric bypass. while felicia helps take care of the patient after surgery, what other member of the medical team will mostl likely come visit her?
Answer:
Dietition
Explanation:
After a gastric bypass, most of the time a patient will receieve couseling and lifestyle advice from a dietition.
a client who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing bleeding caused by placenta previa. the fetal heart sounds are normal and the client is not in labor. which nursing intervention should the nurse perform?'
The nurse should perform a physical examination of the client and an ultrasound of the fetus, should monitor the client's vital signs, and record the amount and color of any bleeding.
When a client who is 34 weeks pregnant experiences bleeding caused by placenta previa, the nurse should monitor the client closely and provide bed rest. The placenta is a vital organ that serves as a nutrient and gas exchange between the fetus and the mother.
It is important for the placenta to be well-positioned in the uterus, with the opening for the cervix at the bottom. When the opening for the cervix is obstructed, placenta previa occurs, and this is a serious condition that may cause bleeding.
When this happens, the nurse should monitor the client closely and provide bed rest. This is to help prevent any further bleeding and to ensure that the client is well-rested. A pregnant woman with placenta previa who experiences excessive bleeding may require immediate intervention, such as an emergency cesarean section.
It is important to note that fetal heart sounds must be assessed regularly to ensure that the fetus is receiving adequate oxygen and nutrients from the placenta.
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What is the most empathetic statements to a patient who is dying?
Answer:
Everything happens for a reason.”
Just look on the bright side
God has a plan.
I know how you feel.
He’s or She in a better place now.
Something better is around the corner.
Explanation:
The most empathetic statement to a patient who is dying is "I'm sorry." The correct option is c.
How to show empathy to patients?Empathy-based communication is extremely powerful and successful in enhancing patient trust, reducing anxiety, and enhancing health results. According to research, compassion and empathy are linked to improved medication adherence, fewer errors, fewer malpractice claims, and more patient satisfaction.
If you're at a loss for words, just make eye contact, squeeze their hand, or give them a comforting hug. Offer your assistance.
Offer your assistance with a particular activity, such as making funeral arrangements, or simply offer to hang out with you or be a shoulder to weep on.
Therefore, the correct option is c. "I'm sorry."
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The question is incomplete. The complete question is given below:
What are the most empathetic statements to a patient who is dying?
a. "Don't worry."
b. "Everything will be ok."
c. "I'm sorry."
d. "You may get better."
the primary problem in hyperkalemia is that ____
A. neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials. B. neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized. C. neurons are easier to excite because their resting potential is closer to threshold. D. neurons are easier to excite because their resting potential is closer to threshold and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials. E. neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
Primary problem with hyperkalemia is that neurons are hyper excitable because the resting potential is closer to the threshold, and you don’t respond quickly to smaller graded potential, hence option (D) is correct.
In hyperkalemia, the membrane resting potential falls and it partially depolarizes. This first makes the membrane more excitable. The cell membrane will, however, become more resistive and less likely to fully depolarize with continuous depolarization.
A serum or plasma-potassium level beyond the top limits of normal, often larger than 5.0 mEq/L to 5.5 mEq/L, is referred to as hyperkalemia. High potassium levels can result in life-threatening cardiac-arrhythmias, muscular weakness, or paralysis even though moderate hyperkalemia is typically asymptomatic.
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Lanoxin pediatric solution available in 0.5mg/ml. If a patient takes 0.25 mg of lanoxin per day, what will be the dispensed quantity im ml for 30 bdays
Answer:
15 mL
Explanation:
order/on hand x # days
0.25 mg/0.5 x 30
In the visual system, each retinal ganglion cell demonstrates convergence of information because:
A. It takes in all that it sees in its visual field
B. The information it sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors
C. Each one sums the amount of light it receives
D. Of the number of action potentials it fires
E. Of the connections it has to other retinal ganglion cells
Answer:
In the visual system, the convergence of information is due to the fact that each cell of the retinal ganglion cell can demonstrate that information it sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors (option B).
Explanation:
The retina is a structure formed by photoreceptors, called cones and rods. The photoreceptors attached to each retinal ganglion cell can form its visual reception field, while the group of ganglion cells that reach a specific area of the brain form the brain cell reception field.
In the visual system, convergence occurs because the receptive field of several photoreceptors reaches a retinal ganglion cell, and a group of ganglion cells reaches a brain cell to form its receptive field, so the information that retinal ganglion cell sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors.
The other options are not correct because convergence:
A. It does not depend on all the information seen in the visual field.
C. It does not depend on the sum of the amount of light it receives.
D. It does not imply the amount of action potentials.
E. There are no connections with other ganglion cells.