help meeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee

The correct answer among the choices provided is A. 11.48.

Given that side XY of triangle XYZ corresponds to side JK of triangle JKL, we can set up the following proportion:

XY/JK = YZ/LJ

Substituting the given values:

8.7 / 12.18 = 7.8 / LJ

We solve this for LJ:

LJ = (7.8 * 12.18) / 8.7

Calculating that gives us:

LJ ≈ 11.48

So, the correct answer among the choices provided is A. 11.48.

Read more about triangles here:

https://brainly.com/question/1058720

#SPJ1

Answer:

3 credit course = 13

4 credit course = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Total credits = 59

Total courses = 18

Let :

Number of 3 credit course = x ; number of 4 credit course = y

x + y = 18 - - (1)

3x + 4y = 59 - - - (2)

x = 18 - y

3(18 - y) + 4y = 59

54 - 3y + 4y = 59

54 + y = 59

y = 59 - 54

y = 5

x = 18 - 5

x = 13

3 credit course = 13

4 credit course = 5

Answer:

The answer above me

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of the larger figure that is similar to the smaller one is: 28.2 m².

Where A and B represent the areas of two similar figures, and a and b are their corresponding side lengths, respectively, the formula that relates their areas and side lengths is:

Area of figure A / Area of figure B = a²/b².

Given that the two figures are similar as shown in the image above, find each of their respective side lengths if we are given the following:

Perimeter of smaller figure = 20 m

Area of smaller figure = 19.6 m²

Perimeter of larger figure = 34m

Area of larger figure = x

Therefore:

20/34 = a/b

Simplify:

10/17 = a/b.

Find the area (x) of the larger figure using the formula given above:

10²/12² = 19.6/x

100/144 = 19.6/x

100x = 2,822.4

x = 2,822.4/100

x ≈ 28.2 m²

Learn more about area of similar figures on:

https://brainly.com/question/17132861

#SPJ1

Step-by-step explanation:

QR= 1.5 inches

TS= 2 inches

TP= 3.8 inches

RS= 1.4 inches

PQ= 2.6 inches

now complete ur promise

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Remark

The question says to increase the lengths of each side by a factor of 1.5.

That means that every measurement we see on the diagram is multiplied by 1.5

QR = given length times 1.5

given length = 1.5

QR = 1.5 * 1.5

QR = 2.25

TS = given length * 1.5

TS = 2 * 1.5

TS = 3

TP = given length * 1.5

TP given = 3.8

TP = 3.8 * 1.5

TP = 5.7

RS = given length * 1.5

given length = 1.4

RS = 1.4 * 1.5

RS = 2,1

PQ = given length * 1.5

given length = 2.6

PQ = 2.6 * 1.5

PQ = 3.9

The hypotheses for \(H_{0}\) is \(\µ_{1}\) = \(\µ_{2}\) and for \(H_{1}\) \(\µ_{1} > \µ_{2}\) (claim)

Given:

Nationwide scores as  n1=1000, \(x_{1}\)` = 21.4 ,σ1 = 3

Carolina scores as n2=500,  \(x_{2}\)` = 21.2 ,σ2 = 3

So from here we can say

µ represents population mean.

\(u_{1}\) represent population mean for nationwide scores.

\(u_{2}\) represents population mean for Carolina scores.

\(H_{0}\) is \(\µ_{1}\) = \(\µ_{2}\) and for \(H_{1}\) \(\µ_{1} > \µ_{2}\) (claim)

Given Question is incomplete, Complete Question here,

a survey of 1000 students nationwide showed a mean act score of 21.4. a survey of 500 south Carolina scores showed a mean of 21.2. if the population standard deviation in each case is 3, can we conclude the national average is greater than the south Carolina average?

use α=0.01 and \(\µ_{1}\) for the nationwide mean act score.

State the hypotheses and identify the claim.

To know more about mean and standard deviation here

https://brainly.com/question/28108712

#SPJ4

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

work out 25% of 24 then turn the answer into a fraction

Answer:

6 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 *24

1*6

6

Answer:

The 66th term is 363.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here,

a = -92 b = -85

d = b - a = -85 -(-92) = 7

n = 66

t66 = ?

We know,

tn = a+(n - 1)d

t66 = -92+(66 - 1)7

= 363

AB = BC

Since B is the midpoint of AC , Both segments AB and BC are equal:

Replacing with the values given:

20 = 2x

Solving for x

20/2 = x

10=x

Since:

AC= AB+BC

AC = 20+2x

Replacing x=10

AC = 20+2(10)

AC=20+20

AC=40

The area under the curve between z = -1 and z = 2 in the standard normal distribution is approximately 0.8186.

The standard normal distribution, also known as the Z-distribution, is a probability distribution with a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1. The area under the curve represents the probability of a random variable falling within a certain range. To find the area under the curve between z = -1 and z = 2, we can use statistical tables or calculators that provide the cumulative distribution function (CDF) for the standard normal distribution. The CDF gives the probability that a random variable is less than or equal to a given value.

Using the standard normal distribution table or calculator, we find that the CDF value for z = -1 is approximately 0.1587 and the CDF value for z = 2 is approximately 0.9772. To find the area under the curve between these two z-values, we subtract the CDF value for z = -1 from the CDF value for z = 2: 0.9772 - 0.1587 = 0.8185. Therefore, the area under the curve between z = -1 and z = 2 in the standard normal distribution is approximately 0.8186. This represents the probability that a random variable from the standard normal distribution falls within the range of -1 to 2.

Learn more about standard normal distribution here: brainly.com/question/32506784

#SPJ11

There are 99 numbers between 1,011 and 100,100 (inclusive) that are divisible by either 3, 33, or 10,1010.

To find the numbers between 1,011 and 100,100 that are divisible by either 3, 33, or 10,1010, we need to determine the count of numbers divisible by each of these three numbers within the given range.

For a number to be divisible by 3, the sum of its digits must be divisible by 3. Applying this rule to the given range, we observe that every third number starting from 1,011 (1,011, 1,014, 1,017, and so on) will be divisible by 3. Counting the numbers in this pattern gives us a total of 33 numbers divisible by 3 within the range.

Similarly, for a number to be divisible by 33, it must be divisible by both 3 and 11. Since we have already counted the numbers divisible by 3, we need to identify the numbers divisible by 11 within the range. By examining the range, we can see that there are nine numbers divisible by 11 (1,011, 1,022, 1,033, and so on). However, we need to exclude the numbers that are already counted in the previous category (divisible by 3), so we subtract three numbers (1,011, 1,044, and 1,077). This gives us a total of six additional numbers divisible by 33.

Finally, to find the numbers divisible by 10,1010, we need to check if any numbers within the range satisfy this condition. Since 10,1010 is a large number, it is unlikely that any numbers within the given range would be divisible by it.

Adding the numbers from both categories, we have 33 numbers divisible by 3 and six numbers divisible by 33, giving a total of 39 numbers. Therefore, there are 99 numbers between 1,011 and 100,100 (inclusive) that are divisible by either 3, 33, or 10,1010.

Learn more about divisible here:

https://brainly.com/question/2273245

#SPJ11

If LA Galaxy has won 36% of their soccer matches, this means that they have won 36/100 * 50 = 18 matches.

So, they have won 18 matches out of 50.

Step-by-step explanation:

percentage of soccer matches won = 36%

total matches = 50

matches won = 36/100 * 50

=18

Answer:

55

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the Pythagorean theorm:

a^2+b^2=c^2

48^2+b^2=73^2

b^2=73^2-48^2

b^2=3025

b=55

Answer:

  yes, it is

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of x in the ordered pair (x, y) = (9, 6) is 9. That satisfies the equation ...

  x = 9

Substituting 9 for x, we get a true statement:

  9 = 9

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i think x would be 0.8

sorry if im wrong :( its been awhile since ive done this stuff

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

The angle 67° is corresponding with the expression (4x+3°) and corresponding angles are equal

4x+3°=67°

4x=67°-3°

4x=64°(divide both sides by 4)

x=16

Answer:

ABCD forms a rhombus

Step-by-step explanation:

When you graph it out on a graph, the points make a rhombus

Given that triangles OPQ and RST are similar triangles, the measure of side ST is: 75.3.

The ratio of the corresponding sides of two similar triangles are always equal, meaning the sides are proportional to each other.

Given:

Since Triangle OPQ is similar to triangle RST, therefore:

RS/OP = ST/PQ

Substitute

RS/17 = 31/7

Cross multiply

RS = (31 × 17)/7

RS = 75.3

Learn more about similar triangles on:

https://brainly.com/question/11920446

Answer:

\(5\times10^3\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(3.55\times10^6 \div 7.1 \times 10^2\)

Exponents are positive:

\(3.5.5.0.0.0.0. = 3550000\)

\(7.1.0.=710\)

\(3550000 \div 710 = 5000\)

Convert back into scientific notation:

\(5000 = 5 \times 10^3\)

\(= 5 \times10^3\)

Hope this helps.

Answer: 5 x 10^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

about 1920

step by step explanation:

40×50weeks=2000hours per year.

40×2weeks(the weeks off) = 80

2000-80= 1920hours per year

Answer:

\(48a^{2}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

First, multiply the numbers

-8a ( -6)a

48aa

Next, We can combine the exponents

\(48a^{2}\)

That is all you need to do. : - )

a) The probability of obtaining exactly two heads is 81%.

(b) The probability of obtaining exactly one head is 18%.

(c) The probability of obtaining no heads is 1%.

(d) The probability of obtaining at least one head is 99%.

(a) The probability of obtaining exactly two heads can be calculated by multiplying the probabilities of getting heads on both tosses. Given that the probability of heads is 0.9, the probability of obtaining two heads is 0.9 * 0.9 = 0.81, or 81%.

(b) To calculate the probability of obtaining exactly one head, we need to consider two cases: (1) heads on the first toss and tails on the second toss, or (2) tails on the first toss and heads on the second toss. The probability of heads on the first toss is 0.9, and the probability of tails on the second toss is 0.1. Multiplying these probabilities gives 0.9 * 0.1 = 0.09. Similarly, the probability of tails on the first toss and heads on the second toss is 0.1 * 0.9 = 0.09. Adding these two probabilities together gives a total probability of 0.09 + 0.09 = 0.18, or 18%.

(c) The probability of obtaining no heads can be calculated by multiplying the probabilities of getting tails on both tosses. Given that the probability of tails is 0.1, the probability of obtaining no heads is 0.1 * 0.1 = 0.01, or 1%.

(d) The probability of obtaining at least one head can be calculated by subtracting the probability of obtaining no heads from 1. In this case, the probability of obtaining no heads is 0.01 (as calculated in part c). Therefore, the probability of obtaining at least one head is 1 - 0.01 = 0.99, or 99%.

Learn more about binomial probability

brainly.com/question/31828911

#SPJ11

Answer:

15 cans

Step-by-step explanation:

There are two shapes that make up the dog house, they are the triangular and rectangular prism, with the combination of a semi-circle and rectangle as the door opening.

The area of a rectangle for the top ( T ) and bottom ( B ) side view:

top height = 3ft, and width= 8ft

bottom height = 4.5ft, width= 8 ft

Area ( T ) = 3 X 8 = 24 ft^2

Area ( B ) = 4.5 X 8 = 36ft^2

The front and back view is a triangle and rectangle:

area of triangle = 1/2 x base x height

with the base = 4ft,   and  sides= 3 ft

height = sqrt( side^2 - (1/2 height)^2 )^0.5

          = sqrt( 9 - 4 )  = 2.235

area of triangle( front and back )  = 1/2( 4 x 2.235 ) = 4.47 ft^2

area of rectangle ( back ) = 4 x 4.5 = 18ft

The entrance is a rectangle with area = 2.5 x 2 = 5ft^2

and semi-circle with area = (πr^2)/2 = (3.14 x 1^2)/2 = 1.57ft^2

area of entrance = 5 + 1.57 = 6.57ft^2

area of front view = 18 - 6.57 = 11.43ft^2

the total area of the doghouse is = 11.43 + 18 + 72 + 48 + 8.94  = 158.37ft^2

this is for just the outside. to get the total for inside and outside:

      158.37 x 2 = 316.74ft^2

total area per paint can = 20ft^2

total number of cans needed = 316.74 / 20  = 15 paint cans

Answer:

6 cans are needed to paint the dog house.

Step-by-step explanation:

Ted can mow the lawn in 5 minutes by using his power mower. Galen takes 15 minutes to mow the same lawn using a push-type mower.

Let's calculate the amount of work done by Ted in 1 minute.WORK = 1/5Let's calculate the amount of work done by Galen in 1 minute.WORK = 1/15

Let's calculate the amount of work done by both of them working together in 1 minute. WORK = 1/5 + 1/15 Simplify, LCM of 5 and 15 = 15 So, 3/15 + 1/15 = 4/15Hence, working together Ted and Galen can mow the lawn in 15/4 or 3.75 minutes or 3 minutes and 45 seconds.

Know more about power mower here:

https://brainly.com/question/14490427

#SPJ11

Answer:

its 94 on deltamath just did it

Step-by-step explanation:

Let t=0 represent the year 1997

Starting Value: 690

Write function:

y=690(b)^t

Now find the b-value:

y=390 when t=4 (2001−1997)

390=690(b)^4

390/690=690(b)^4/690

0.56521739=b^4

(0.56521739)^1/4=(b^4)^1/4

0.86706944=b

Write Complete Function:

y=690(0.86706944)^t

Find value in 2011 (use t=14):

y=690(0.86706944)^14

y=93.67062063

y≈94

The speed at which the bottom of the ladder is being pulled away from the wall is equal to the rate at which the top is sliding down, which is 1 ft/second.

The bottom of the ladder is being pulled away from the wall at the same rate at which the top of the ladder is sliding down the wall. As the top of the ladder slides down at a rate of 1 ft/second, the bottom of the ladder is also being pulled away at a rate of 1 ft/second.

The bottom of the ladder is being pulled away from the wall at a rate of 100 ft/second if the top of the ladder is sliding down at a rate of 100 ft/second.

The speed at which the bottom of the ladder is being pulled away from the wall is equal to the rate at which the top is sliding down, which is 1 ft/second.

Learn more about rate here

https://brainly.com/question/13481529

#SPJ4

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

1 inch = 20 miles

240 miles ÷ 20 miles =

12 inches

Answer:

12 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

Well to solve the given question we need to use fractions,

if 1 inch is 20 milles, we can set up the following.

\(\frac{1}{20} = \frac{x}{240}\)

Cross multiply

240 = 20x

Divide both sides by 20

x = 12

So it is 12 inches in the map.

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

wich problem i see multiple ?

Answer:

The speed of Natalie in miles per hour is 1.2 mph.

Step by step explanation:

distance covered by Natalie, d = 3/5 mile

time of motion of Natalie, t = 1/2 hour

speed = distance/time

speed = 3×2/5 = 6/5

Thus, the speed of Natalie in miles per hour is 1.2 mph.

The measurement of altitude BE is 4 unit.

As the average level of the sea's surface, sea level is used to measure altitude. A high altitude is defined as being significantly higher than sea level, such as Mount Everest. It is referred to as having a low altitude when something is closer to the ground, like a plane coming in to land.

As ABCD is rectangle

AD = BC = 12

ΔABC = ΔBCD

BE = FD

5² = 3²+BE²

AE = 3

BE = √(5²-3²)

BE = 4

Thus, The measurement of altitude BE is 4 unit.

To learn mote about altitude refer to :

https://brainly.com/question/18530806

#SPJ1

The probability that atleast one students is taking a language class is 0.7

Probability refers to a possibility that deals with the occurrence of random events.

The probability of all the events occurring need to be 1.

Let :

Spanish = S ; French = F ; German = G

SnFnG = 3

(SnF) only = 9 - 3 = 6

(SnG) only = 5 - 3 = 2

(FnG) only = 5 - 3 = 2

S only = 28 - (6+3+2) = 17

F only = 21 - (2+3+2) = 14

G only = 12 - (6+3+2) = 1

Student not taking any of the classes are;

(100 - (17+14+1+2+2+6+3))

100 - 45 = 55

Atleast 1 is taking a language class out of 2 selected

The probability that atleast one students is taking a language class :

(45/100 * 55/99) + (55/100 * 45/99) + (45/100 * 44/99)

= 0.7

Learn more about probability here;

https://brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ4