DNA is contained in the cytoplasm true false

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

false

Explanation:

DNA is found in the nucleus of the cell

Answer 2
False!, hope that helps

Related Questions

At what point in the pregnancy is the fetus’ brain fully developed?.

Answers

Answer:

At just six weeks, the embryo's brain and nervous system begin to develop, although the complex parts of the brain continue to grow and develop through the end of pregnancy, with development ending around the age of 25.

Explanation:

The brain begins with the neural tube, formed in the first month of the embryo’s growth. The neural tube closes around week 6 or 7, at which point the brain separates into three parts: front brain, midbrain, and hindbrain. These three parts will eventually develop into the specialized parts of the brain, and the cerebrum will fold into the left and right halves of the brain.

From the time the neural tube closes, around week 7, the brain will grow at a rate of 250,000 neurons per minute for the next 21 weeks. Ultrasounds can reveal the embryo moving as early as 6 weeks after conception (or 8 pregnancy weeks), detecting the electrical impulses that govern movement and indicating that the brain is beginning to function.

what do you do when your lower back and ribs hurt form shoveling snow

Answers

Answer:stretch

Explanation:

start by applying ice for the first day or two it will help to reduce bruising, pain, and inflammation. Place the ice back between a towel and apply for 20 minutes on sore muscles. After the first two days, alternate with heat to increase blood flow and relax tight muscles.

1. Note what quality makes Orpheus special. According to the first sentence, how much did the Greeks value this quality?
2. What questions do you have about what the underworld is like?
3. Recall the rule Hades gave to Orpheus.
4. Reread lines 66–74. What is the “dim shade” at Orpheus’ heels? Why does the shade disappear? If you’re not sure, try rereading lines 41–45 and then rereading this passage to clarify your understanding.
5. How are Orpheus and Eurydice reunited?
6. Why does Hades at first agree to return Eurydice to Orpheus?
7. Compare “Orpheus and Eurydice” to William Shakespeare’s “Song of Orpheus” on page 657. Identify the part of the myth the poem describes. Which literary work, the myth or the poem, better helps you visualize the scene? Explain your answer with details from the selection you choose.
8. What kind of behavior do you think this myth was meant to encourage?
9. In this myth, the gods often disapprove of the way people conduct themselves. Explain how the gods react to humans’ behavior. Use at least two of the Academic Vocabulary words in your response.

In the myth of Orpheus and Eurydice

Answers

1.The quality that makes Orpheus special is his ability to charm even the gods with his music. The Greeks valued this quality highly, as evidenced by the fact that Orpheus was considered the greatest musician of all time and was said to have enchanted all living things with his songs.

2.Some questions one might have about the underworld include: What is it like to be dead? What do people do in the underworld? What kind of punishment or reward awaits people in the afterlife?

3.The rule that Hades gave to Orpheus was that he could lead Eurydice out of the underworld, but he must not look back at her until they were both in the land of the living again.

4.The "dim shade" at Orpheus' heels is Eurydice, who is following him out of the underworld. The shade disappears because Orpheus looks back at her before they have reached the land of the living, breaking the rule that Hades had given him.

5.Orpheus and Eurydice are reunited briefly in the underworld, but their reunion is cut short when Orpheus breaks the rule that Hades gave him and looks back at Eurydice as they are leaving the underworld, causing her to be pulled back into the underworld and lost to him forever.

6.Hades at first agrees to return Eurydice to Orpheus because he is moved by Orpheus' music and sees that he truly loves Eurydice. However, he sets the condition that Orpheus must not look back at Eurydice until they have both left the underworld.

7."Song of Orpheus" by William Shakespeare describes the part of the myth where Orpheus sings and plays his lyre to charm the animals and trees.

The myth better helps me visualize the scene, as it provides more detail and context about Orpheus and his music, as well as the story of his love for Eurydice and his journey to the underworld.

8.This myth was likely meant to encourage people to follow rules and trust in the gods, as well as to warn against the dangers of giving into temptation or curiosity.

9.The gods in this myth react to humans' behavior with a mix of compassion and punishment. For example, Hades initially agrees to return Eurydice to Orpheus out of compassion for their love, but when Orpheus breaks the rule and looks back at Eurydice, he is punished with the loss of his beloved.

The gods in this myth also use their powers to teach humans important lessons, such as the importance of following rules and the consequences of giving into temptation.

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A can be removed to gain access to an athlete's airway.

Answers

The answer is: face mask

Explanation:

Face mask:

- Remove only to gain access to an athlete's airway.

- Always suspect a head or neck injury
head must be stabilized.

- Cutting tool or screwdriver is required.

- Mounting clips must be cut to flip the face mask up
a can be removed to gain access to an athletes airway

The procedure of the experiment is _____.
Responses

1)The question being answered


2)The step-by-step instructions


3)The graphs and tables used in the lab


4)The answer to the question

Answers

Answer 2) the step-by-step instructions

How does a good experimental conclusion differ from an inference?
A conclusion relates the evidence to the hypothesis and inference is a guess.
A conclusion explains data and an inference is predicts what will occur next.
A conclusion provides less information to the reader than an inference.
A conclusion is proven to be correct; an inference is disproved by evidence.

Answers

A good experimental conclusion differs from inference as a conclusion relates the evidence to the hypothesis and inference is a guess. So, it's A.

What is an Experimental conclusion?

An experimental conclusion may be defined as a terminal finding of any experimental research. It depicts the overall outcome of specific practical research.

The inference is something that we predict before the practical research, while the conclusion reveals the overall hypothesis which comes out after the performance of experimental research.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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Which of the following explanations do you
think is most accurate based on the
information? Explain why.
A. Suzanne fell, which caused her hip to
break.
B. Suzanne's hip broke, causing her to
fall.

Answers

Answer A is must accurate for this situation.
Explanation: a person with a broken hip would be on bed rest and in a wheel chair and not be able to walk.

Question 1 (1 point)
Which factor has been found to positively contribute to the quality of life for a resident?
O a
0b
NOT engaging in activates
NO Freedom from physical and emotional discomfort
The ability to NOT make decisions for them self
The ability to engage in activities that a person finds enjoyable
d

Answers

Answer:

hiiiiiiiiiiiiii

burrberry.com

D, the ability to engage in activities that a person finds enjoyable

The others would most certainly make someone less happy.

Complete the sentence about an act that the US government has enacted to protect healthcare information.
To help prevent security attacks on protected healthcare information, _______
requires that health information systems utilize access controls, encrypt private information, and secure workstations from unauthorized access.

Answers

Answer:

HIPAA - Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Explanation:

I NEED ANSWERS ASAP!!! 20 POINTS!!!!!! NEED TODAY

I NEED ANSWERS ASAP!!! 20 POINTS!!!!!! NEED TODAY

Answers

Answer:

6 is probably b. 7 is true. 8 I think is true (more for the sleep part). 9 a. 10 false

Wanda has a baby with type AB blood and claims that Xavier is the father. Xavier says it is impossible
but Wanda stands by her story. Use science to prove one of them wrong.

Wanda is B- Blood
Xavier is AB+

Answers

Answer:

They are + Xavier is wrong

Explanation:

A B+ blood group boy can marry an AB+ blood group girl biologically.

The ABO blood group system is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens (proteins) on the surface of red blood cells. Individuals with the B+ blood group have the B antigen on their red blood cells, while those with the AB+ blood group have both A and B antigens.

The blood group compatibility between partners is important in the context of pregnancy. If a woman with a certain blood type carries a fetus with a different blood type, there is a risk of maternal-fetal blood type incompatibility. However, in this particular case, the B+ boy does not have the A antigen on his red blood cells, so he will not produce anti-A antibodies. The AB+ girl has both A and B antigens, but she does not produce anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

Therefore, if the couple decides to have children, there is no inherent biological reason why their blood group incompatibility would pose a risk to the pregnancy or the health of the baby. However, it is still important for the couple to consult with a medical professional to ensure that any potential health risks are addressed.

A B+ blood group boy can naturally wed an AB+ blood group woman.

Thus, The ABO blood type system is based on whether certain antigens (proteins) are present or absent on the surface of red blood cells.

The B antigen is present on the red blood cells of people with the blood group B+, while the A and B antigens are present on the red blood cells of people with the blood type AB+.

In the context of pregnancy, blood group compatibility between couples is crucial. There is a chance of maternal-fetal blood type incompatibility when a pregnant woman with one blood type carries a fetus with a different blood type.

Thus, A B+ blood group boy can naturally wed an AB+ blood group woman.

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Identify some methods of professional development.

Answers

Some examples would be: Taking courses, attending conferences, or even participating in online training.

how many times have you drank water today?​

Answers

I have drank 4 bottles of water
Two bottles of water today

Why do nurses not actively engage in lobbying efforts?

Answers

Answer:

Other major factors acting as barriers to participation include inadequate political and policy development skills, lack of status of women that also shapers the image of nursing, lack of education and lack of supportive organizational structure

Explanation:

Reading the above will be a good way to go :)

In the Standard American Diet, what percentage of calories typically come from carbohydrates?
O 20-30%
O 25-40%
O50-50%
O 55-65%

Answers

Answer:    55% - 65%

In the Standard American Diet, 55% - 65% of calories typically come from carbohydrates

Plz mark brainliest:)

Which of the following is a risk for someone who chooses to smoke tobacco? (5 points)
Decreased aerobic capacity and overall physical performance
Increased risk of sexually transmitted infections and pregnancy
Impaired ability to think clearly and make smart decisions
Greater chance of contracting sexually transmitted infections

Answers

Answer:

Decreased aerobic capacity and overall physical performance is a risk for someone who decides to smoke tobacco.

I hope this helped at all.

Decreased aerobic capacity and overall physical performance  is a risk for someone who chooses to smoke tobacco. The correct option is A.

Thus, Smoking harms your lungs' tiny air sacs and airways. As soon as a person starts smoking, harm is done, and lung function deteriorates more over time. However, it could take some time before the issue is obvious enough for lung illness to be identified.

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), a dangerous long-term lung illness, can develop as a result of smoke damage to the lungs. Smoking can worsen some lung conditions already present, such as asthma, and it can increase the risk of lung infections including pneumonia and tuberculosis.

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema are both parts of COPD, which is one of the main causes of death in the US (more on this below). Both of these problems are prevalent in most COPD patients.

Thus, Decreased aerobic capacity and overall physical performance  is a risk for someone who chooses to smoke tobacco. The correct option is A.

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1.1 If A = 40° and B = 25°, calculate, correct to ONE decimal place, each of the following: 1.1.1 cosec2 B 1.1.2 tan (A - B)​

Answers

1.1.1 To find cosec2 B, we first need to find the value of the sine of B:

sin B = sin 25° ≈ 0.4226

Then we can use the formula:

cosec2 B = 1/sin2 B

cosec2 25° ≈ 4.2904

Rounded to one decimal place, cosec2 25° is approximately 4.3.

1.1.2 To find tan (A - B), we first need to find the values of the tangent of A and B:

tan A = tan 40° ≈ 0.8391
tan B = tan 25° ≈ 0.4663

Then, we can use the formula:

tan (A - B) = (tan A - tan B) / (1 + tan A tan B)

tan (40° - 25°) = (0.8391 - 0.4663) / (1 + (0.8391)(0.4663))

tan 15° ≈ 0.268

Rounded to one decimal place, tan (40° - 25°) is approximately 0.3.

PLS HELP anatomy and physiology!

2. Smooth muscle
A. Can change the diameter of blood vessels
B. Moves food through the digestive tract
C. Is not under conscious control
D. All of the above

3. Muscle tissue functions to move
A. Blood
B. Food in the digestive tract
C. Bones.
D. All of the above

4. Tendons connect
A. Bone to bone
B muscle to bone
C muscle to muscle
D cartilage to bone

5. A muscle can
A push a bone
B pull a bone
C both push and pull a bone simultaneously
D sometimes push and sometimes Pull a bone

6. Muscles that function by bending joints such as the biceps are categorized as
A flexors
B abductors
C extensors
D adductors

7. Flexors : bend ::
A immovable joints : bend
B slightly movable joints: be immovable
C extensors: straighten
D sutures : move a great deal

8. The functional unit of muscle contraction is called the
A myofibril
B sarcomere
C muscle fiber
D Myosin filament

9. If you want to increase your cardio vascular endurance the best type of exercise is
A anaerobic
B aerobic
C resistance
D none of the above

10. If you want to increase the size and strength of your muscles the best type of exercise is

A anaerobic
B aerobic
C resistance
D none of the above

Answers

2. D
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. C

It is time to treat your patient. Your goal is to return her arterial blood oxygen to normal.

Use the time and side effect information to drag and drop the treatments to be used first, second and third.

Treatment Options

1.

Diuretic by Injection


2.

Oxygen by Nose


3.

Corticosteroids by Nebulizer

Answers

Answer:  

It is time to treat your patient. Your goal is to return her arterial blood oxygen to normal. Use the time and side effect information to drag and drop the treatments to be used first, second and third. Treatment Options 1. Diuretic by Injection 2. Oxygen by Nose 3. Corticosteroids by Nebulizer

Explanation:

Identify what a pet scan is and how it is used. Name three different conditions a pet scan is used for and how,if applicable, it would help the patient.

Answers

PET scans are a non-invasive imaging technique that provides information about cellular metabolism in various conditions. They are particularly useful in cancer, neurological disorders, and cardiac conditions, aiding in diagnosis, treatment planning, and monitoring the response to therapy.

A PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scan is a nuclear imaging technique that uses a radioactive tracer to visualize the metabolic activity of cells and tissues in the body. It provides detailed information about the functioning of organs and tissues at a molecular level. The tracer, typically a form of glucose, emits positrons, which interact with electrons in the body and produce gamma rays. These gamma rays are detected by a PET scanner and used to create images of the body's metabolic processes.

PET scans are widely used in clinical practice for various purposes. Three different conditions in which PET scans are commonly utilized include:

1. Cancer: PET scans are valuable in cancer diagnosis, staging, and treatment planning. By highlighting areas of increased glucose uptake, PET scans can identify cancerous cells, determine the extent of the disease, and guide targeted therapy. It helps differentiate between benign and malignant tumors and assesses the response to treatment.

2. Neurological Disorders: PET scans are employed in assessing various neurological conditions, such as Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease, and epilepsy. These scans can detect changes in brain metabolism and identify regions of abnormal activity, aiding in accurate diagnosis and monitoring disease progression.

3. Cardiac Conditions: PET scans play a significant role in evaluating heart function and diagnosing coronary artery disease. By measuring blood flow and metabolism in the heart muscle, PET scans can identify areas with reduced blood supply and assess myocardial viability. This information helps guide treatment decisions, such as bypass surgery or angioplasty, and predicts the patient's prognosis.

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Anna is a sixteen year old girl that happens to look like an eighteen year old in regards to height,body structure and facial looks as well... what is the reason behind Anna's condition .​

Answers

The reason behind Anna's condition, where she looks older than her actual age in terms of height, body structure, and facial appearance, could be attributed to factor like  genetics and individual variation.

How do we explain?

Genetics is described as the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms. It is an important branch in biology because heredity is vital to organisms' evolution.

Genetic factors play a significant role in determining an individual's physical characteristics, including height and body structure. It is possible that Anna has inherited genes that contribute to her taller height and more mature body structure, making her appear older than her chronological age.

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An anti-inflammatory is a common type of (. )
drug that is available without a prescription and can help patients manage their pain.

Answers

An anti-inflammatory is a common type of over-the-counter drug that is available without a prescription and can help patients manage their pain.

An anti-inflammatory is a type of drug that helps reduce inflammation in the body. Inflammation is a natural response of the immune system to injury or infection, but it can also contribute to pain and discomfort. Anti-inflammatory drugs work by inhibiting the production or activity of certain chemicals in the body that are involved in the inflammatory process.

By reducing inflammation, these drugs can help alleviate pain, swelling, and redness associated with various conditions such as arthritis, muscle strains, and minor injuries. Anti-inflammatory drugs are commonly available over-the-counter, meaning they can be purchased without a prescription, and they provide a convenient and accessible option for individuals seeking relief from mild to moderate pain.

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What pharmacological agent serves to reduce the frequency and severity of seizures?

A. cerebral stimulants

B. antidepressants

C. opioid analgesics

D. anticonvulsants

E. antipsychotics

Answers

Im pretty sure it can either be E or B
D!! Hope this helps ((:

If pH of the blood become too low, which substance Will the cell of the renal tubule excrete from the blood and pass into the filtrate to correct this imbalance

Answers

If the pH of the blood becomes too low (acidic), the cells of the renal tubule will excrete hydrogen ions (H+) from the blood and pass them into the filtrate to correct the pH imbalance.

This process is part of the kidney's role in maintaining acid-base balance in the body. The renal tubule is a structure in the kidney responsible for reabsorbing and excreting substances from the filtrate, which is formed from the initial filtration of blood in the glomerulus.

In the case of acidosis (low blood pH), the renal tubule cells play a vital role in regulating pH by actively secreting hydrogen ions into the filtrate. Hydrogen ions are generated in the body as byproducts of metabolic processes and can contribute to an acidic environment when their concentration increases.

To restore the blood's pH balance, the renal tubule cells actively transport hydrogen ions from the blood into the filtrate. This secretion of hydrogen ions helps to decrease their concentration in the blood, thus raising the pH back to a more normal range.

The excretion of hydrogen ions by the renal tubule cells is tightly regulated by various mechanisms involving ion transporters and exchange processes. These processes allow the kidney to maintain a delicate balance of pH in the body by removing excess hydrogen ions during acidosis or retaining them during alkalosis (high blood pH).

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2. Which of the following is not an example of a dissociative anesthetic drug?
A. Vetalar
B. Ketaset
C. Fentanyl
D. Telazol

Answers

Answer:

C. Fentanyl

Explanation:

How tall are tigers?

Answers

Tigers can grow up to 3.3 to 3.9 feet (1 to 1.2 meters) in height at shoulder level.

Answer:

80 – 110 cm (At Shoulder)

how do girls in a coma deal with their period?​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

When a person is in a coma, they are unable to manage their bodily functions, including their menstrual cycle. Medical professionals may use various methods to manage menstruation for someone in a coma, such as using pads or tampons, and changing them regularly. They may also use medications to stop or delay periods if necessary. It's crucial to ensure that infection prevention measures are taken during menstruation to prevent any underlying infections. Family members or primary caregivers are often kept informed and consulted regarding the management of the menstrual cycle while the person is in a coma.

Muscular strength is the ability of your muscles to exercise at which of the following?

Answers

Answer: hope it helps or not

Explanation:

Which of the following is the ability of the muscles to lift or resist a force?

Strength vs.

Muscular strength is determined by how much force you can exert or how much weight you can lift. Building muscular strength uses heavier weights for fewer repetitions. Muscular endurance refers to the ability of a muscle to sustain repeated contractions against resistance for an extended period of time.

Muscular strength is the ability of your muscles to exercise at maximum effort, option 1 is correct.

It refers to the capacity of your muscles to generate force against resistance. When you engage in activities that require lifting, pushing, or pulling heavy objects or performing intense physical tasks, you rely on muscular strength. Muscular strength is typically measured by the maximum amount of weight or force a muscle or group of muscles can produce during a specific exercise or movement.

This measurement is often represented by the one-repetition maximum (1RM), which indicates the heaviest weight an individual can lift for a single repetition with proper form. Developing muscular strength involves training with heavy loads or resistance to challenge the muscles and progressively increase their ability to generate force. This type of training can lead to improved muscle size, power, and overall functional capacity. It is important to note that muscular strength is distinct from muscular endurance, which relates to the ability to sustain muscle contractions over an extended period, option 1 is correct.

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The correct question is:

Muscular strength is the ability of your muscles to exercise at which of the following?

1. Muscular strength is the ability of your muscles to exercise at maximum effort.

2. Muscular strength is the ability of your muscles to exercise at a moderate intensity.

3. Muscular strength is the ability of your muscles to exercise at low intensity.

4. Muscular strength is the ability of your muscles to exercise at a relaxed pace.

Is it true or false that You can create and transfer EMR's using information systems

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

. A father brings his son to the emergency center with first, second, and third degree burns.
Name the major complications that result from second and third degree burns. Discuss the
treatment for and complications of second and third degree burns. When a person has third
degree burns, he or she is not in pain; explain the reason?

Answers

With third degree burns they go down to the level of skin that has nerves. Meaning that the never shave burned and die so you can. I longer feel anything in that section
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