For each statement below, write true or false. ______ 5. Seismic waves change speed and direction when they encounter different materials.______ 6. P-waves travel through Earth's mantle.______ 7. S-waves do not travel through Earth's mantle.______ 8. Surface waves are the first to arrive at a seismic station.______ 9. P-waves are bent when they strike the core.______ 10. On seismograms, seismic waves recorded from more distant facilities are closer together than those recorded from facilities close to the epicenter.______ 11. S-waves do not enter the core because they cannot travel through solids.______ 12. Seismologists have reasoned that Earth's outer core must be liquid based on the disappearance of S-waves.______ 13. Studies of how waves reflect deep inside Earth show that Earth's inner core is solid.______ 14. The P-wave shadow zone does not receive direct P-waves.
Answers
Answer 1:
Seismic waves change speed and direction when they encounter different materials: True
Explanation:
When a rock suddenly breaks withing the earth or there is an explosion, it releases vibrations that flow across the earth as waves. These waves are called Seismic waves. The change in speed and direction of the waves as they encounter different materials is called refraction.
Answer 2:
P-waves travel through Earth's mantle: True
Explanation:
Another name for a P-wave is Primary Wave. They are a type of seismic wave and are known to be faster in the speed of travel than other types of seismic waves. They travel through the earth's mantle in compressional and extensional forms. They have the ability to alter the volume of rocks through which they travel.
Answer 3:
S-waves do not travel through Earth's mantle: False
Explanation:
Also known as secondary waves, or shear waves, S-waves can travel through the objects. They occur after an earthquake and have the ability to forcefully dislocate or shake in a back and forth manner, the land that is perpendicular to its direction of travel.
Answer 4
Surface waves are the first to arrive at a seismic station: False
Explanation:
The first wave to arrive at a Seismographic station (which is an observatory for recording, and processing shockwaves, oscillations of the earth generated by earthquakes and other deep earth movements) is the Primary Wave or P-Wave.
Answer 5:
P-waves are bent when they strike the core: True
Explanation
The core of the earth comprises predominantly of Iron and Nickel. Because of the strength and structure of the core, the P-waves can still pass through but have their speed slowed very significantly and refracted.
Answer 6:
On seismograms, seismic waves recorded from more distant facilities are closer together than those recorded from facilities close to the epicenter.: False
Explanation
On seismograms, seismic waves recorded from more distant facilities are father than those recorded from facilities close to the epicenter.
P-waves are known to be faster than S-waves. The difference between the speed in both waves are known constants. Thus the farther the distance of the waves from the point of an earthquake or epicenter, the farther apart they are.
Answer 7:
S-waves do not enter the core because they cannot travel through solids: False
Answer 8:
Seismologists have reasoned that Earth's outer core must be liquid based on the disappearance of S-waves. True
Answer 9:
Studies of how waves reflect deep inside Earth show that Earth's inner core is solid. True
Answer 10:
The P-wave shadow zone does not receive direct P-waves: True
The following statements shows if they are true or false properties of the S and P waves
5. Seismic waves change speed and direction when they encounter different materials is a True statement
6. P-waves travel through Earth's mantle is a True statement
7.S-waves do not travel through Earth's mantle is a False statement
8. Surface waves are the first to arrive at a seismic station is a True statement.
9.P-waves are bent when they strike the core is a true statement
10. On seismograms, seismic waves recorded from more distant facilities are closer together than those recorded from facilities close to the epicenter is a False statement
11.S-waves do not enter the core because they cannot travel through solids is a False statement
12.Seismologists have reasoned that Earth's outer core must be liquid based on the disappearance of S-waves is a True statement
13.Studies of how waves reflect deep inside Earth show that Earth's inner core is solid is a True statement
14.The P-wave shadow zone does not receive direct P-waves is a True statement
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Related Questions
Paragraph 1 discusses several important facts regarding the DNA molecule. Which of the following facts relates to Chargaff’s rule?
Answers
The facts are not found here, but Chargaff stated that there is an equal amount between Adenine and Thymine and as well as between Guanine and Cytosine.
What is the Chargaff’s rule?Chargaff’s rule is a law that indicates how nucleotide bases are proportionally arranged in the double helix of DNA.
According to this rule, the amount of Adenine (A) is equal to Thymine, whereas the amount of Cytosine is equal to Guanine.
In conclusion, Chargaff stated that there is an equal amount between Adenine and Thymine and as well as between Guanine and Cytosine.
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Options:
A. DNA contains a pentose sugar, nitrogenous bases, and a phosphate group
B. DNA is a molecule in structure
C. DNA contains thymine, cytosine, adenine, and guanine
D. Cytosine and guanine appear in equal proportions in DNA
Cytosine and guanine appear in equal proportions in DNA facts relates to Chargaff’s rule. Thus, the correct option is D.
What are Chargaff rules?The relationship between the nucleotides that make up DNA is described by Chargaff's rules: The amounts of Adenine (A) and Thymine (T) are equal, and the amounts of Guanine (G) and Cytosine (C) are equal (C).
The total number of purine bases equals the total number of pyrimidine bases in synthesis.
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orrectly label the following anatomical features of the tibiofemoral joint. Fibula Patellar ligament (cut) Patellar surface Femur Lateral condyle Medial condyle | Lateral meniscus Transverse ligament Tibia (a) Anterior view This is the bone of the upper leg.
Answers
The correct labeling of the anatomical features of the tibiofemoral joint is found in the attachment.
What are the anatomical features of the tibiofemoral joint?The tibiofemoral joint is the articulation between the femur bone of the thigh and the tibia bone of the shin in the leg. It is the largest joint in the human body and is commonly known as the knee joint.
The following are the anatomical features of the tibiofemoral joint:
Femur condyles: The femur bone has two rounded condyles (lateral and medial) at its distal end that articulate with the tibia.
Tibia plateau: The superior surface of the tibia has two flat plateau regions (lateral and medial) that articulate with the femur condyles.
Menisci: The knee joint has two C-shaped menisci (medial and lateral) made of fibrocartilage that act as shock absorbers and help to distribute forces across the joint.
Ligaments: Several ligaments stabilize the tibiofemoral joint, including the medial and lateral collateral ligaments on the sides of the joint and the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments that cross within the joint.
Synovial membrane: The joint is enclosed by a synovial membrane that secretes synovial fluid, which lubricates the joint and reduces friction between the bones.
Bursae: The tibiofemoral joint has several bursae (fluid-filled sacs) that help to reduce friction between tendons and ligaments that pass over the joint.
Together, these anatomical features allow for the complex movements of the knee joint, including flexion, extension, and rotation.
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4. The Dew point temperature signifies the air temperature at which________
will occur. For
example, if Halifax had a current air temperature of 11°C and a dew point temperature of 1°C, the air would
have to cool
____°C for rain to occur?
please help i need answer fast.
Answers
The temperature at which a parcel of moist air must be cooled at constant atmospheric pressure and constant water vapour content in order for saturation to take place is known as the dew point temperature (often abbreviated as DP or dew point).
What does a temperature at the dew point mean?In order to attain a relative humidity (RH) of 100%, air must be cooled to the dew point (at constant pressure). More water in the gas state can no longer be held by the air at this stage.
What occurs when the air temperature reaches the dew point?The dew point can be used to predict low temperatures, the generation of dew, frost, and fog. The air is saturated and has a 100% relative humidity when the dew point and air temperature are equal.
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An antibody titer could be done to determine if an individual has ever had chicken pox or has been vaccinated for chicken pox. This could be done with a/an ____________ ELISA.
direct
acute
selective
IgM
indirect
Answers
To find out if someone has ever had chicken pox or has had a chicken pox vaccination, an antibody titer test might be used. A/an IgM ELISA might be used to perform this. Option 4 is Correct.
A varicella titer, also known as a varicella antibody titer test or VZV titer, is a blood test that determines if you have developed immunity to chickenpox from a prior illness or immunisation. It examines the blood for levels of IgG antibodies (chickenpox antibodies).
ISR or lower: Negative - There is no detectable IgM antibodies to the varicella-zoster virus. ISR of 0.91 to 1.09 is ambiguous; more testing in 10 to 14 days may be useful. 1.10 ISR and higher Positive - Detectable IgM antibodies to the varicella-zoster virus at a significant level. Option 4 is Correct.
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Correct Question:
An antibody titer could be done to determine if an individual has ever had chicken pox or has been vaccinated for chicken pox. This could be done with a/an ____________ ELISA.
1. direct
2. acute
3. selective
4. IgM
5. indirect
Please help…. I’m begging for help to bring my grade up
Answers
this is the answer if I didn't get them all right I'm sorry
which of the following is a criticism of the educational approach to drug treatment?
Answers
Insufficient effectiveness Education alone may not be sufficient to prevent or treat drug abuse and addiction.
While providing information about the risks and consequences of drug use is important, it may not be enough to change behavior or address the complex psychological, social, and biological factors that contribute to substance abuse.Lack of individualization: Educational programs often adopt a one-size-fits-all approach, delivering general information to a broad audience. However, substance abuse and addiction are highly individualized issues, influenced by various factors such as genetics, mental health, trauma, and social environment. Failing to address these unique circumstances may limit the effectiveness of educational interventions.
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One criticism of the educational approach to drug treatment is that it focuses too much on providing information and not enough on addressing the underlying psychological and social factors that contribute to substance abuse.
This approach assumes that individuals will make rational choices based on information and knowledge, ignoring the fact that addiction is a complex disease that affects a person's ability to make logical decisions. Furthermore, educational programs often fail to consider the impact of environmental and social factors, such as poverty, trauma, and social isolation, that can contribute to drug use. Critics argue that a more comprehensive approach, one that addresses the psychological, social, and environmental factors that contribute to substance abuse, is necessary to achieve lasting recovery. A criticism of the educational approach to drug treatment is that it often relies on fear-based tactics and misinformation, which can be counterproductive.
This approach may not effectively address the underlying factors that contribute to drug addiction, such as mental health issues or socioeconomic factors. Additionally, it tends to focus on abstinence-only messages, neglecting harm reduction strategies that can be beneficial for those struggling with addiction. As a result, the educational approach may not provide the comprehensive support needed for long-term recovery and might be less effective compared to other treatment methods like therapy or medication-assisted treatments.
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The sympathetic nervous system has short preganglionic axons and long postganglionic axons, with the sympathetic ganglia located near the spinal cord. True False
Answers
Answer:
true
Explanation:
the sympathetic nervous system has short preganglionic axons and long postganglionic axons with the sympathetic ganglia located near the spinal cord.
The depicted cells (each labeled with a letter below) were taken from an organism that has two types of chromosomes.
What is the ploidy of Cell C?
Answers
The ploidy of a cell refers to the number of sets of chromosomes it contains. In this case, the organism has two types of chromosomes. To determine the ploidy of Cell C, we need to analyze the number of sets of chromosomes it possesses. From the information given, we can see that Cell C contains two distinct chromosomes labeled as X and Y. Therefore, we can conclude that Cell C has two sets of chromosomes. The ploidy of Cell C is diploid, which means it contains two sets of chromosomes.
About ChromosomesA chromosome is a long DNA molecule that contains part or all of an organism's genetic material. Most of the chromosomes in eukaryotes have packaging proteins called histones which, assisted by chaperone proteins, bind and condense the DNA molecule to maintain its integrity. The most important function of chromosomes is to carry the basic genetic material DNA. DNA provides genetic information for various cellular functions. These functions are essential for the growth, survival, and reproduction of organisms. 2. Histones and other proteins cover the chromosomes. Inversion is the event of attaching a broken chromosome back to its original chromosome, but in an inverted position. Inversions are called silent mutations because they do not cause serious problems in the individual.
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what characteristics of sedimentary rocks are most easily identified?
Answers
Answer:
layers
Explanation:
Answer:
They are non crystalline rocks
Please help, it is python
You are holding an egg-balancing race in which each contestant will need one egg. You want to know if you have bought enough dozens of eggs for all the contestants who have registered for the race. Wr
Answers
Sure, I can help you with your question! To determine if you have bought enough dozens of eggs for all the contestants who have registered for the race in Python, you can use the following code:```pythoneggs_needed = dozens_needed = eggs_needed // 12if eggs_needed % 12 != 0:
dozens_needed += 1print("You need to buy at least", dozens_needed, "dozen eggs.")```
Here's how the code works:
1. The `input()` function is used to ask the user how many eggs are needed for the race. The value entered is converted to an integer using the `int()` function and stored in the `eggs_needed` variable.
2. The number of dozens of eggs needed is calculated by dividing the number of eggs needed by 12 using the `//` operator, which performs integer division (i.e., it returns the quotient without the remainder). The result is stored in the `dozens_needed` variable.
3. If the number of eggs needed is not a multiple of 12 (i.e., there is a remainder), then one extra dozen of eggs is needed to make up for the remaining eggs. This is accounted for by adding 1 to the `dozens_needed` variable.4. Finally, the result is printed out using the `print()` function, which displays a message telling the user how many dozens of eggs they need to buy.
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Nuclear Reactions and The Life Cycle of Stars
Answers
1. Gamma rays are a type of radiation that can go through most materials.
2. Protons have a positive charge.
3. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons in an atom is referred to as the atomic mass number.
4. A positive electron is called a positron.
6. Changing the number of neutrons in an element makes isotopes.
9. Fission is the process in which an atom splits into two o more parts.
11. The decay rate is the amount of time taken by an isotope to break down.
Another term used for the rate of decay is the half-life, which is the time taken by half of a given amount of isotope to decay.
13. Hydrogen with one proton, one neutron and one electron is referred to as deuterium.
16. Beta minus (β⁻) decay occurs when a neutron is transformed into a proton and emits an electron and electron antineutrino.
17. Electrons have a negative charge.
21. Neutrons and protons have about the same mass: 1.67 × 10⁻²⁴ grams.
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A car has a velocity of 10 m/s on a local street it then enters a highway and changes its speed to 25m/s what was the cars change in velocity
Answers
In conclusion, the car's velocity increased by 15 m/s when it entered the highway.
The car's change in velocity can be calculated by subtracting the initial velocity from the final velocity.
Given that the initial velocity of the car is 10 m/s and the final velocity is 25 m/s, we can use the equation:
Change in velocity = Final velocity - Initial velocity
Substituting the given values, we have:
Change in velocity = 25 m/s - 10 m/s
Simplifying the equation, we find:
Change in velocity = 15 m/s
Therefore, the car's change in velocity when it enters the highway is 15 m/s.
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why is there more producers than TERTIARY consumers?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Because we lose energy each time we move up a trophic level, we have more producers than consumers, more herbivores than carnivores, more primary consumers than secondary consumers
Describe an individual with the karyotype shown.
a normal female
a normal male
an infertile female
an infertile male
Answers
Answer:
An infertile male!
Explanation:
Which of the following are part of the 10 essentials list
A:Map
B:Charcoal
C:Radio
D:Pillow
E:Knife
F:Matches
Answers
Answer:
The correct answers are - A. map, E. knife, and F. matches.
Explanation:
When an individual moves out in the woods or for the hiking he or she must have packed the few things as per the list of ten essential list. These items are very helpful in survival and unfavourable situations if occured. This list include following items:
1.Navigation- any map of the route or gps would help in locating yourselves
2. Headlamp or touch or flash light
3. Sun Protection
4. First Aid- for injury and emergency medical help
5. Knife- a pocket knife - must be packed to cut things and for protection
6. Fire or firse starter to light a fire to cook or make animals away from an individual such as matches
7. Emergency Shelter - a portable camp or a temerory shelter
8. Extra Food or - few package of protein bars,
9. water - water supplies and water bottles
10. extra clothes.
60 minutes remaining
Question 13 The most abundant photoreceptors that detect dim light are Cones.
A True
B False
Question 14 Muscular tissue that adjusts the shape of the pupil to regulate how much light enters the eye is IRIS.
A True
B False Question
15 Opsins are visual pigments derived from Vitamin D.
A True
B False
Answers
Answer:
Question 13:
B. False
The most abundant photoreceptors that detect dim light are Rods, not Cones. Rods are highly sensitive to low light conditions and are responsible for vision in dim light and peripheral vision. Cones, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and high visual acuity but are less sensitive to low light conditions.
Question 14:
A. True
The iris is the muscular tissue in the eye that adjusts the size of the pupil, controlling the amount of light entering the eye. It contracts or expands to regulate the size of the pupil in response to changing light conditions.
Question 15:
B. False
Opsins are visual pigments found in photoreceptor cells, specifically in the retina of the eye. They are responsible for capturing light and initiating the process of vision. Opsins are not derived from Vitamin D. Vitamin D is a separate compound involved in various physiological processes in the body, including calcium absorption and bone health.
Explanation:
Which describes gas exchange in the respiratory system?
A. Gas exchange happens through diffusion.
B. Gas exchange removes oxygen from the body.
C. Gas exchange occurs between the body’s cells and bronchi.
D. Gas exchange protects the body against foreign invaders.
Answers
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
A. Gas exchange happens through diffusion.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Which process is represetned by the arrow in the diagram?
Energy Available
for Use by
Living Organisms
Energy
Stored in
Food
a)
growth
b) respiration
c) regulation
d) photosynthesis
Answers
Answer:
photosynthesis
Explanation:
photosynthesis is the process by which food is gotten from the sun
Which of the following is something almost everyone can do to reduce his or
her carbon footprint?
O A. Take warmer showers. .
B. Turn off the lights when leaving the room.
O C. Cook with the oven more often.
D. Use the fireplace when a house is cold.
SUBMIT
Answers
The 2007 U.S. Energy Independence and Security Act set a goal of producing 36 billion gallons of renewable fuels by 2022. In 2017, the United States used approximately 19.4 million barrels of oil per day, or about 7.1 billion barrels per year (https://www.ceicdata.com/en/indicator/united-states/oil-consumption). If each barrel of oil produces about 32 gallons of usable fuel (gasoline, diesel fuel, heating oil), how would the production of 36 billion gallons of biofuels impact the overall amount of energy needed by the United States?
Answers
If each barrel of oil produces about 32 gallons (0.12 m³) of usable fuel (gasoline, diesel fuel, heating oil), the production of 36 billion gallons of biofuels will highly impact the overall amount of energy needed by the United States.
What is the U.S. Energy Independence and Security Act?The Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA) is a comprehensive energy bill that was signed by President George W. Bush on December 19, 2007.
The act aims to reduce the country's dependence on foreign oil and promote the use of renewable energy, sources, while also enhancing the nature's energy security. This act increases fuel efficiency standards for vehicles, encourage development of advanced biofuels etc.
Overall, EISA represents a major step forward in the US's efforts to transition to a more sustainable and secure energy future.
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which fluorinated gasses played a large part in destroying the protective ozone layer?A. HCFCs and CFCsB. HFCsC. SF6sD. PFCs
Answers
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and halons destroy the earth's protective ozone layer, which shields the earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV-B) rays generated from the sun.
Answer: A
If you were a paleontologist who studies fossils of very ancient life forms, where would be the best place to look for very old fossils: on land or in the ocean?
Answers
Answer:
land
Explanation:
The best place to look for old fossils would be on land. This is because millions of years ago about 90% of the Earth was covered in water. As the amount of water kept decreasing and the land increasing, the ancient life forms died and were covered by layers and layers of dirt and minerals creating fossils. Therefore these ancient life forms would found buried deep on land.
How are Primary Producers important to the alligators energy supply
Answers
Answer:
Primary producers are important to alligators' energy supply because they represent an indirect source of energy for the alligator.
Explanation:
Alligators do not feed on primary producers (the green plants). Young alligators feed on a variety of invertebrates, insects, amphibians, etc., while adult alligators' food includes snakes, birds, fishes, etc.
Some of the animals that serve as foods for the alligators depend on primary producers for their energy or also feed on animals that eat primary producers.
In other words, the energy supply of the alligator is indirectly dependent on the amount of energy that can be generated by primary producers via photosynthesis.
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Fill in the blank. According to ______ theory, when we learn something new, a neurochemical memory trace forms, but over time this trace disintegrate
Answers
Answer: Decay
According to Decay theory, when we learn something new, a neurochemical memory trace forms, but over time this trace disintegrate
A collection or mass of blood that forms between the skull and the dura mater is termed a(n):_________
Answers
A collection or mass of blood that forms between the skull and the dura mater is termed a(n) epidural hematoma.
What is a epidural hematoma?An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the inside of the skull and the dura or it can also occur when a vessel breaks and bleeds in this given space between the dura mater and the skull, it can be caused by head trauma.
This bleeding or mass can generate pressure in the brain, increasing intracranial pressure, which is rapidly increased, also generating a brain injury, thus compromising the brain. Being then urgent the drainage or extraction of the blood or mass.
Therefore, we can confirm that a collection or mass of blood that forms between the skull and the dura mater is termed a(n) epidural hematoma.
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12, What is a Control in an experiment?

Answers
Answer:
the factor that stays the same and doesnt change, its used to compare data between different variables
Explanation:
What are the next four numbers in the pattern below ? 3,9,7,13,11,17,15,
Answers
Answer:
21,19,25,23
Explanation:
You are adding 6 to get the next number, than subtract 2 from the the number
which is most likely to help an introduced species became invasive? 1. a low reproductive rate 2. big difference between original and new habitats 3. a strong predator in a new habitat 4. great tolerance to a wide range of conditions
Answers
Answer:
4.
Explanation:
with a great tolerance to a wide range of conditions the species would adapt and thrive which would allow it to reproduce and have all it needs to survive, grow, and take over.
Answer:
The correct answer is D. great tolerance to a wide range of conditions
Explanation:
took the test fam
Identify and describe the three ways that mutation affect organisms
Answers
Answer:
they may cause the development of a disease-causing allele
they may cause the development of a more beneficial allele
they in some cases, may have no noticeable affect
Explanation:
Answer:
Sample Response: Mutations may be beneficial, harmful, or neutral to organisms. If the change caused by a mutation is useful to the organism, then it is beneficial. If the change is damaging to an organism, then it is harmful. If the change is neither useful nor damaging, then the mutation is neutral.
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according to the complete replacement model, anatomically modern homo sapiens first appeared in africa ?
Answers
According to the complete replacement model, anatomically modern Homo sapiens first appeared in Africa. This model posits that anatomically modern humans (AMH) evolved in Africa around 200,000 years ago and then spread out across the world, replacing all other human populations that had already been there.
The complete replacement model is also known as the Out of Africa model. Scientists have proposed various models of human evolution over the years. The complete replacement model is one such model. According to this model, anatomically modern Homo sapiens first appeared in Africa and then replaced all other hominid populations, including the Neanderthals and other archaic humans, through migration and interbreeding. The Out of Africa model posits that modern humans evolved in Africa around 200,000 years ago and then migrated out to other parts of the world, replacing all other human populations that had already been there.
This model is supported by a wealth of archaeological and genetic evidence that shows that modern humans share a common African ancestry. Genetic studies have revealed that the genetic diversity of modern human populations is highest in Africa, which supports the idea that modern humans first evolved there and then spread out across the world. The genetic evidence also suggests that modern humans migrated out of Africa in waves, with the first wave leaving around 60,000 years ago and then spreading to other parts of the world over the next few thousand years.
There are, however, some limitations to the complete replacement model. For example, it cannot account for the fact that some populations, such as the Neanderthals and other archaic humans, lived alongside anatomically modern humans for thousands of years before disappearing. This has led some scientists to propose alternative models of human evolution that include interbreeding between modern humans and other hominids.
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