Help!!! Assignment due in 20 minutes!!

The volume flow Q through a small triangular section pore can be related to viscosity, pressure drop per unit length, and pore size through the Buckingham Pi theorem.

Let's first identify the fundamental dimensions involved in this problem:

Length (L)

Mass (M)

Time (T)

Using these fundamental dimensions, we can form three dimensionless pi groups that express the relationship between the variables:

Reynolds number: Re = (ρVL)/µ, where ρ is the density of the fluid, V is the characteristic velocity (which is proportional to pressure drop per unit length), µ is the viscosity of the fluid, and b and L are characteristic length scales.

Aspect ratio: Γ = L/b

Shape factor: Ψ = (Qb²)/(µVL)

The volume flow Q can therefore be written in terms of the other variables as:

Q = (ΨµVL)/b²

To answer the second part of the question, if the pore size b is doubled, the volume flow Q will increase by a factor of 4, assuming all other variables remain constant. This is because the shape factor Ψ is proportional to b², so doubling b will lead to a four-fold increase in Ψ and thus in Q.

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Answer:

\( \huge \boxed{f(15) = 152 }\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(f(x) = 15 {x}^{2} - x + 20\)

To find f(3) , substitute the value of x that's 3 into f(x). That is for every x in f(x) replace it with 3.

We have

\(f(15) = 15( {3})^{2} - 3 + 20 \\ \: \: = 15(9) + 17 \\ = 135 + 17 \: \\ = 152 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \)

We have the final answer as

\(f(15) = 152 \)

Hope this helps you

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The algorithm will then determine whether the given SS contains an SS subgraph or not, again in polynomial time.

a) The certificate cc is an SS subgraph in SS.

The verification process VV checks that SS contains an SS subgraph.

The algorithm for verification VV for SSSSSSSSSSSSSSSS should be able to determine in polynomial time whether the input pair is a part of the set or not.

The algorithm will then determine whether the given SS contains an SS subgraph or not, again in polynomial time.

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Answer:

Hope the picture will help you.......

Answer:

DF=28 AC=64 CF=32

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

median= 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

WX=10; VW=22; WY=20; VX=32; WZ=30;VY=42

Step-by-step explanation:

1)WX=XY=XZ/2=20/2=10

2)VW=VZ-WX-XY-YZ=VZ-3*WX=52-3*10=52-30=22

3)WY=WX+XY=2*WX=2*10=20

4)VX=VW+WX=22+10=32

5)WZ=WX+XY+YZ=3*WX=3*10=30

6)VY=VZ-YZ=52-10=42

The points V, W, X, Y and Z are collinear. The indicated lengths are

\(WX=10\\VW=22\\WY=20\\VX=32\\WZ=30\\VY=42\)

Given :

points V, W, X, Y and Z are collinear, VZ= 52, XZ =20, and WX=XY=YZ

Lets make diagram using the given information

The diagram is attached below

XY=YZ

XZ=20, so \(XY+YZ=20\\Both XY and YZ are same\\XY+XY=20\\2XY=20\\Divide \; by \; 2\\XY=10\)

\(WX=XY=YZ \\XY=10\\WY=10\\YZ=10\\\)

Now we find out VW

\(VW+WX+XY+YZ=52\\VW+10+10+10=52\\VW+30=52\\Subtract \; 30\\VW=52-30\\VW=22\)

Now we find the indicated length

\(WX =10\)

\(VW=22\\WY=WX+XY=10+10=20\\VX=VW+WX=22+10=32\\WZ=WX+XY+YZ=10+10+10=30\\VY=VW+WX+XY=22+10+10=42\)

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The probability that all three balls drawn from the bag are red is 6/273.

Prοbability is a measure οf the likelihοοd οr chance that a particular event will οccur. It quantifies the uncertainty assοciated with an οutcοme in a given situatiοn οr experiment.

Given:

- Total number of balls in the bag: 4 white + 5 red + 6 blue = 15 balls

- Number of red balls: 5

For the first draw, the probability of selecting a red ball is 5 red / 15 total balls = 1/3.

After the first red ball is drawn, there are 4 red balls left and 14 total balls remaining in the bag. Therefore, for the second draw, the probability of selecting another red ball is 4 red / 14 total balls = 2/7.

After the second red ball is drawn, there are 3 red balls left and 13 total balls remaining in the bag. Therefore, for the third draw, the probability of selecting the final red ball is 3 red / 13 total balls.

To find the probability of all three balls being red, we multiply the individual probabilities together:

P(all red) = (1/3) * (2/7) * (3/13)

Simplifying the expression, we get:

P(all red) = 6/273

Therefore, the probability that all three balls drawn from the bag are red is 6/273.

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Answer:

27.8miles

first we add 37 and 17=54

then multiple it with 20 and divide by 100 so we can change it to percent

so it will be 10.8 miles and then we add it with 17 miles =27.8 miles

Answer:

A.

Step-by-step explanation:

as u can see,the other acute angle is 43° and the other is also an acute angle and acute angles must not surpass until 80° meaning, the other acute angle is 47°

\( \angle \: ACB = 43 \degree + \angle \:BCD \)

=> 90° = 43° + BCD

=> BCD = 90° - 43°

=> BCD = 47°

Option ( A ) 47° is correct answer

a) the curl of the vector field F is curl(F) = (\(e^z\) sin(x), -4e^y cos(z), 9\(e^x\) cos(y)).

b) the divergence of the vector field F is div(F) = 9\(e^x\) sin(y) + 4\(e^y\) sin(z) + \(e^z\) sin(x).

(a) To find the curl of the vector field F(x, y, z) = (9\(e^x\) sin(y), 4\(e^y\) sin(z), \(e^z\) sin(x)), we can use the formula for the curl in Cartesian coordinates:

curl(F) = (∂F₃/∂y - ∂F₂/∂z, ∂F₁/∂z - ∂F₃/∂x, ∂F₂/∂x - ∂F₁/∂y)

Let's calculate each component:

∂F₁/∂z = 0  (since there is no z term in the first component)

∂F₃/∂x = \(e^z\) sin(x)

∂F₂/∂x = 0  (since there is no x term in the second component)

∂F₃/∂y = 0  (since there is no y term in the third component)

∂F₂/∂z = 4\(e^y\) cos(z)

∂F₁/∂y = 9\(e^x\) cos(y)

Now we can substitute these values into the curl formula:

curl(F) = (\(e^z\) sin(x), -4\(e^y\) cos(z), 9\(e^x\) cos(y))

Therefore, the curl of the vector field F is curl(F) = (\(e^z\) sin(x), -4e^y cos(z), 9\(e^x\) cos(y)).

(b) To find the divergence of the vector field F(x, y, z) = (9\(e^x\) sin(y), 4\(e^y\) sin(z), \(e^z\) sin(x)), we can use the formula for the divergence in Cartesian coordinates:

div(F) = ∂F₁/∂x + ∂F₂/∂y + ∂F₃/∂z

Let's calculate each component:

∂F₁/∂x = 9\(e^x\) sin(y)

∂F₂/∂y = 4\(e^y\) sin(z)

∂F₃/∂z = \(e^z\) sin(x)

Now we can substitute these values into the divergence formula:

div(F) = 9\(e^x\) sin(y) + 4\(e^y\) sin(z) + \(e^z\) sin(x)

Therefore, the divergence of the vector field F is div(F) = 9\(e^x\) sin(y) + 4\(e^y\) sin(z) + \(e^z\) sin(x).

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Complete question is below

Consider the following vector field. F(x,y,z)=(9\(e^x\) sin(y),4\(e^y\) sin(z), \(e^z\) sin(x))

(a) Find the curl of the vector field. cur(F)=

(b) Find the divergence of the vector field.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

a state of commotion and noise and confusion

a loud, confused noise, esp. one caused by a large mass of people

In my words: noise/racket

In the text: He just managed to catch hold of Dori's legs, as Dori was borne off last of all; and up they went together above the tumult and the burning.

The volume of the medication required, we subtract it from the nebulizer output to find the amount of saline needed.

To determine the amount of saline needed to make the medication last the full hour, we need to calculate the total volume of medication required and subtract it from the volume delivered by the nebulizer.

Given:

- Albuterol dose: 15 mg

- Atrovent dose: 0.5 mg

- Nebulizer output: 10 mL per hour

- Nebulizer flow rate: 4 LPM (liters per minute)

First, we need to convert the nebulizer flow rate to mL per hour:

4 LPM * 60 min = 240 mL per hour

Next, we calculate the total volume of medication required by adding the doses of albuterol and Atrovent:

Total medication volume = 15 mg + 0.5 mg

Now, we need to convert the total medication volume from milligrams to milliliters. To do this, we need to know the concentration of the medication (mg/mL) or the volume of the medication that corresponds to the given dose. Without this information, we cannot convert the dose to volume accurately.

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Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Marty is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

Marty is correct. A rhombus is a quadrilateral with four congruent sides, which also makes it a parallelogram, since it has opposite sides parallel. Additionally, a rhombus is a kite, since it has two pairs of adjacent congruent sides. Therefore, a rhombus meets the definition of a parallelogram and a kite, and Marty's statement is valid.

Answer:

Marti is NOT correct, a rhombus is not a kite.

Step-by-step explanation:

A rhombus is not a kite, all sides of a rhombus are equal, all sides of a kite are NOT equal.

There are various differences between a rhombus and a kite.

Answer:

five times the quantity of m minus two

Step-by-step explanation:

\(b \: .) \: \: - 67.2\)

hope it helps

Oh hi, it's nice to meet you!

Answer:

35x+24=28x+45

Step-by-step explanation:

The (x, y) coordinates of point P are approximately (31.19, 20.67).

It is stated that the point P lies at a distance of r = 37 units from the origin and forms an angle of θ = 35° with respect to the x-axis, we can use trigonometry to find the x and y coordinates.

Using the trigonometric definitions, we have,

x = r * cos(θ) = 37 * cos(35°) ≈ 31.19

y = r * sin(θ) = 37 * sin(35°) ≈ 20.67

Therefore, the approximate (x, y) coordinates of point P are (31.19, 20.67). The coordinates (31.19, 20.67) represent the position of point P in the Cartesian coordinate system based on the given distance and angle measurements.

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Complete question - A point P lies in a plane and is a distance of r = 37 units from the origin of a Cartesian coordinate system. If the line joining the point and the origin makes an angle of = 35° degrees with respect to the x-axis, what are the (x, y) coordinates of the point P?

To build a series for the given function f(x) = (e^(2x) - 1 - 2x)/2x^2, we can start by finding the MacLaurin series for e^(2x) and then manipulate it to obtain the desired series.

The MacLaurin series for e^(2x) is given by:

e^(2x) = Σ (2x)^n / n! for n = 0 to ∞

Expanding the series, we get:

e^(2x) = 1 + 2x + 2x^2/2! + 2^3x^3/3! + 2^4x^4/4! + ...

Now, we can substitute this back into the original function:

f(x) = (e^(2x) - 1 - 2x)/2x^2 = (1 + 2x + 2x^2/2! + 2^3x^3/3! + 2^4x^4/4! + ... - 1 - 2x) / 2x^2

Simplifying, we have:

f(x) = (2x^2/2! + 2^3x^3/3! + 2^4x^4/4! + ...) / 2x^2

Now, we can divide by 2x^2 to obtain the series for f(x):

f(x) = 1/2! + 2x/3! + 2^3x^2/4! + 2^4x^3/5! + ...

Finally, we can write the final answer in proper summation notation:

f(x) = Σ (2^(n-1)x^(n-2)) / n! for n = 2 to ∞

To begin, we can write f(x) as:

f(x) = (1/2x^2)[e^(2x) - 1 - 2x]

Next, we will use the Maclaurin series for e^x, which is:

e^x = 1 + x + (x^2)/2! + (x^3)/3! + ...

Substituting 2x for x, we have:

e^(2x) = 1 + 2x + (4x^2)/2! + (8x^3)/3! + ...

Expanding the first two terms of the numerator in f(x), we have:

f(x) = (1/2x^2)[(1 + 2x + (4x^2)/2! + (8x^3)/3! + ...) - 1 - 2x]

Simplifying, we get:

f(x) = (1/2x^2)[2x + (4x^2)/2! + (8x^3)/3! + ...]

Now we can simplify the coefficients in the numerator by factoring out 2x:

f(x) = (1/x)[1 + (2x)/2! + (4x^2)/3! + ...]

Finally, we can write the series in summation notation:

f(x) = Σ[(2n)!/(2^n*n!)]x^n, n=1 to infinity.

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4+h≤ 7

h +1>3

Solve for h in both :

4+h≤ 7

Subtract 4 from both sides:

4+h-4≤ 7-4

h≤ 3

h +1>3

Subtract 1 from both sides

h +1-1>3-1

h >2

So the value of h is:

h≤ 3

a. The probability of, P(add both times) is 11/36.

b) The probability of rolling an even number less than 5, P(even, less than 5) is 5/36.

c) The probability of rolling the same number both times, P(the same number both times) is 1/6.

To find the probability, the number of outcomes that result in a sum of each integer is given below:

a. There are 11 outcomes that result in adding to an even number.

The probability, P(add both times) = 11/36.

b) Rolling an even number less than 5 has the following outcomes (2,1), (2,3), (4,1), (4,3), and (6,1).

The probability of rolling an even number less than 5 will be:

P(even, less than 5) = 5/36.

c) Rolling the same number both times has the following outcomes (1,1), (2,2), (3,3), (4,4), (5,5), and (6,6).

The probability of rolling the same number both times will be:

P(the same number both times) = 6/36

P(the same number both times) = 1/6.

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Complete question:

If a standard die is rolled twice, find each probability.

a) P (add both times) b) P (even, less than 5) c) P (the same number both times)

Answer:

52%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 25 numbers in 1-25, you need to divide 100/25 which is 4.

There are 13 odd numbers in 1-25 so you need to multiply 13x4.

13x4=52

There is a 52% chance she will pick an odd number.

Answer:

34i....................

In a perfectly symmetrical distribution, the median equals the mean. This means that half of the values in the distribution fall below the mean and half fall above it. So , the correct option is C.

In a perfectly symmetrical distribution, the median equals the mean. This means that half of the values in the distribution fall below the mean and half fall above it. The mean and median are both measures of the central tendency of a distribution and in a symmetrical distribution, they are the same value.

Option (a) is false because the range is the difference between the largest and smallest values in a distribution, whereas the interquartile range is the difference between the first quartile (25th percentile) and the third quartile (75th percentile), which are measures of variability.

Option (b) is false because the interquartile range is always smaller than the mean in any distribution, symmetrical or not.

Option (d) is false because in a symmetrical distribution, the variance and standard deviation may be equal, but this is not always the case.

So , the correct option is c.

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Answer:

24.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the factorial function to find the number of unique arrangements in a word.

There are 4 unique characters in 'OPAL'. As such, 4! = 24.

In the case that there were repeating characters, such as 'OPALA', then we would divide by the factorial of the number of repeating letters. That looks something like this:

\(\frac{5!}{2!} = 60\)

Hope this helped.

Answer:

i think 24 beacuse opal has 4 letters and then u mutiply it by 6 and get 24

Step-by-step explanation:

I sent help but no one answered :(

Jk, I got you fam

12(t + 2) + 4 ≥ - 8

12t + 24 + 4 ≥ - 8

12t + 28       ≥ - 8

12t               ≥ - 8 - 28

12t               ≥ - 36

t                  ≥ - 36 ÷ 12

t                  ≥ - 3

Solution:

t ≥ -3

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

12t + 24 + 4 > -8

12t > -8 -24 -4

12t > -36

t > -3

Your Welcome Also Can I Get Brainliest Need 1 More

Answer:

69

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

69 m²

Step-by-step explanation:

The figure is composed of 2 right triangles

The area (A) of a triangle is calculated as

A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) bh ( b is the base and h the perpendicular height )

A of triangle on left is

A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9 × 10 = 45 m²

A of triangle on right is

A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8 × 6 = 24 m²

Total area = 45 + 24 = 69 m²

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct answer is d. the chi-square test compares the difference between expected and observed frequency counts.

The chi-square test is a statistical test used to analyze the distribution of categorical data. It compares the observed frequency counts of a categorical variable with the expected frequency counts.

The expected frequency counts are calculated based on a null hypothesis, which assumes that there is no significant difference between the observed and expected frequencies.

The test statistic for the chi-square test is calculated as the sum of the squared differences between the observed and expected frequency counts, divided by the expected frequency counts.

The resulting value is compared to a chi-square distribution with a certain number of degrees of freedom to determine the p-value and assess the significance of the observed difference.

Therefore, options a, b, and c are incorrect because they describe other types of statistical tests that are used to compare means or variances between groups, while the chi-square test is specifically designed for analyzing categorical data.

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