Nurses should keep a close eye on the patient on aminoglycosides for any indications of diminished renal function, such as reduced urine output and rising blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels.
Can you earn a degree in nursing?With 94% of nursing graduates looking for work within six months of graduation, possessing a bachelor's degree will also increase your employability. There will be work opportunities all around the world thanks to the acceptance of your degree both domestically and internationally.
Is it hard to complete nursing school?There is a lot of reading, difficult exams, a convoluted schedule, and work to be done. Many of these elements could make studying challenging for you. From the time an individual applies until they graduate, the nursing profession is incredibly competitive.
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Sections stained for amyloid with crystal violet are showing stain bleeding into the surrounding mounting medium. This could most likely be corrected by:dehydrating the sections and mounting with xylene
ensuring a high content of sugar in the mounting medium
washing the sections well before mounting with glycerin jelly
sealing the edges of the coverglass with finger nail polish
In order to prevent the stain bleeding into the mounting medium is to dehydrate the sections before mounting with a suitable mounting medium like xylene.
Dehydration removes excess water from the tissue sections and helps to prevent any bleeding or diffusion of the stain into the surrounding medium. The use of a suitable mounting medium such as xylene also helps to seal the edges and preserve the stained sections.
Adding sugar to the mounting medium or washing the sections well before mounting may not necessarily address the issue of stain bleeding. Sealing the edges of the coverglass with nail polish may help to prevent air bubbles but is unlikely to prevent stain bleeding.
The issue of crystal violet stain bleeding into the surrounding mounting medium could most likely be corrected by dehydrating the sections and mounting with xylene. This process ensures that the sections are properly prepared and helps prevent the stain from bleeding into the mounting medium.
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in your mouth, the food mixes with saliva and is mechanically broken into smaller pieces. We call this process
Answer:
We call this process: chemical digestion
Which of the following insurance arrangements will be appropriate for a parent buying life insurance policy on a child where the parent is the policyowner
The kind of life insurance policy on a child where the parent is the policyowner is a third party insurance
What is third party insurance ownership?Third party insurance is a type of insurance that covers the insured party against claims made by a third party for injury or damage caused by the insured. The third party in this case is someone other than the insured or the insurance company.
This type of insurance is typically required by law in many countries and is most commonly associated with car insurance, but it can also apply to other types of insurance such as liability insurance for businesses. The ownership of third-party insurance refers to the person or entity that holds the insurance policy and is responsible for paying the premium.
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During shift report, the nurse states that a patient is receiving an oxytocin drip at 6 milliunits/min. The oxytocin concentration is 30 units in 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution. The IV pump should be set for how many milliliters per hour? _________mL/h
Answer:
... i think it should be 15
Explanation:
severity and outcomes of upper gastrointestinal bleeding with bloody vs coffee-grounds hematemesis. am j gastroenterol2018;113:358-66. doi:10.1038/ajg.2018.5. pmid:29380820
The study compared coffee-ground vomitus to the severity and prognosis of upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) in patients with bloody hematoma.
In addition to having more severe UGIB, individuals with coffee-ground vomiting also had a higher mortality rate, higher incidence of shock, and need for blood transfusion. Additionally, these individuals were more likely to require endoscopic intervention due to active bleeding during endoscopy. On the other hand, UGIB was less severe in patients with bloody hematoma and had reduced rates of shock, blood transfusions, and mortality. They were more likely to have experienced non-variceal bleeding.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Severity and Outcomes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding With Bloody Vs. Coffee-Grounds Hematemesis
Loren Laine 1 2, Stig B Laursen 3, Liam Zakko 1, Harry R Dalton 4, Jing H Ngu 5, Michael Schultz 6, Adrian J Stanley 7
Affiliations expand
PMID: 29380820 DOI: 10.1038/ajg.2018.5
Abstract
Objectives: Numerous reviews indicate bloody hematemesis signifies more severe bleeding than coffee-grounds hematemesis. We assessed severity and outcomes related to bleeding symptoms in a prospective study.
Methods: Consecutive patients presenting with hematemesis or melena were categorized as bloody emesis (N=1209), coffee-grounds emesis without bloody emesis (N=701), or melena without hematemesis (N=1069). We assessed bleeding severity (pulse, blood pressure) and predictors of outcome (hemoglobin, risk stratification scores) at presentation, and outcomes of bleeding episodes. The primary outcome was a composite of transfusion, intervention, or mortality.
Results: Bloody and coffee-grounds emesis were similar in pulse ≥100 beats/min (35 vs. 37%), systolic blood pressure ≤100 mm Hg (12 vs. 12%), and hemoglobin ≤100 g/l (25 vs. 27%). Risk stratification scores were lower with bloody emesis. The composite end point was 34.7 vs. 38.2% for bloody vs. coffee-grounds emesis; mortality was 6.6 vs. 9.3%. Hemostatic intervention was more common (19.4 vs. 14.4%) with bloody emesis (due to a higher frequency of varices necessitating endoscopic therapy), as was rebleeding (7.8 vs. 4.5%). Outcomes were worse with hematemesis plus melena vs. isolated hematemesis for bloody (composite: 62.4 vs. 25.6%; hemostatic intervention: 36.5 vs. 13.8%) and coffee-grounds emesis (composite: 59.1 vs. 27.1%; hemostatic intervention: 26.4 vs. 8.1%).
Conclusions: Bloody emesis is not associated with more severe bleeding episodes at presentation or higher mortality than coffee-grounds emesis, but is associated with modestly higher rates of hemostatic intervention and rebleeding. Outcomes with hematemesis are worsened with concurrent melena. The presence of bloody emesis plus melena potentially could be considered in decisions regarding timing of endoscopy.
What does HDA means? (I think that the abreviation it´s in spanish)
Answer:
HDA
Acronym Definition
HDA High Definition Audio
HDA Help Desk Analyst
HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)
HDA Hispanic Dental Association
Explanation:
either one of these have a nice day!
Answer:
Explanation:
HDA High Definition Audio
HDA Help Desk Analyst
HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)
HDA Hispanic Dental Association
What nursing intervention should be applied for a client with pneumonia of the right lower lobe?
1. Place on left side and elevate the foot of the bed.
2. Place on right side and elevate the head of the bed.
3. Place in Trendelenburg position.
4. Place in Fowler's position.
Placing the patient on their left side while elevating the foot of the bed is the nursing intervention that should be used for a patient with pneumonia of the right lower lobe. The correct answer is (A).
Allowing gravity to aid in the drainage of secretions can help enhance oxygenation and ventilation to the afflicted lung in this posture. The blood flow to the lungs can be enhanced and the effort required to breathe can be decreased by elevating the foot of the bed.
Encourage deep breathing, coughing, and the use of an incentive spirometer. To help with breathing and lung expansion, place the client in a semi-Fowler posture. If the client is unable to empty their throat, use nasotracheal suctioning. Observe the pulse oximetry.
Generally speaking, a slight forward bend that keeps your spine somewhat straight can help your breathing. However, it's important to prevent extreme forward bending and squeezing your chest by bending your neck and spine forward.
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A nurse is counselled for questioning a physician's order that made the physician mad. Which document best explains why the nurse was correct to question a physician's order that the nurse believed could be harmful to a patient
Answer:
a
Explanation:
what is the cause of apblastic anaemia
The most common cause of aplastic anemia is from your immune system attacking the stem cells in your bone marrow. Other factors that can injure bone marrow and affect blood cell production include: Radiation and chemotherapy treatments.
Explanation:
The most common cause of aplastic anemia is from your immune system attacking the stem cells in your bone marrow. Other factors that can injure bone marrow and affect blood cell production include: Radiation and chemotherapy treatments.
Which of the following is in compliance with
medical ethics?
A doctor tells a patient about the side effects
before starting a new treatment.
A doctor starts a new treatment before telling
the patient about its side effects.
A doctor tells a patient that there is no point
in giving informed consent, since the patient
needs the treatment to live.
DONE
Answer:a
Explanation:
Relating to Introduction:
3.5 cc of collagen injection into the lips is reported with code _________.
Collagen injection into the lips is reported with code 11950. It is part of the Procedure Code used in medicine.
What are procedure codes?The procedure codes refer to the distinct codes aimed at identifying what medical treatment was done to a client/patient.
These procedure codes can be used in different situations such as for example, surgery, medication, etc.
Procedure codes serve as a methodology of classification that specifies surgeries, medical interventions and/or diagnostic issues.
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Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
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Chlorpheniramine 100 mL
Lidocaine 2 oz
Banana Flavoring 1/2 tsp
Take 10 mL BID
14. How many 1 oz bottles will this solution fill????
To determine the number of 1 oz bottles the solution will fill, we need to calculate the total volume of the solution and divide it by the volume of each 1 oz bottle.
Given:
Chlorpheniramine: 100 mL
Lidocaine: 2 oz (approximately 59.15 mL)
Banana Flavoring: 1/2 tsp (approximately 2.46 mL)
Dosage: Take 10 mL BID (twice a day)
First, let's calculate the total volume of the solution:
Chlorpheniramine: 100 mL
Lidocaine: 59.15 mL
Banana Flavoring: 2.46 mL
Total volume = Chlorpheniramine + Lidocaine + Banana Flavoring
Total volume = 100 mL + 59.15 mL + 2.46 mL
Total volume ≈ 161.61 mL
Now, let's calculate the number of 1 oz bottles the solution will fill:
1 oz = approximately 29.57 mL
Number of 1 oz bottles = Total volume / Volume of each 1 oz bottle
Number of 1 oz bottles ≈ 161.61 mL / 29.57 mL
Number of 1 oz bottles ≈ 5.46
Therefore, the solution will fill approximately 5.46 (rounded up to 6) 1 oz bottles.
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The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the clients eyeballs are protuberant causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding which action should the nurse include in this clients plan of care?
A. Assess for signs of increased ICP
B. Prepare to administer IV levothyroxine
C. Review the clients serum electrolyte values
D. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the clients eyeballs are protuberant causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding which the nurse should Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
The correct answer is option D.
The nurse has observed that the client with newly diagnosed hyperthyroidism has protuberant eyeballs causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort.
This condition is known as exophthalmos or proptosis and is a common symptom of hyperthyroidism. Based on this finding, the nurse should include the action of obtaining a prescription for artificial tear drops in the client's plan of care.
Exophthalmos can cause dryness, irritation, and discomfort in the eyes due to the inability of the eyelids to completely cover the protruding eyeballs. Artificial tear drops can provide lubrication and moisture to the eyes, helping to alleviate these symptoms.
Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is not directly related to the client's presenting symptom of exophthalmos.
Administering IV levothyroxine or reviewing serum electrolyte values may be appropriate interventions for hyperthyroidism but are not directly related to the client's eye discomfort.
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can behavior be considered sexual harassment if someone doesn't intend to be offensive, but another person takes offense
Answer: Sexual Harassment of a student interferes with a
student’s right to receive an education free from
discrimination.
Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual
nature.
Sexual Harassment Can Be In the Form of:
Verbal Harassment
Non-Verbal Harassment
Physical Harassment
Explanation: •Federal law Title IX of the Education Amendments
of 1972 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex,
including sexual harassment in education
programs and activities.
T/F an independent online medical publication that provides reviews, research, and commentary of mobile medical technology.
Mobile Medical App, or MMA, is an independent online medical publication that delivers mobile medical technology and provides reviews, research, and opinion. This statement is TRUE.
What exactly is a mobile medical application (MMA)?MMA, or mobile medical application, is any kind of app that is available on a phone or tablet and that assists or supports the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and/or monitoring of an illness or certain health condition. These devices might be independent software or software that interfaces with a mobile device accessory. These software programs are classified as medical devices and are subject to the same restrictions as more traditional medical hardware. These applications must adhere to strict FDA requirements before they may be released to the public.
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You need to collect a 5ml sst, 1.7ml sodium citrate and 2.0ml edta tube from a patient that weighs 30lb. How much blood may be collected safely?
The quantity of blood that may be collected safely is less than 23.2 - 24.7mls.
Drawing blood from patients is usually performed by a trained medical personnel called phlebotomists.
Phlebotomy is defined as drawing blood from the vein through a venipuncture ( that is, a puncture in a vein) with the aid of a needle or cannula.
In phlebotomy charts for blood drawing, in children weighing 30-32 Ib, the safe blood volume that should be drawn per day is 23.2 - 24.7mls.
The blood is usually collected and placed in tudes according to the diagnostic test that is needed to be carried out.
Example of such tubes include:
Serum separator tubes ( sst): This contains separating gels and clot activators that is useful in chemistry tests that requires serum.Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA): This contains anticoagulants that prevents the blood collected from clotting.Sodium citrate tubes: Blood collected in this tube is used for coagulation testing.Since the total amount of blood needed is 5ml sst + 1.7ml sodium citrate + 2.0ml edta tube= 8.7ml
Therefore, the quantity of blood that may be collected safely is less than 23.2 - 24.7mls.
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One need to collect a 5ml sst, 1.7ml sodium citrate and 2.0ml edta tube from a patient that weighs 30lb, the blood may be collected safely - 1.3ml
According to the maximum blood draw from a pediatric patient chart, a patient with a weight of 30lb has the maximum limit of 10ml of blood to be collected safely.
PATIENT'S WEIGHT - MAX. AMOUNT TO BE DRAWN6 - 8 2.5
8 - 10 3.5
10 - 15 5.0
16 - 20 10
21 - 25 10
26 - 30 10
31 - 35 10
From the data provided
8.7ml of total blood collected as 5mlSST + 1.7 Sodium citrate + 2.0EDTA alreadyas we get from the chart that a patient with 30 lbs can give 10ml then1.3ml more blood may be collected safely as 10 - 8.7Thus, In the given case, the blood may be collected safely - 1.3ml
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The nurse is conducting a health screening at a local health fair. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as increasing the risk for developing testicular cancer? (Select TWO that apply). Undescended testicles. Vasectomy. Family history of testicular cancer. Multiple sexual partners. Exposure to the herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV 1).
The nurse should recognize that the following two factors(i.e Undescended Testicles and Family History of Testicular Cancer) increase the risk for developing testicular cancer:
1. Undescended Testicles: Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, refers to a condition in which one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum before birth. Men with a history of undescended testicles have an increased risk of developing testicular cancer compared to those with normally descended testicles.
2. Family History of Testicular Cancer: Individuals with a family history of testicular cancer, especially in close relatives like a father or brother, have an increased risk of developing the disease. There may be genetic factors involved that predispose certain individuals to testicular cancer.
The other options listed do not directly increase the risk for developing testicular cancer:
- Vasectomy: A vasectomy, a surgical procedure for male sterilization, does not increase the risk of testicular cancer. It is not associated with an elevated risk of developing this particular type of cancer.
- Multiple Sexual Partners: While having multiple sexual partners can increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs), it does not directly increase the risk of testicular cancer.
- Exposure to Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV-1): There is currently no established association between exposure to HSV-1 and an increased risk of testicular cancer.
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The nurse should recognize that the following two factors(i.e Undescended Testicles and Family History of Testicular Cancer) increase the risk for developing testicular cancer:
1. Undescended Testicles: Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, refers to a condition in which one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum before birth. Men with a history of undescended testicles have an increased risk of developing testicular cancer compared to those with normally descended testicles.
2. Family History of Testicular Cancer: Individuals with a family history of testicular cancer, especially in close relatives like a father or brother, have an increased risk of developing the disease. There may be genetic factors involved that predispose certain individuals to testicular cancer.
The other options listed do not directly increase the risk for developing testicular cancer:
- Vasectomy: A vasectomy, a surgical procedure for male sterilization, does not increase the risk of testicular cancer. It is not associated with an elevated risk of developing this particular type of cancer.
- Multiple Sexual Partners: While having multiple sexual partners can increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs), it does not directly increase the risk of testicular cancer.
- Exposure to Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV-1): There is currently no established association between exposure to HSV-1 and an increased risk of testicular cancer.
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how long should you wait before administering a second dose of naloxone
Naloxone wears off in 30 to 90 minutes. If the person does not wake up in 3 minutes, give a second dose of naloxone.
The administration of a second dose of naloxone, a medication used to reverse opioid overdoses, depends on several factors such as the individual's response to the initial dose, the potency of the opioid involved, and the specific guidelines provided by healthcare professionals or local authorities. if the initial dose of naloxone does not lead to a significant improvement in the individual's condition within 2-3 minutes, a second dose may be administered. This is because naloxone has a relatively short half-life compared to many opioids, meaning its effects may wear off before the opioid is fully metabolized.
However, it is important to note that the appropriate timing and dosing of naloxone should be determined by healthcare professionals. If you find yourself in a situation where naloxone needs to be administered, it is recommended to call emergency services immediately for further instructions and assistance.
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Which of the following pairs of terms identify spaces that are roughly PERPENDICULAR (at right angles to one another) in the human brain (give or take 30 degrees or so)?
superior frontal sulcus and intraparietal sulcus
lateral (Sylvian) fissure and superior temporal sulcus
central sulcus and intraparietal sulcus
inferior frontal sulcus and inferior temporal sulcus
superior sagittal sinus and inferior sagittal sinus
superior temporal sulcus and inferior temporal sulcus
The central sulcus and intraparietal sulcus identify spaces that are roughly perpendicular at right angles to one another in the human brain.
What are the different structures in the brain?One of the two primary sulci of the parietal lobe is the intraparietal sulcus, along with the postcentral sulcus.
The parietal lobe and the frontal lobe are divided by the central sulcus. The central sulcus, which divides the primary motor cortex from the primary somatosensory cortex and the parietal lobe from the frontal lobe, is a well-known landmark of the brain.
Therefore, option C central sulcus and intraparietal sulcus are correct.
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Question #5
What is a sphygmomanometer?
An increase in blood pressure
An instrument used to measure blood pressure
Written output charting blood pressure
A condition that causes blood pressure to fall
Explanation:
It is an instrument used for measuring blood pressure
THE_CONTROLS WHAT ENTERS AND LEAVES THE CELL.
O MITOCHONDRIA
RIBOSOMES
CELL MEMBRANE
O NUCLEUS
a client with mania is demonstrating hypersexual behavior by blowing kisses to other clients, making suggestive remarks, and removing some articles of clothing. which nursing intervention would be most appropriate at this time?
There is a client with mania who is demonstrating hypersexual behavior by blowing kisses to other clients, making suggestive comments, and getting rid of some articles of clothing. The intervention nursing could be most appropriate at this time is accompanying the client to his or her room to get dressed.
What is hypersexual behavior?
A person can be called to be hypersexual, when sexual behavior becomes the main focus in life, is difficult to control, and interferes with or endangers oneself and others. People with this disorder usually have fantasies, passions, and sexual addictions that are difficult to control. Not infrequently hypersexuality also has an impact on health, work, and social life.
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Brianna monitors her heart rate during workouts to ensure it is within the proper range. If she is below her target heart range, she increases her speed
What training principle is Brianna applying?
Frequency
Intensity
Time
Type
Answer:
Intensity
Explanation:
Frequency is the how often you exercise
Intensity is how hard you work during exercise
Time is the length of time you spend working out
Type is the activity/exercise that is performed
How does drinking alcohol and using drugs contribute to the women abuse?
Answer:
When someone is dr unk, or high, it causes one not to think straight or have control of their inhibitions. If they are vio lent when dru nk it can cause abuse.Being under the influence of any substance greatly increases the chances of abu sive behavior.
Explanation:
I hope i answered your question. stay safe:)
-Hailey
witch of the fallowing is an advantige of synthetic fiber rope
Answer:
It's safer, lighter, faster and easier.
Explanation:
Vitamins and their effect on the human body were not discovered until the 20th century.
a. True
b. False
The given statement, "Vitamins and their effect on the human body were not discovered until the 20th century," is true because major discoveries about vitamins were made in the early 20th century. The correct answer is option a.
The concept of vitamins and their essential role in the human body was not fully understood until the 20th century.
While there were early observations and discoveries related to specific vitamin deficiencies in earlier centuries, the systematic study and identification of individual vitamins and their effects on health occurred primarily in the 20th century.
Scientists such as Casimir Funk, who coined the term "vitamine" (later shortened to vitamin), and researchers like Frederick Hopkins and Christiaan Eijkman made significant contributions to the understanding of vitamins during the early 20th century.
Through their work, the importance of vitamins in maintaining health and preventing deficiency-related diseases became recognized.
So, the correct answer is option a. True
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Mrs. Brown, a 48-year-old woman, is living with a diagnosis of breast cancer. She has just come into the oncology clinic for her third round of chemotherapy. When asked how she is doing. Mrs. Brown starts speaking about how tired she is and how she is feeling burdened with keeping secrets from her daughter. Mrs. Brown has not told her daughter about her cancer diagnosis because she is afraid of how her daughter might react. Mrs. Brown says she is just barely holding on to things at this time, and she cannot take much more. She is also concerned about the chemotherapy and what she can expect, because the side effects are getting more intense.
Questions!!:
1. what should the nurse initially ask Mrs. Brown?
2.what should the nurse refrain from doing.
3.where does the experience lie for nurse guided by the human becoming theory?
4. How does human becoming theory guide the nurse in caring for their parents?
which of the following is not a part of person centered care
Answer:
please state the correct question and post the pic of the questions
As you identify clusters of data, you begin to recognize patterns or trends. Data often contain defining characteristics, or criteria, for nursing diagnoses. Listed below are three nursing diagnoses with defining characteristics. Which of the diagnoses would likely apply to Patricia Newman? Select all that apply.
Answer:
Ineffective breathing pattern
Impaired gas exchange
Diminished respiratory sound
Change in respiratory rate
Explanation:
Patricia Newman is 61 years old female who got admitted in a hospital due to difficulty in respiration. Her lungs are infected due to cough. She is facing hypertension and osteoporosis. She should be given relaxed medicine so she gets reduction in hyper tension. There should be observation for her breathing rate and if the rate is below the standard she should be provided with artificial respiration.