Target heart rate confirm that you are working at 70% to 90% of your maximal heart rate for improved cardiorespiratory fitness.
The number of beats per minute serves as a proxy for the average heart rate. Each person's heart rate variability can be influenced by a variety of factors, including physical activity and the body's demand for oxygen absorption. This frequency can be mechanically or manually determined using the arterial pulse. The most common reason for heart rate changes is exercise. The most popular technique for advising aerobic exercise is heart rate, which establishes a training zone using a percentage. The heart rate can be utilized to evaluate whether the heart is beating at 70% to 90% of its maximal heart rate when engaging in an aerobic exercise like Latin dancing.
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class iii restorations involve the interproximal surfaces of which teeth?
Class III restorations involve the interproximal surfaces of anterior teeth.
What is dental restoration?Dental restoration is the result of a dental procedure that aims to restore the shape, function, and appearance of the teeth.
Restorations can be divided into direct and indirect restorations.
Direct dental restorations are dental restorations that can be made directly into the tooth cavity in one visit.Indirect dental restoration is the restoration of tooth structure that is performed outside the patient's mouth. Materials for restorations are prepared in a dental laboratory and then attached to the prepared teeth.Usually, class III tooth restorations can involve the interproximal surfaces of the anterior teeth.
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label the autonomic plexuses in the figure.
The labels of the autonomic plexuses in the figure are
1. Pulmonary plexus
2. Celiac plexus
3. Superior mesenteric plexus
4. Hypogastric plexus
The pulmonary plexus is a network of autonomic nerves located near the root of the lungs, involved in the regulation of bronchial smooth muscle and gland activity. The Celiac plexus (assuming "cellax" was a typo) is a complex network of nerves situated near the origin of the celiac artery, playing a role in the innervation of abdominal organs. The superior mesenteric plexus is a network of nerves associated with the superior mesenteric artery, which is involved in innervating the small intestine and portions of the large intestine. The hypogastric plexus is a nerve plexus situated in the pelvic cavity, involved in the innervation of the pelvic viscera.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your figure can be seen in the Attachment.
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Can you WorkOut if you are having a tooth/gum ache??
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
because it doesn't affect any other body part besides your jaw
it is possible, buti dont think you can workout peacefully while having a toothache,
since the pain of the toothache is so painful, you must take care of your toothache first by rinsing with warm salty water , after your toothache is relieved then you can exercise without disturbance.
what is the set point (normal level) for blood glucose?
Blood glucose is an important measure of human health, as it indicates the amount of sugar present in the bloodstream at a given time. The set point, also known as the normal level, for blood glucose is the range of values that is considered healthy and safe for an individual.
This range can vary depending on a person's age, weight, and overall health status, as well as other factors such as diet and exercise.The set point for blood glucose is typically considered to be between 70-130 mg/dL, with a target level of less than 180 mg/dL after meals. When blood glucose levels fall below this range, it can result in hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, which can cause symptoms such as weakness, dizziness, and confusion.
On the other hand, when blood glucose levels rise above this range, it can result in hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, which can lead to complications such as damage to blood vessels and nerves over time. Therefore, it is important for individuals to monitor their blood glucose levels regularly, especially those with diabetes or other conditions that affect blood sugar regulation. Additionally, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including a balanced diet and regular exercise, can help to keep blood glucose levels within the set point range and promote overall health.
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Lactic acidosis is a dangerous human condition in which too much lactate builds up in the body, lowering the ph of the blood. It has many causes, including a genetic abnormality in which pyruvate builds up in tissues and is then converted to lactic acid. Given what you know about cellular respiration, propose what cellular defect this subset of patients with lactic acidosis might have.
A deficiency in mitochondrial oxygen utilization or reduced oxygen supply are the cellular defects, patients with lactic acidosis might have.
What is lactic acidosis?The accumulation of lactic acid in the bloodstream is referred to as lactic acidosis. When oxygen levels drop below a certain threshold in cells that are located in regions of the body that are responsible for metabolic processes, lactic acid is generated.
The most prevalent cause of lactic acidosis is a serious medical disease, specifically one in which blood pressure is low and an insufficient amount of oxygen is reaching the tissues of the body. Intense exercise or convulsions might produce transient lactic acidosis.
Lactic acidosis causes abdomen or stomach pain, decreased appetite, diarrhea, quick, shallow breathing, general discomfort, muscle pain or cramping, and unusual drowsiness, fatigue, or weakness.
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bertrand has attended medical school and is legally allowed to prescribe medication to his patients. what psychology-related job does bertrand most likely hold?
Bertrand's completion of medical school and the authorization to prescribe medication, it is most likely that he works as a psychiatrist, employing his expertise in both medicine and psychology to diagnose and treat mental health conditions.
Based on the information provided, it can be inferred that Bertrand, with his medical training and legal authority to prescribe medication, likely holds the position of a psychiatrist. Psychiatrists are medical doctors who specialize in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mental illnesses and psychological disorders. They have completed medical school and hold a medical degree (M.D. or D.O.), which grants them the ability to prescribe medication.
In their practice, psychiatrists employ a combination of medical knowledge, psychological theories, and therapeutic approaches to address the mental health needs of their patients.
They assess patients' symptoms, conduct thorough evaluations, diagnose mental disorders, and develop treatment plans, which may include medication management. Psychiatrists are also qualified to provide various forms of psychotherapy, including cognitive-behavioral therapy, psychodynamic therapy, and interpersonal therapy.
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A client experiences a large hematoma from a motor vehicle accident. The client develops jaundice due to increased breakdown of red blood cells (hemolysis). Which pathophysiologic process should the nurse remember when planning care for this client?
Bilirubin is excreted in the urine.
There is an increase in conjugated bilirubin.
Hemolysis is identical to obstructive jaundice.
Increased amounts of unconjugated bilirubin occur.
The pathophysiologic process should the nurse remember when planning care for this client is that increased amounts of unconjugated bilirubin occur.
Hemolytic jaundice can result from excessive hemolysis (the breakdown of red blood cells). The metabolism of the heme component of dead red blood cells produces more unconjugated bilirubin than the liver can conjugate, which raises unconjugated bilirubin levels in the blood.
Extrahepatic obstructive jaundice is accompanied by the excretion of bilirubin in the urine. Unconjugated bilirubin cannot be eliminated in the urine because it is not water-soluble. Not hemolytic jaundice, but extra- and intrahepatic obstructive jaundice is increased by conjugated bilirubin. Hemolysis and obstructive (blockage) jaundice are not the same thing (red blood cell destruction).
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Which are pathology suffixes
Answer:
Patho-: A prefix derived from the Greek "pathos" meaning "suffering or disease." Patho- serves as a prefix for many terms including pathogen (disease agent), pathogenesis (development of disease), pathology (study of disease), etc. The corresponding suffix is -pathy.
Explanation:
I. Inquiring Patients Want to Know You are working in a general practice medical office. Your patients ask you the following questions. In the space provided, indicate how you would respond to each question in terms the patient would understand. Use your textbook and Internet resources to develop your responses.
1. What causes an optical illusion?
2. How does LASIK surgery improve vision?
3. How does loud music damage hearing?
4. What is the reason for putting tubes in the eardrum?
5. What causes eye floaters?
6. Why do my ears get plugged when I am on an airplane?
7. What can cause an eardrum to rupture?
8. Why does a dog have a better sense of smell than a human?
9. Why can you not taste food when you have a bad cold?
10. Why do you feel dizzy when you spin around?
Internal controls in a hospital consist of the control environment, risk assessment, control activities, information and communication, and monitoring. Steps to increase internal controls include assessing the environment, implementing risk assessment, developing control activities, enhancing information and communication, establishing monitoring systems, providing training, fostering accountability, and reviewing procedures.
1. An optical illusion occurs when our eyes perceive something differently than what is actually present. This can happen due to the way our brain interprets the visual information received by the eyes.
2. LASIK surgery improves vision by reshaping the cornea, which is the clear front surface of the eye. This allows light to properly focus on the retina, leading to clearer vision.
3. Loud music can damage hearing because it can cause the hair cells in the inner ear to become overloaded with sound vibrations. Over time, this can lead to permanent damage to these cells, resulting in hearing loss.
4. Tubes are placed in the eardrum to treat conditions such as chronic ear infections or fluid buildup in the middle ear. The tubes help equalize pressure, improve ventilation, and prevent the accumulation of fluid.
5. Eye floaters are caused by tiny specks of debris or clumps of protein inside the gel-like substance called the vitreous humor, which fills the back of the eye. These cast shadows on the retina, leading to the perception of floaters.
6. Ears can get plugged on an airplane due to changes in air pressure. As the plane ascends or descends, the air pressure outside the ears changes, which can cause the eustachian tubes to temporarily close. This results in a feeling of ear fullness or being plugged.
7. An eardrum can rupture due to factors like severe ear infection, sudden loud noise, changes in air pressure, or injury. When the pressure in the middle ear becomes too high, it can cause the eardrum to tear or burst.
8. Dogs have a better sense of smell than humans because they have a larger olfactory bulb in their brain, which is responsible for processing smells. They also have more olfactory receptor cells in their nose, allowing them to detect and distinguish a wider range of smells.
9. When you have a bad cold, the congestion in the nasal passages can interfere with the sense of taste. Smell and taste are closely connected, and if the olfactory receptors in the nose are blocked, it can affect the ability to perceive flavors.
10. Feeling dizzy when spinning around is due to the vestibular system in the inner ear. This system helps us maintain balance and orientation. When we spin, the fluid in the inner ear continues to move even after we stop, causing confusion in the brain and resulting in the sensation of dizziness.
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What are examples of common diagnostic services workplaces? Select all that apply
Services for Diagnosis Employees may work in for-profit businesses, government-run businesses, or non-profit establishments like hospitals, clinics, and laboratories.
What is meant by diagnostic services?If you have a personal or family history of illness, are suspected to have a disease condition, or are experiencing persistent issues, your doctor may prescribe diagnostic testing for you. Blood work, urine testing, and other tests determined necessary by your doctor are included in laboratory services.Both invasive and non-invasive diagnostic tests are available. The skin is punctured or the body is entered during invasive diagnostic testing. Biopsies, colonoscopies, and drawing blood are a few examples. Non-invasive diagnostic testing does not require a skin break.Although prices can vary from vehicle to vehicle, the typical cost of a general diagnosis is between $88 and $111.To learn more about diagnostic services, refer to:
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A(n) __________ scan maps brain activity over time.
A.
EEG
B.
CT
C.
MRI
D.
PET
Answer:
D. PET is the correct answer
Explanation:
Hope this helps and if it does please mark me the brainliest!
Peace and Love
Answer:
D) PET is the correct answer
Explanation:
edge 2023
1. Conduct research to find four different food sources that could be part of a high-protein diet. For each food source, indicate the major amino acids and other nutritional benefits that are present, then indicate the recommended minimum daily intake of protein for adults. Cite the sources of your research. BBoldIItalicsUUnderlineBulleted listNumbered listSuperscriptSubscript
Answer:
1. Tuna (Protein content: 32g per 100g)
2. Breast chicken (Protein content: 31g per 100g)
3. Cheddar (Protein content: 25g per 100g)
4. Walnuts (Protein content: 16g per 100g)
Explanation:
1. Tuna. Tuna is rich in essential amino acids (i.e., lysine, methionine, cysteine, threonine and tryptophan), and omega-3 fatty acids, which helps to prevent cardiovascular diseases. Moreover, this food is an important source of vitamin A, B Group vitamins (i.e., thiamin, riboflavin, niacin) and minerals (i.e., calcium, phosphorus, iron, etc.) (Fatimah et al. 2019).
2. Chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in fat and an excellent source of protein, vitamins (vitamin B6, niacin), and many essential minerals (selenium, phosphorus,iron, calcium). Chicken is a rich source of methionine, the precursor of homocysteine (Bansal and Joshi 2017).
3. Cheddar. Cheddar cheese is produced from milk, which has a good content of calcium that helps to prevent osteoporosis and vitamin K. This food has significant quantities of essential amino acids (e.g., lysine, threonine, and tryptophan) (Gueimonde et al. 2019).
4. Walnuts. Walnuts are rich in fats (lipids), especially omega-3 fatty acids, which are required for normal brain function (Haider, Saida, et al. 2011). Moreover, walnuts have a high content of arginine amino acid.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and has had no cervical change in the last 4 hours. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
In active labor, cervical change, specifically dilation and effacement, is an important indicator of progress. If there has been no cervical change for a significant period, such as 4 hours, it may be a concern that labor is not progressing as expected.
The nurse should communicate this information to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. By notifying the healthcare provider, the nurse enables further assessment of the situation and discussion of potential interventions to help facilitate cervical change and progress labor.
It is important for the healthcare provider to evaluate the client's condition and make decisions based on the individual circumstances. The nurse's role is to advocate for the client, provide accurate information, and facilitate communication between the client and the healthcare team.
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John is in his early sixties. He has difficulties in remembering basic information, such as his own address. He often fails to recognize people and cannot carry out simple motor activities. John initially experienced loss of memory a few years ago; over time these symptoms have increased. He does not experience any fluctuations in consciousness. John is unable to carry out day-to-day activities. What diagnosis best fits John's condition?
symptoms of dementia.
carbon monoxide poisoning
Alzheimer's disease
The correct option is C, Based on the symptoms described, the diagnosis that best fits John's condition is dementia, specifically Alzheimer's disease.
Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects the brain, causing memory loss and other cognitive impairments. It is the most common cause of dementia among older adults, and its prevalence is expected to increase with the aging of the population.
The disease is characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein deposits in the brain, which lead to the loss of neurons and their connections. As a result, individuals with Alzheimer's disease experience a decline in cognitive function, including memory loss, difficulty with language, disorientation, mood changes, and behavioral problems. There is no cure for Alzheimer's disease, but there are medications and other interventions that can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
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Vitamins and their effect on the human body were not discovered until the 20th century.
a. True
b. False
The given statement, "Vitamins and their effect on the human body were not discovered until the 20th century," is true because major discoveries about vitamins were made in the early 20th century. The correct answer is option a.
The concept of vitamins and their essential role in the human body was not fully understood until the 20th century.
While there were early observations and discoveries related to specific vitamin deficiencies in earlier centuries, the systematic study and identification of individual vitamins and their effects on health occurred primarily in the 20th century.
Scientists such as Casimir Funk, who coined the term "vitamine" (later shortened to vitamin), and researchers like Frederick Hopkins and Christiaan Eijkman made significant contributions to the understanding of vitamins during the early 20th century.
Through their work, the importance of vitamins in maintaining health and preventing deficiency-related diseases became recognized.
So, the correct answer is option a. True
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when a normally well adjusted person becomes ill, she is likely to
Yes she is unfortunately
what is a change theory
answer - → Theory of Change is a methodology for planning, participation, and evaluation that is used in companies, philanthropy, not-for-profit, and government sectors to promote social change.
A patient who is experiencing blank suffers from swallowing excess amounts of air.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should assess for which complications? Select all that apply.
A. Infection
B. Hyperglycemia
C. ABO incompatibility
D. Electrolyte imbalance
E. Cardiac dysrhythmias
The nurse should assess for complications including infection, hyperglycemia, electrolyte imbalance, and cardiac dysrhythmias when caring for a client receiving TPN.
When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), the nurse should assess for the following complications:
A. Infection: TPN is administered through a central venous catheter, which poses a risk of infection. The nurse should monitor the insertion site for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage.
B. Hyperglycemia: TPN solutions often contain high levels of glucose, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels. The nurse should monitor the client's blood glucose levels regularly and adjust the TPN solution as needed to maintain appropriate glycemic control.
D. Electrolyte imbalance: TPN solutions are formulated to provide the necessary electrolytes for the client's nutritional needs. However, imbalances can still occur, and the nurse should monitor electrolyte levels and assess for signs of imbalance such as muscle weakness, cardiac changes, or neurological symptoms.
E. Cardiac dysrhythmias: Electrolyte imbalances, particularly abnormalities in potassium and magnesium levels, can contribute to cardiac dysrhythmias. Close monitoring of the client's cardiac status is essential.
C. ABO incompatibility: ABO incompatibility refers to a mismatch between the blood type of the client and the TPN solution. However, this complication is unlikely as TPN solutions are carefully matched to the client's blood type before administration.
Therefore, The nurse should assess for complications including infection, hyperglycemia, electrolyte imbalance, and cardiac dysrhythmias when caring for a client receiving TPN.
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Which of the following are methods of treating diabetes?
Contributing about 5% of the overall seminal volume, the ____________ glands are involved with pre-ejaculatory secretions for lubrication and preparation of the urethra for the passage of semen.
Contributing about 5% of the overall seminal volume, the bulbourethral glands are involved with pre-ejaculatory secretions for lubrication and preparation of the urethra for the passage of semen.
Urine is transported from the bladder to the point of expulsion from the body via the urethra, a conduit. In the male anatomy, it also serves as the passageway for semen to leave the body.
The external urethral sphincter's fibres surround the two tiny, round, yellowish pea-sized bulbourethral glands, which are situated behind and outside the membranous urethra.
The bulbourethral gland has a rather lengthy (3-5 cm) secretory duct that travels with the urethra via the perineal membrane.The corpus spongiosum shares vascularization and innervation with the bulbourethral gland.
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Which of the following best describes the most widely known injury associated with individuals routinely using
computer?
Answer:
Back Pains.
Explanation:
Seems correct.
Answer:
Wrist Spasm
Explanation:
given that the wrist is in constant contact with the keyboard while typing.
Explain the perspective of holistic medicine and the importance of preventative medicine. Write at least two sentences.
Holistic medicine is a type of treatment that focuses on the whole person—their mind, body, emotions, and spirit—in order to achieve optimal health and wellness. A holistic physician can treat a patient using any type of healthcare, including conventional medicine and alternative therapies.
A medical facility known as preventive medicine was established by the American Board of Medical Specialties (ABMS) and serves a crucial role by concentrating on the wellbeing of the local populations. The goal of preventive medicine is to promote wellbeing and health as well as to avert illness, disability, and death.
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what is 200000+20000 times 200000
Answer:
4.4×10(9)
Explanation:
200000+20000=220000
220000X200000=4.4000000000 or in shorter terms4.4×109
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In the following list of words, the accented syllable is shown in capital letters. The vowels need a long or short
mark added. As an exercise in how familiar you already are with medical words, add the diacritical marks to the
vowels. Check the answers at the end of the chapter.
6. anemia (a-NE-me-a)
7. angioplasty [AN-je-o-plas-te]
8. bursitis [ber-SI-tis)
9. disease (di-ZEZ]
10. hemoglobin (HE-mo-GLO-bin)
11. lymphoma (lim-FO-ma]
12. neuritis (nu-RI-tis)
13. osteoporosis (OS-te-o-po-RO-sis)
14. paraplegia (par-a-PLE-je-a)
15. pulse (puls]
16. radiation (ra-de-A-shun)
17. reflex (RE-fleks)
18. retina (RET-i-nal
19. rheumatism (RU-ma-tizm]
20. sciatica (si-AT-i-kal
21. septum (SEP-tum)
22. sinus (SI-nus)
23. therapy (THAR-a-pe]
24. typhoid (TI-foyd)
25. vaccine IVAK-sen]
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
6. a is short, both Es are long, last a is short
7. a is short, i sounds like long e, o is long, a is short
8. u is like short e, first i is long, second i is short
9. i is short, e is long
10. e is long, o is long, 2nd o can be long or short, i is short
11. y is like short i, o is long, a is short
12. u more like a short e, i is ling, 2nd i is short
13. o is short, e is long, o is long, o is short, o is long i is short
14. a is short, a is short, e is long, i is like long e, a is short
15. u is short, e is silent
16. a is long, i like long e, a is long, tion like shun
17. e is long, e is short
18. e is short, i is short, a is short
19. e is silent, u is more like oo, a is short, i is short
20. i is long, a is short, i is like long e or short, a is short
21. e is short, u is short
22. i is long, u is short
23. e is short, a is short, y is like long e
24. y is like long i, oi is same as oy as in toy
25 a is short, i is like long e, e is silent
At 12 breaths/min , on a dry day when the inhaled air has almost no water content, what is the body's rate of energy loss (in J/s ) due to exhaled water
Answer:
m = mass of water evaporated = 25 mg = 25 x 10⁻³ g = 25 x 10⁻³ x 10⁻³ kg = 25 x 10⁻⁶ kgL = latent heat of fusion of water to vapor = 24 ...
Explanation:
During shift report, the nurse states that a patient is receiving an oxytocin drip at 6 milliunits/min. The oxytocin concentration is 30 units in 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution. The IV pump should be set for how many milliliters per hour? _________mL/h
Answer:
... i think it should be 15
Explanation:
You're a forensic scientist who found a bone completely enveloped in tendon. What type of bone would you guess right away that it was?
Short Bone
Long Bone
sesamoid bone
Flat bone
According to the research, the correct option is Long Bone. It is the type of bone a forensic scientist would guess given the description of a bone completely enveloped in tendon.
To find the correct option amongst all other options, we need to know more about Long Bone and which characteristics they have.
What are the characteristics of Long Bones?The bony structures of the human body that are elongated that have a body and two ends or points are called Long Bones. In long bones, the length predominates with respect to the width and thickness and can be enveloped in tendon. They have an elongated shape, which allows identifying a body and two ends called epiphysis.Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Long Bone. It is the type of bone a forensic scientist would guess right away that it was.
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physician orders this to be given every 4 hours for a 66-lb child. The medication is
The recommended
dose of meperidine for a child is 6 mg/kg/day for pain. The
available as 50 mg/5 mL.
What is the total amount of medication that the child can receive in a day?
DO
Long-term care services often interface with what type of care?
A. Primary care
B. Rehabilitation
C. Secondary care
D. Various non-long-term care services
Long-term care services often interface with various non-long-term care services. The correct answer is D.
This is because long-term care services are typically required for individuals who have chronic conditions or disabilities that require ongoing assistance with activities of daily living. As a result, these individuals may require care from a range of healthcare providers, including primary care physicians, rehabilitation specialists, and secondary care providers.Primary care providers, such as family physicians and general practitioners, are often the first point of contact for individuals seeking medical care. They may refer patients to long-term care services if they have chronic conditions that require ongoing management or if they are no longer able to perform activities of daily living on their own.Rehabilitation specialists, such as physical therapists and occupational therapists, may also interface with long-term care services. These providers can help individuals recover from injuries or illnesses and improve their physical function, which can help them maintain their independence and reduce their need for long-term care services.Secondary care providers, such as specialists and hospital-based providers, may also interface with long-term care services. These providers may be called upon to manage complex medical conditions or provide advanced medical interventions for individuals who require specialized care.In summary, long-term care services often interface with a range of healthcare providers, including primary care physicians, rehabilitation specialists, and secondary care providers. This collaboration helps to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate care and support they need to maintain their health and independence over the long term.For more such question on care
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