Answer:
These microbes conduct photosynthesis: using sunshine, water and carbon dioxide to produce carbohydrates and, yes, oxygen. In fact, all the plants on Earth incorporate symbiotic cyanobacteria. For some untold eons prior to the evolution of these cyanobacteria, during the Archean eon, more primitive microbes lived the real old-fashioned way: anaerobically. These ancient organisms—and their "extremophile" descendants today—thrived in the absence of oxygen, relying on sulfate for their energy needs. But roughly 2.45 billion years ago, the isotopic ratio of sulfur transformed, indicating that for the first time oxygen was becoming a significant component of Earth's atmosphere,
The speed of the rotation of Earth has the greatest effect on which of the following?
Answer:
?***##################
The speed of the Earth's rotation has the greatest effect on the length of a day.
What happens during Earth's rotation?
The Earth rotates once on its axis in approximately 24 hours, and this rotation determines the length of a day. The Earth's rotation speed is not constant, but it is gradually slowing down over time due to various factors, such as the gravitational influence of the moon. As a result, the length of a day has increased over geological time.
The speed of the Earth's rotation also affects other aspects of the planet, such as the distribution of ocean currents, atmospheric circulation patterns, and the formation and behavior of weather systems. However, the length of a day is the most directly and immediately impacted by changes in the Earth's rotation speed.
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7. Explain at least two ways in which wind pollinated plants' structures are
adapted for wind pollination.
Answer:
Wind pollinated have light and small pollen grains to be easily carried away. They also lack petals or have small ones, so that the pollen can be exposed and easily swept by wind.
Compare and contrast environmental science and environmentalism.
Answer:
i cant compare them
Explanation:
c) Suggest what can be done to address any discrepancy. Start explaining the most practical solution first and then the least favorable solution(s). Write in the provided box, please. [10 marks]
Answer:
Explanation:
yes cux it is good
and i needpoints
what is a possible explanation for why strata may be absent from some outcrops
(Earth sci)
Which organism is most likely to be at the BOTTOM TROPHIC level in a
food chain?
grasshopper
hawk
mouse
grass
How many different combinations are possible in the first part of Meiosis because of Independent Assortment?
For humans, there 2^23 ≈ 8.4 million different combinations are possible in the first part of Meiosis using the formular 2^n.
How many different combinations are possible in the first part of Meiosis?As gametes form during meiosis I, there is a random separation of homologous chromosomes into different cells through a process called independent assortment.
The resulting combinations differ due to each parent giving one of their two copies for each locus (position) along each chromosome based on chance events and recombination between paired alleles on sister chromatids known as crossing over events that also shuffle gene sequences within domains or entire genes themselves depending upon frequency thresholds used when measuring impact size (e.g., cM).
For humans who have a total of 46 chromosomes organized into 23 homologous pairs and an average recombination rate ranging from fewer than five cM per megabase to more than ten, independent assortment creates about eight-point-four million diverse permutations across multiple generations.
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If 10 cells undergo the cellular process of meiosis, how many daughter cells will result after Telophase II?
a. 25
b. 5
c. 10
d. 40
Which of the following completes the sentence below by describing an important result of meiosis?
A single cell divides into ___________ daughter cells.
2 identical
2 unique
4 unique
4 identical
A.4 identical
B.4 unique
C. 2 unique
D. 2 identical
Answer:
d. 40, B.4 unique
Explanation:
If 10 cells underwent meiosis, the result would be 40 daughter cells. This is because a cell that goes through meiosis goes through two divisions resulting in 4 daughter cells. This is because cells that undergo meiosis are gametes so they need to have half the number of chromosomes as the cells that go through mitosis.
The resulting daughter cells are unique, unlike the cells that go through mitosis. This is because the chromosomes in the cells experience something called crossing over during Metaphase I. Crossing over is when the chromosomes can swap pieces of DNA when next to each other. Cells in mitosis don't go through crossing over and are therefore identical.
A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium is called: __________
Respiratory tract refers to a ciliated variety of pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
What is ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium's alternate name?It is frequently referred to as pseudostratified columnar epithelium because it infrequently manifests as squamous or cuboidal epithelia. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is seen in the illustration. The trachea and some other areas of the upper respiratory tract are lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelia. The respiratory epithelium is another name for the ciliated kind.
The name "ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium" refers to what?The term "ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium" refers to pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue that has cilia on the surface. On the apical surface of these epithelial cells, cilia of various lengths are visible.
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What would happen to the reproductive success of a dark skinned person living in the tropics?
The reproductive success of a dark-skinned person living in the tropics would not be affected. This is because dark skin is an adaptation that protects individuals from the harmful effects of the sun's ultraviolet (UV) rays. The pigment melanin, which is responsible for skin color, acts as a natural sunscreen by absorbing UV radiation and preventing it from damaging DNA in skin cells.
This reduces the risk of skin cancer and other negative health effects associated with UV exposure. Therefore, a dark-skinned person living in the tropics, where UV levels are high, would be at a lower risk of these negative health effects and their reproductive success would not be affected.
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easy 8th grade science question
Answer: Because the organisms go through the process of fertilization, the molecules are affected by the enzymes, therefore creating a cause of the homologous embryological structures that start to lessen or disappear
Explanation: Same as answer
Why does the body use chemical energy?
They are broken down into simpler molecules, such as glucose and amino acids, which are then either reassembled and stored in various forms, such as glycogen, or consumed as energy. Chemical energy in food is essential for giving our bodies the fuel they require to keep us alive and active.
What is chemical energy ?Chemical energy is the energy that is released when chemical substances engage in a chemical reaction and change into other substances. Batteries, food, and gas are a few examples of chemical energy storage mediums.
Around the world, we generate heat and power using chemical energy. Methane, natural gas, oil, and petroleum are examples of fossil fuels that we burn to create steam that turns turbines to generate power. On a smaller scale, people also use these fuels to generate heat to warm up dwellings.
Energy is required by all living things, including humans, to power their metabolic processes of development, growth, and reproduction. However, light energy cannot be directly used by organisms for metabolic purposes. Instead, photosynthesis must first be used to transform it into chemical energy.
Thus, Chemical energy in food is essential for giving our bodies the fuel they require to keep us alive and active.
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What are the ingredients to make glucose for plants?
. What binds the allosteric site of Pyruvate dehydrogenase when Oz levels are low in the cell? O NADH O pyruvate 02 O CO2 O FADH2
Allosteric site of Pyruvate dehydrogenase when Oz levels are low in the cell is bind by B. Pyruvate
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is inhibited when oxygen levels are low in the cell. The enzyme is regulated by phosphorylation by pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase and dephosphorylation by pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase. The allosteric site of pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase is bound by NADH, acetyl-CoA, and ATP, while the allosteric site of pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase is bound by ADP.
These binding sites help regulate the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase in response to changes in the energy status of the cell. The allosteric site of Pyruvate dehydrogenase when Oz levels are low in the cell is bound by NADH. When oxygen levels are low, there is an increase in NADH concentration due to the lack of aerobic respiration and the buildup of pyruvate. NADH acts as a negative regulator of pyruvate dehydrogenase by binding to its allosteric site, inhibiting its activity. So therefore the correct answer is B. Pyruvate is bind allosteric site of Pyruvate dehydrogenase when Oz levels are low in the cell .
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2. The speaker states that biomagnification, also called bioaccumulation,
caused DDT to build up in the food chain. How does the video help the
viewer understand this process?
a. Gives facts and statistics
b. Shows drawings of smaller fish to larger fish and birds
c. Tells a true story
The video helps the viewer understand the process of biomagnification or bioaccumulation of DDT in the food chain by showing drawings of smaller fish to larger fish and birds. Biomagnification or bioaccumulation refers to the accumulation of pollutants in the tissues of living organisms over time.
Bioaccumulation or biomagnification is particularly dangerous for organisms higher up the food chain since the concentration of pollutants increases as it progresses up the food chain. As smaller fish are eaten by larger fish, the DDT concentration in the larger fish increases.
As a result, the birds that consume the larger fish have a higher concentration of DDT in their tissues than the smaller fish. In conclusion, the video helps the viewer understand this process by showing drawings of smaller fish to larger fish and birds.
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What does active transport have to use that passive transport does not? _________ and transport proteins
Active transport requires energy and transport proteins. Passive transport and active transport are two distinct mechanisms employed for the transportation of substances across cell membranes.
While passive transport relies on the concentration gradient and does not require energy, active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient, necessitating the input of energy. This energy is typically derived from ATP, the main energy currency of cells. Additionally, active transport relies on transport proteins, also known as carrier proteins or pumps, which facilitate the movement of specific substances across the membrane.
These proteins undergo conformational changes to transport molecules across the membrane, often against their concentration gradient. By utilizing energy and transport proteins, active transport enables the selective uptake or expulsion of substances by cells, allowing them to maintain proper internal concentrations and carry out vital physiological processes.
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Which items are sources of soil pollution or soil pollutants?
ozone
fertilizer
lumber industries
sewage
petroleum products
plastics
mining industries
PAN
waste chemicals dumped
fuel-burning power plants
carbon monoxide
smog
seafood contamination
How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the process of cellular respiration of one glucose molecule?
Answer:
During this stage, two turns through the cycle result in all of the carbon atoms from the two pyruvate molecules forming carbon dioxide and the energy from their chemical bonds being stored in a total of 16 energy-carrying molecules (including 4 from glycolysis
Explanation:
STAY SAFE, STAY HEALTHY AND BE BLESSED.THANK you.
use your knowledge of statistics to calculate the probability of an offspring from the model 2 population havojg each of these genotypes.
This model demonstrates founder effects, bottleneck effects, and random genetic drift. In the simulated probability population, there are three incompletely dominant alleles (red, yellow, and blue), and heterozygotes are represented by the blending of the two alleles.
The set of alleles that make up an individual's genotype are located in a particular genetic locus. The genotypes AA, Aa, and aa are all conceivable in a population that has two alleles (A and a) at locus A.
Equations used: The exponential and logistic growth models may be described using more specialized versions of the extremely generic equation shown above.
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Correct Question:
Explain how to use your knowledge of statistics to calculate the probability of an offspring from the model 2 population having each of these genotypes.
The null hypothesis, which demonstrates that evolution is not occurring from generation to generation, is known as the ________ model.
The null hypothesis, which demonstrates that evolution is not occurring from generation to generation, is known as the Hardy-Weinberg model.
1. The Hardy-Weinberg Model:
The Hardy-Weinberg model is a null hypothesis in population genetics that describes an idealized population in which the allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation. It provides a baseline against which the occurrence of evolution can be tested.
2. Assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg Model:
The Hardy-Weinberg model is based on several key assumptions:
a. Large Population Size: The population is assumed to be infinitely large, which prevents genetic drift from significantly influencing allele frequencies.
b. No Migration: The population is closed, meaning there is no gene flow from other populations.
c. Random Mating: Individuals mate randomly, without any preference for specific genotypes.
d. No Mutation: The alleles do not undergo any changes through mutation.
e. No Natural Selection: There is no differential survival or reproductive advantage for individuals based on their genotype.
3. Expected Equilibrium:
Under the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg model, the allele frequencies in the population remain stable over time, and the genotypic frequencies reach an equilibrium. The equations derived from the model allow for the calculation of expected frequencies of genotypes based on the allele frequencies.
4. Testing for Evolution:
If the observed genotype frequencies in a population deviate significantly from the expected frequencies calculated using the Hardy-Weinberg equations, it indicates that evolution is occurring. Deviations can arise due to various evolutionary forces, including natural selection, mutation, gene flow, and genetic drift.
5. Importance of the Null Hypothesis:
The Hardy-Weinberg model serves as a null hypothesis against which the presence or absence of evolution can be tested. If the observed frequencies significantly differ from the expected frequencies, it suggests that one or more of the assumptions of the model are being violated, and evolutionary processes are at work.
In summary, the Hardy-Weinberg model provides a null hypothesis that demonstrates a population in which evolution is not occurring. It assumes certain conditions, and deviations from the expected equilibrium frequencies indicate the occurrence of evolutionary processes in the population.
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Questi 21 of 32
Which of the following structures is found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic
cells?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Lysosome
C. Cytoplasm
OD. Nucleus
SUBMIT
definition of root pressure
Answer:
Root pressure is the transverse osmotic pressure within the cells of a root system that causes sap to rise through a plant stem to the leaves.
Explanation:
Root pressure occurs in the xylem of some vascular plants when the soil moisture level is high either at night or when transpiration is low during the day.
The sequence of nucleotides is called
A. Gene
B.genome
C.gene expression
D. Genetic code
what group of animals exhibits spiral cleavage and includes acoelomate, pseudocoelomate, and coelomate animals?
The group of animals that exhibits spiral cleavage and includes acoelomate, pseudocoelomate, and coelomate animals is the Protostomes. This group includes a wide range of invertebrate animals such as mollusks, arthropods, annelids, and nematodes.
Protostomes undergo spiral cleavage during embryonic development, which is characterized by the division of cells at oblique angles to each other. This pattern of cell division determines the formation of tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The protostome body plan also includes a mouth that develops from the blastopore, which is the opening formed during early embryonic development.
The three main subgroups of protostomes include acoelomates, pseudocoelomates, and coelomates. Acoelomates lack a body cavity, while pseudocoelomates have a body cavity that is not completely lined by mesoderm. Coelomates have a true body cavity that is completely lined by mesoderm.
Overall, protostomes are a diverse and fascinating group of animals that exhibit unique developmental and anatomical features.
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please hurry! thank you. :D (30 points, too!)
Insulin Is a hormone that helps balance blood glucose levels. The graph shows the concentration levels of Insulin and glucose In the blood after Ingestion of a carbohydrate-rich meal.
Based on the graph, what can be concluded?
A, the concentration of Insulin Increases with a decrease In glucose concentration to allow rapid uptake of glucose by cells.
B, The concentration of insulin increases with an increase in glucose concentration to allow rapid uptake of glucose by cells.
C, The concentration of insulin increases with a decrease in glucose concentration to allow cells to release glucose into the bloodstream.
D, The concentration of insulin increases with an increase in glucose concentration to allow cells to release glucose into the bloodstream.
Answer:
I think it is B!
Explanation:
The graph shows when the insulin increases, the glucose also increases rapidly!
during the process of transcription in a eukaryote
ill give you a Brainliest if it is right
The diagram below shows a portion of the concept map for the Rock Cycle.
Which of these would best fit in the empty oval?
A) magma
B) sediments
C) sedimentary rocks
D) metamorphic rocks
Answer:
magma
Explanation:
Answer:
Magma
Explanation:
Choose the statement that is true about sports drinks. All of the choices are correct. They replenish electrolytes Their flavor encourages athletes to drink They replenish fluids
The statement about sports drinks are: They replenish electrolytes, Their flavor encourages athletes to drink and They replenish fluids.
Option(D) is correct.
Sports drinks are formulated to provide hydration and replenish important nutrients for individuals engaging in prolonged and intense physical activity. Each of the statements provided is true about sports drinks:
A) They replenish electrolytes: Electrolytes, such as sodium, potassium, and magnesium, are essential minerals that play a vital role in maintaining proper fluid balance and supporting muscle function.
B) Their flavor encourages athletes to drink: Sports drinks often have a pleasant taste, which can encourage athletes to drink and maintain hydration during workouts or competitions. The flavor can make the drink more enjoyable and appealing, promoting adequate fluid intake.
C) They replenish fluids: One of the primary purposes of sports drinks is to replace fluids lost through sweating. These beverages contain a combination of water, electrolytes, and carbohydrates, which can help restore hydration levels and provide energy during prolonged physical activity.
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The complete question is:
Choose the statement that is true about sports drinks.
A) They replenish electrolytes.
B) Their flavor encourages athletes to drink.
C) They replenish fluids.
D) All of the above
Which of the following is a correct example of short-loop negative feedback?
A) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TRH.
B) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TSH.
C) TRH stimulates the release of thyroid hormones.
D) TSH inhibits the release of TRH.
E) TRH inhibits the release of TSH.
The following is a suitable illustration of brief negative feedback where TSH limits TRH release.
Does TSH interfere with TRH?The pituitary gland's TSH induces thyroid hormone release, which is triggered by the thyroid-releasing hormone TRH produced by the hypothalamus. Thyroid epithelial cells shut down as thyroid hormone blood concentrations rise because they suppress both TSH and TRH.
What stops the TRH from being released?Energy-demanding conditions, such as coldness and exercise, and the HPT axis are stimulated, but the axis is suppressed by conditions that disrupt the energy balance, such as fasting, inflammation, or long-term stress.
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let-7 mirnas the let-7 family of mirnas regulate insulin resistance, obesity, and diabetes. these mirnas accumulate in human cells with age. overexpression of let-7 mirnas in mice led to insulin-resistance and diabetes in these mice. what strategy involving let-7 mirnas might be a potential treatment for obesity and diabetes?
Treatment with antagomirs specific to let-7 strategy might be a potential treatment for obesity and diabetes.
Let-7 family miRNAs must be the exclusive target of the therapy. Options c and d are so eliminated. Let-7 mRNA expression needs to be reduced in order to treat diabetes and obesity, hence restoration via viral vectors is not a viable approach. Option A is not an option. When let-7 miRNA specific inhibitors are used, their expression will be downregulated and insulin receptor and insulin-like growth factor signaling pathways will be promoted, helping to treat diabetes and obesity.
The Let-7 microRNA precursor was discovered as a result of a research on the timing of development in C. elegans, and it was later established that it belongs to the much wider family of non-coding RNAs known as microRNAs. Let-7 family member and human miR-98 microRNA precursor.
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