A doctor writes a prescription for four of his chemotherapy patients. Ernie receives a prescription for sumatriptan, Carrie receives a prescription for hydrocodone, Jana receives a prescription for progesterone hormones, and Joel receives a prescription for zoledronic acid.
Which BEST lists the symptoms the prescribed drugs might be treated?
a. Ernie has migraine headaches, Carrie has severe bone pain, Jana has been losing too much weight, and Joel has many symptoms from hypercalcemia.
b. Ernie has severe bone pain, Carrie has been losing too much weight, Jana has migraine headaches, and Joel has many symptoms from hypercalcemia.
c. Ernie has severe bone pain, Carrie has many symptoms from hypercalcemia, Jana has migraine headaches, and Joel has been losing too much weight.
d. Ernie has been losing too much weight, Carrie has severe bone pain, Jana has migraine headaches, and Joel has many symptoms from hypercalcemia.
Answer:
A. Ernie has migraine headaches, Carrie has severe bone pain, Jana has been losing too much weight, and Joel has many symptoms from hypercalcemia.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of visceral muscle? A. Fatigues easily B. Responds slowly C. May remain contracted for a long time D. Involuntarily controlled
Which organ performs the given function? The roof of the mouth separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity. The is flexible and closes off the nasal cavity when you swallow.
How quickly a drug enters your bloodstream also depends on __________.
The quantity of food in the intestine, the size of the medicine preparation's particles, and the pH of the contents of the intestine all affect how quickly nutrients are absorbed.
What quickly a drug enters your bloodstream depends?The quickest way to make medications work on the body and brain is to inject them straight into the bloodstream.
The manner in which a medicine is ingested affects how soon it enters the bloodstream. The amount of solubility a medicine has affects how long it takes to dissolve. Most medications typically disappear within 30 minutes, on average.
The amount of food in the intestine, the size of the medication preparation's particles, and the pH of the intestine's contents all have an impact on how rapidly nutrients are absorbed.
Therefore, A medicine can start working intravenously within a few seconds, making this a good emergency therapy option.
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Describe the physiological processes involved that will result following an increase in arterial pressure
Answer:
A rise in arterial pressure reduces baroreceptor afferent activity, resulting in further inhibition of the sympathetic and facilitation of parasympathetic output. This produces vasodilation, venodilation, and reductions in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, which combine to normalize arterial pressure.
Explanation:
Cell Physiology
Choose the correct answer:
1- Phospholipase C signaling pathway involves
a- Protein kinase A
b-Tyrosine kinase
c- Inositol triphosphate
d-Protein phosphatase
2) Ribosomes are responsible for synthesis of all proteins except
a- Cytoplasmic proteins
b- Lysosomal proteins
c-mitochondrial protein
d-Nuclear protiens
3) Simple diffusion through bilipid layer involve the following except
a-hydrophobic molecules
b-lipophilic molecules
c- charged molecules
d- low molecular weight molecules
4) microtubules can perform all the following except
a-Cytoskeleton
b- tracts used by myosin
c- move sister chromatids apart during mitosis
D
low molecular weight molecules
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include:
protein buffering.
kidney excretion of HCO3.
prolonged exhalations to blow off CO2.
kidney excretion of H+.
For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include kidney excretion of H+. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
Respiratory acidosis is a medical condition that occurs when there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in the pH of the blood. This condition is typically caused by a problem with the lungs or the respiratory system that prevents the proper exchange of gases, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or a severe asthma attack. The symptoms of respiratory acidosis can include shortness of breath, confusion, fatigue, and lethargy.
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A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for pramlintide therapy to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
a) mix pramlintide with insulin in the syringe
b) administer pramlintide before meals
c) take pramlintide once daily at bedtime
d) inject pramlintide into the upper arm
The nurse should advise the patient to take pramlintide before meals if they have a prescription for the medication to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus.
What method would be best to deliver insulin?Injections of insulin work best when administered in the abdomen. The blood absorbs insulin from the upper arms slightly more slowly, and from the thighs and buttocks even more slowly. You'll get the best benefits from your insulin if you inject it in the same general place, like, say, your abdomen.
The ideal insulin for type 1 diabetes?Multiple daily injections should be used to treat the majority of persons with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Comparing basal insulin analogues to human neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin, they are more effective.
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2. Hard boiled eggs can be left out of refrigeration for only 3-4 hours.
True or false
Answer:false
Explanation: this is because the bacteria in the egg has to stay at a certain temperature to stay good so therefore they will go bad
hope this helped
A defect in the formation of the neural tube during early fetal development can occur from a lack of.
Answer:
folate
Explanation:
A folate deficiency can be prevented through supplementation of the dietary supplement. Folate is also known as Vitamin B9.
the nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the hospital with abdominal spasms and pain associated with severe diarrhea. which serum blood level would the nurse monitor
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the hospital with abdominal spasms and pain associated with severe diarrhea. The serum blood level would the nurse monitor in Potassium
This is further explained below.
What is serum blood level?Generally, The quantity of a certain medicine that is present in your blood at the moment that it is tested is referred to as its serum blood level.
In conclusion, Many of the drugs that are used to treat bipolar illness have what is known as a narrow "therapeutic window," which means that the gap between what is considered a therapeutic level and what is considered a toxic level may be rather narrow in some people.
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What would be the combining form for the terms Tachycardic, Gastritis, or Intercostal?
Answer:
i d k
Explanation:
Why antihistamine drugs like suprastin do not block the stimulatory effect of
histamine on these stomach cells
Claritin (loratadine) is an antihistamine used to treat allergy symptoms. Claritin blocks the action of histamine, a substance in the body that initiates allergic symptoms like itching, sneezing, runny nose, and allergic skin rashes. Claritin is available as a generic drug. Claritin interact with different drugs. Benadryl may interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), other over-the-counter cough, cold, allergy, or insomnia medications, anxiety or sleep medicines, antidepressants, or any other medications that make you feel drowsy, sleepy, or relaxed.
Claritin may interact with certain antibiotics, antifungal medications, and acid-reducing drugs.
Which of the following is the term used to refer to performance measures to
improve patient outcomes required by The Joint Commission?
Quality Measures
Core Measures
Best Practices
Federal Mandates
Answer: Quality Measures
Explanation:
A pharmacist is adding 1000 mg of pure codeine powder to 100 cc of tylenol with codeine elixir (120 mg/12 mg/5 cc). the resultant mixture should be classified as________.
The answer is CFR Title 21, Schedule III (clickable link for reference), which states, "No more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters, or no more than 90 milligrams of codeine per dosage unit, equal to or greater than ” is stated.
So 100ml is 240mg (12mg/5ml x 100ml) of codeine, and adding 1000mg of codeine to 100ml is 1240mg or 1.24g (1000mg + 240mg). = 1240 mg), which he has less than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 ml, so can be classified as Schedule III
Toronto Star, from five pharmacies he purchased 1,000 tablets. .
Codeine is an addictive narcotic and countries such as the United States, Sweden and Germany make pain relievers available only by prescription.
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injury prevention is an organized effort to prevent injuries or to minimize their severity. a. true b. false
The given statement Injury prevention is an organized effort to prevent injuries or to minimize their severity is TRUE brcause it involves identifying potential hazards and implementing strategies to eliminate or minimize them.
Injury prevention refers to the process of taking organized steps to prevent or reduce the risk of injuries and their severity.
Injury prevention efforts can be directed towards individuals, communities, or at the policy level. The goal is to promote safety and reduce the incidence and impact of injuries, which can have significant physical, emotional, and financial consequences.
Examples of injury prevention efforts include public education campaigns, safety regulations, and the use of protective equipment.
By taking a proactive approach to injury prevention, we can help to create safer environments and reduce the burden of injuries on individuals and society as a whole.
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Which Of The Following Syringes Should Be Used To Measure 0.72 ML?
A:5 ml syringe
B:tuberculin syringe
C:3 ml syringe
D:insulin syringe
A tuberculin syringe should be used to measure 0.72 ML. The correct option is B.
What is tuberculin syringe?Tuberculin syringes are devices that include a needle to measure and deliver a specific amount of liquid. They are used to oversee medicines, vaccines, or other substances subcutaneously or intradermally.
A tuberculin syringe should be used to measure 0.72 ML.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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Change the stimulus to read: Edward Jenner? ’s smallpox inoculation experiment was based on his observation that dairymaids who had had cowpox did not contract smallpox. How did Jenner form his hypothesis from this observation? He asked what would happen if he inoculated a person with cowpox fluid and then later with smallpox fluid. He tested different existing inoculations to see which one was most effective in preventing smallpox. He observed dairymaids who had contracted cowpox to see whether they became immune to smallpox. He drew a conclusion about dairymaids who got cowpox becoming immune to getting smallpox.
Answer: Option A) He asked what would happen if he deliberately inoculated someone with cowpox fluid from another person.
Explanation : Edward Jenner wanted to know what would happen if he deliberately inoculate the cowpox fluid from some person to another. He tested this experimental results and later on came up with the hypothesis. Which roughly state that someone will not get smallpox because they already had cowpox.
Edward Jenner deliberately inoculates the cowpox fluid from one person to another person to know what would happen to that person. Thus, option A is correct.
What is smallpox?Smallpox has been a contagious disease that affects in the term of acute diseases and spread with contact with the infected person.
The discovery of a vaccine for smallpox was awarded to Edward Jenner with his research considering the exposure to cowpox as the vaccine to protect against smallpox.
Edward Jenner wanted to know the result of his hypothesis whether the person with cowpox will get affected by smallpox or not.
Later on, Edward Jenner discovered vaccination. He observed that the dairymaids who were working with cows got lesions on their hands.
Thus, he concluded that these dairymaids were immune to smallpox. Hence, option A is correct.
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what is 200000+20000 times 200000
Answer:
4.4×10(9)
Explanation:
200000+20000=220000
220000X200000=4.4000000000 or in shorter terms4.4×109
Question 7
Extending equal pay requirements to all persons who are doing equal work is known
as
O cost/benefit analysis.
O due process.
O comparable worth.
O fidelity.
Extending equal pay requirements to all persons who are doing equal work is known as Comparable worth.
Option C is correct.
Comparable worth :Similar worth, also known as sex equity or pay equity, is the idea that men and women should be treated equally for work that requires similar abilities, responsibilities, and effort. Comparable worth involves valuing jobs that are dominated by men and women. Discrimination based on gender only affects women. To meet customer preferences, one gender can be chosen over another. Under the Equal Pay Act, men and women working in the same position cannot be paid differently.
What is similarity in value analysis?Comparable worth emphasizes the value a position brings to a company. This indicates that the value of two very different jobs within the same organization could be found to be the same. Based on the review metric, for instance, it could be determined that an engineer and an accountant provide the same value to the business.
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medical personnel sometimes adopt the ____________________ philosophy of corrections and deprive inmates of services because of a belief that they don’t deserve treatment.
Medical personnel sometimes adopt the punitive philosophy of corrections and deprive inmates of services because of a belief that they don't deserve treatment.
Persons assigned solely, whether permanently or temporarily, to medical tasks, such as finding, gathering, transporting, diagnosing, or treating the sick, injured, or shipwrecked, preventing disease, or managing or operating medical units or medical transports. Military and civilian medical staff, including physicians and paramedics from the Red Cross or Red Crescent, as well as civil defence staff are considered medical personnel. They are entitled to the protection and treatment mandated by international law, are not to be the target of violence, are not regarded as prisoners of war, and must be released if captured by an enemy.
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Dr. Swartz, a general practitioner, is usually late for all his appointments, and patients have to wait for hours to see him. At present, he has open office hours. He wants to shorten the waiting time but still be assured that he has patients to see throughout the day. Why do you think that patients would prefer appointments? Why not?
HCV RNA is more sensitive than HCV antibody. Anti-HCV becomes (+) in 6 weeks. It does not imply recovery, because it may become (-) after recovery Acute HCV: ? Resolved HCV: ? Chronic HCV: ?
HCV RNA can detect the virus at an earlier stage than HCV antibody. Anti-HCV becomes positive in 6 weeks, but it does not necessarily imply recovery, as it may become negative after recovery.
HCV RNA is a test that detects the genetic material of the virus itself, while HCV antibody detects the body's immune response to the virus.
HCV RNA can be detected within 1-2 weeks after infection, while HCV antibody may take up to 6 weeks to become positive.
Therefore, HCV RNA is considered to be a more sensitive test for early detection of HCV infection.
Regarding the different stages of HCV infection, acute HCV refers to the first 6 months after infection, where the virus is actively replicating in the body. Resolved HCV refers to cases where the body has cleared the virus, either with or without treatment.
Chronic HCV refers to cases where the virus persists in the body for more than 6 months, which can lead to liver damage and other complications if left untreated.
Hence , HCV RNA is a more sensitive test for early detection of HCV infection than HCV antibody. The different stages of HCV infection include acute HCV, resolved HCV, and chronic HCV.
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lymphocytes contained in the thymus gland that act on antigens:
Lymphocytes contained in the thymus gland that act on antigens are T cells. The thymus gland is found in the upper part of the chest, posterior to the breastbone, and is a vital organ in the immune system as it plays a significant role in the maturation of T cells.
T cells mature and grow in the thymus gland, becoming functional immune cells after interacting with antigens. These cells are capable of recognizing and targeting foreign invaders, as well as cancer cells. T cells are an important component of the adaptive immune system and play a vital role in fighting infections.
They also have memory capabilities, meaning that they are capable of remembering past infections and can respond more quickly if the same pathogen enters the body again.
T cells are differentiated into two primary groups:
CD4+ and CD8+ cells.
CD4+ cells are known as helper T cells and are responsible for activating and assisting other immune cells. They also play a critical role in the immune system's regulation, helping to prevent autoimmune diseases.
On the other hand,
CD8+ cells are known as cytotoxic T cells and have the ability to directly target and kill infected cells.
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more than 50% of all cancers involve an acquired mutation in the tumor suppressor gene _____.
More than 50% of all cancers involve an acquired mutation in the tumor suppressor gene TP53.
More than 50% of all cancers involve an acquired mutation in the tumor suppressor gene p53. The p53 gene is one of the most important genes involved in regulating cell growth and preventing the formation of tumors. When p53 is functioning normally, it helps to repair DNA damage or triggers apoptosis (programmed cell death) if the damage is too severe. However, mutations in the p53 gene can disrupt these processes, allowing damaged cells to continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to the formation of tumors. Mutations in the p53 gene have been found in a wide range of cancers, including lung, breast, colon, and ovarian cancer, making it a key target for cancer research and therapy development.
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Mitochondria are
A. found in the plasma membrane.
B. organelles that contain the genetic material for the cell.
C. cells with flagella.
D. "batteries" that provide energy for cells.
Answer:
D
Mitochondria are the powerhouses of cells
You have a patient that has been suffering from an infectious disease for two years. The infection is characterized by fluctuating symptoms with acute symptoms that periodically resolve. Based on the information presented, which statement best describes this infection
Answer:
the patient must not have a functioning immune system
An infectious disease is caused by a virus or bacteria and can be communicable. The fluctuating symptom of the disease describes that the person is suffering from a viral infection. Thus, option d is correct.
What is a viral infection?
A viral infection is a disease caused by a virus that causes flu and common cold as common symptoms. Viruses are very different organisms and hijack the cellular and genetic mechanisms of the host cells.
Virus infections are characterized by infecting the immune system leading to the body being susceptible to other infections. It challenges the body by infecting again and again leading to fluctuating symptoms.
Therefore, option d. the viral infection is characterized by fluctuating and acute symptoms.
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Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was, You have a patient that has been suffering from an infectious disease for two years. The infection is characterized by fluctuating symptoms with acute symptoms that periodically resolve. Based on the information presented, which statement best describes this infection?
a. the long time course suggests that this is not an infectious disease
b. the patient must not have a functioning immune system
c. this infectious disease exhibits latency
d. this is a typical viral disease course
what is the medical billing code used for a pinworm examination?
The medical billing code used for a pinworm examination is Q0113.
For a child suffering from pinworms, Pinworm-killing oral medications are used during treatment, along with thorough washing of bed linens, pajamas, and undergarments. All should receive care for the best results. The prevention of disease transmission is facilitated by frequent and thorough handwashing. The child should also be urged to adhere to other hygienic measure, for e.g regular and everyday baths and daily changing of undergarments; the caring should teach caretakers to keep the child's fingernails short and clean. Changing personal habits, like playing in dirt or nail-eating, may reduce re-infection.
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the emergency team suspects that alexandra may have sustained a neck injury during the accident. what should be done to protect the spinal cord
Answer:
okk plz mark brainlist 1