Answer: Moderate 8 on the asthma severity scale
Explanation: Asked my dad who's an MD
a patient presents to the dermatologist with a suspicious lesion of the left cheek. upon examination the physician discusses with the patient that the best course of treatment is to remove the lesion by shave technique. consent is obtained and the physician preps the area and using an 11-blade scalpel makes a transverse incision and slices the lesion at the base. the wound is cleaned and a bandage is placed. the physician indicates the size of the lesion is 1.4 cm. the lesion is sent to pathology for evaluation and the patient is to return in 10 days to discuss the findings.
A patient with a suspicious cheek lesion undergoes lesion removal using the shave technique, followed by pathology evaluation in 10 days.
The dermatologist opts for the shave technique to remove the suspicious lesion on the patient's left cheek. This technique involves making a transverse incision at the base of the lesion using an 11-blade scalpel, allowing for the lesion to be sliced off.
By using this method, the dermatologist aims to completely remove the lesion while minimizing damage to the surrounding healthy tissue. Once the lesion is removed, the physician cleans the wound to prevent infection and applies a bandage to protect it during the healing process.
The size of the lesion, measured at 1.4 cm, is an important detail that will be crucial for pathology evaluation. Sending the removed lesion to pathology allows for further analysis and examination to determine the nature of the lesion, including whether it is benign or malignant.
The patient is then scheduled for a follow-up appointment in 10 days to discuss the findings of the pathology evaluation and determine any further necessary steps for treatment or management.
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According to Vaughn, any research conducted on human beings needs to adhere to the following three moral principles: autonomy, beneficence, and __
O nonmaleficence O mercy O personhood O justice
The three moral principles that Vaughn identifies as important in any research conducted on human beings are autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence. The correct answer is nonmaleficence.
Autonomy refers to the principle of respecting an individual's right to make their own decisions and choices regarding their participation in research. This includes obtaining informed consent from participants, and ensuring that they have the ability to freely and voluntarily consent to or refuse participation in research.
Beneficence refers to the principle of acting in the best interest of the research participant, by maximizing potential benefits and minimizing potential harms. This includes designing studies that are scientifically valid and likely to produce important results, as well as ensuring that the risks of harm to participants are minimized.
Nonmaleficence refers to the principle of avoiding harm to research participants. This includes minimizing risks of physical, psychological, or social harm, and ensuring that the benefits of research outweigh any potential risks.
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According to Vaughn, any research conducted on human beings needs to adhere to the following three moral principles: autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence.
These principles are often referred to as the "principles of biomedical ethics" and are widely recognized as essential in guiding ethical research practices. Autonomy refers to respecting individuals' rights to make their own decisions and to give informed consent. Beneficence refers to the obligation to maximize benefits and minimize harm to research subjects.
Nonmaleficence refers to the obligation to not intentionally cause harm to research subjects. In addition to these three principles, some scholars also argue that justice should also be considered when conducting research on human beings. Justice refers to ensuring that the benefits and burdens of research are distributed fairly among all participants. By following these principles, researchers can ensure that their research is conducted in an ethical manner and that the rights and welfare of participants are protected.
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Wash cutting boards after each use to prevent the spread of A) Bacteria
B) Disease
C) Germs
D) Both A and C are correct
What percentage of native americans died from disease.
Answer:
90%
Explanation:
When the Europeans arrived, carrying germs which thrived in dense, semi-urban populations, the indigenous people of the Americas were effectively doomed. They had never experienced smallpox, measles or flu before, and the viruses tore through the continent, killing an estimated 90% of Native Americans.
Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.
The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.
What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.
Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.
Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.
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Glia cells play a supportive role to the neuron. A few of the functions of the glial cells include providing nutrition, maintaining homeostasis, stabilizing synapses, and myelinating axons. The glial cells are categorized as microglia and macroglia. Of these two cell types, which one plays an active and critical role in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist required for glutamate receptor function?
Macroglia play an active and critical role in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist required for glutamate receptor function.
What are macroglia?Macroglia are specialized glial cells that are well known to control neuronal function in the nervous system.
These cells (macroglia) are also known to help in the retina's metabolic functioning and blood.
In conclusion, macroglia play an active and critical role in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist required for glutamate receptor function.
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What proportion of those who received the placebo had a heart attack?
A. 0.005
B. 0.009
C. 0.017
D. 0.55
The proportion of those who received the placebo had a heart attack is option C which is 0.017. The purpose of this study was to determine whether taking aspirin daily reduces the proportion of heart attacks.
In this clinical trial, 11,037 medical doctors were assigned to take aspirin, and 11,034 were assigned to the placebo group, which received a sugar pill disguised as aspirin. After six months, it was found that 104 doctors who took aspirin had a heart attack, whereas 189 who received the placebo had a heart attack.
To find the proportion of those who received the placebo and had a heart attack, we need to divide the number of heart attacks in the placebo group by the total number of participants in the placebo group:
Heart attack proportion (placebo group) = (Number of heart attacks in placebo group) / (Total number of participants in placebo group)
Heart attack proportion (placebo group) = 189 / 11,034
Heart attack proportion (placebo group) ≈ 0.017
So, the answer is C. 0.017.
Based on these results, we can conclude that taking aspirin reduced the chance of having a heart attack compared to the placebo group, as the proportion of heart attacks in the aspirin group was lower than in the placebo group.
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Complete Question:
In the 1980s, a clinical trial was conducted to determine if taking aspirin daily reduced the incidence of heart attacks. Of 22,071 medical doctors participating in the study, 11,037 were randomly assigned to take aspirin and 11,034 were randomly assigned to the placebo group. Doctors in this group were given a sugar pill disguised to look like aspirin. After six months, the proportion of heart attacks in the two groups was compared. Only 104 doctors who took aspirin had a heart attack, whereas 189 who received the placebo had a heart attack. Can we conclude from this study that taking aspirin reduced the chance of having a heart attack? The purpose of this study was to determine whether taking aspirin daily reduces the proportion of heart attacks.
What proportion of those who received the placebo had a heart attack?
A. 0.005
B. 0.009
C. 0.017
D. 0.55
a doctor performs an initial inpatient consultation with a comprehensive history and examination and medical decision-making of moderate complexity and moderate risk. which of the following e/m codes applies to this visit?
The E/M code that applies to this visit is 99221 because the doctor provides an initial inpatient consultation with a full history and examination as well as medical decision-making of moderate complexity and risk.
The E/M code 99221 is considered the highest level of service for an initial inpatient consultation. This code applies to a visit that includes a comprehensive history, a comprehensive examination, and medical decision-making of moderate complexity. The code includes all the key components of the lower levels of service, such as a detailed history and examination, and adds a moderate level of medical decision-making. This means that the diagnosis has not been established yet, and the physician is evaluating the patient to come up with one.
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Identify another example of something within the body that impacts human sexual response behaviors. Explain how the impact may vary for males, females, and people of varying physiology.
One example of something within the body that impacts human sexual response behaviors is hormones.
What are Hormones?Hormones play a major role in sexual expression and behavior, as they are responsible for stimulating sexual desire and arousal. In males, the hormone testosterone is responsible for stimulating sexual desire and arousal. Testosterone is released by the testes and is responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics. When testosterone levels are too low, males may experience reduced sexual desire and difficulty achieving arousal.
In females, the hormone estrogen is responsible for stimulating sexual desire and arousal. Estrogen is released by the ovaries and is responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sex characteristics. When estrogen levels are too low, females may experience reduced sexual desire and difficulty achieving arousal.
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Why do you think parasites are a public health concern? How can humans reduce this danger?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
because they will craw inside of you and kill you
Your vestibular sense could:
A. make you too hot or too cold
B. make you see double
C. make you see things upside down
D. make you dizzy
Answer:
D: Make you dizzy
Explanation:
The vestibular sense is basically when the liquid-filled pocket in your ear starts to get swirly like ripples in a pool, and that causes your brain to think you are moving or the world is moving and affects your balance.
6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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a formal, written document that describes how a hospital or physician practice ensures that rules, regulations, and standards are being adhered to is called a/an
A Compliance Plan is a formal, document that outlines how a medical or hospital practice makes sure that laws, rules, and standards are followed.
Compliance plans enable the development of a comprehensive strategy for addressing regulatory obligations in a structured environment or for organizing several regulatory duties. A Compliance Plan could be developed, for instance, to keep track of regulatory responsibilities or to carry out compliance evaluations by specific regulatory standards.
Leadership is one of the compliance plan's five components.
Risk evaluation. Controls and standards. Communications and education. Oversight.A company's personnel must abide by all applicable rules and regulations, which are ensured through compliance programs that lay out a set of standards and best practices.
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Why would 131I be used to specifically destroy the thyroid gland and have minimal effect on other cells And tissues in the body
Answer:
The thyroid gland absorbs almost all of the iodine in the body. When radioactive iodine (RAI), also known as I-131, is given to the body as a liquid or capsule, it becomes concentrated in thyroid cells. Radiation can kill the thyroid gland and any other thyroid cells or tissues (including cancer cells) that absorb iodine, without damaging any other organs.
Explanation:
The thyroid gland is an organ that belongs to the endocrine system and its function is to synthesize hormones that are responsible for controlling the body's metabolism, this gland has an important characteristic and that is that the hormones it produces have a unique chemical composition due to They are the only hormones that contain iodine in their structure, this in turn is essential for its functioning because the body does not synthesize it and it must be consumed in the diet. When a small dose of the radiopharmaceutical iodine 131 (Sodium Iodide 131I) is consumed, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and concentrated by the thyroid gland, where it begins to destroy cancer cells in the gland. 131I quickly attaches itself to thyroid cells to destroy them, but continues to emit radioactivity for a long time: it takes 8 days to halve. The beta radiation particles of 131I, which we call radioiodine or radioactive iodine, have a range of 2mm and act for a long time in a constant way. Fortunately, the body's metabolism quickly expels iodine through the urine, so that in one day the amount of iodine has decreased considerably.
in contrast to conductive hearing loss, sensorineural hearing loss is caused by:
Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by damage or dysfunction of the inner ear (cochlea) or the auditory nerve pathways connecting the inner ear to the brain.
Unlike conductive hearing loss, which primarily affects the outer or middle ear and impairs sound transmission, sensorineural hearing loss affects the sensory cells (hair cells) in the cochlea or the auditory nerve itself, resulting in a reduced ability to perceive sound.
Here are some common causes and factors associated with sensorineural hearing loss:
Age-related factors: Age-related hearing loss, known as presbycusis, is a common cause of sensorineural hearing loss. It occurs gradually as a result of natural aging processes that affect the delicate structures of the inner ear.Noise exposure: Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud noises, such as in occupational settings (e.g., construction, manufacturing) or recreational activities (e.g., listening to loud music, attending concerts), can cause damage to the hair cells in the cochlea, leading to sensorineural hearing loss.Genetics: Some individuals may inherit genetic mutations that affect the development or function of the inner ear, leading to sensorineural hearing loss. Genetic factors can contribute to both congenital (present at birth) and progressive hearing loss.Ototoxic medications: Certain medications, such as some antibiotics (e.g., aminoglycosides), chemotherapy drugs, and high doses of aspirin, can have toxic effects on the cochlea or auditory nerve, resulting in sensorineural hearing loss.Trauma or head injuries: Severe head trauma or injuries can damage the delicate structures of the inner ear or disrupt the auditory nerve pathways, causing sensorineural hearing loss.Infections and diseases: Some infections, such as meningitis or viral infections like measles or mumps, can lead to sensorineural hearing loss. Additionally, certain medical conditions, including Meniere's disease, autoimmune inner ear disease, and acoustic neuroma, can contribute to sensorineural hearing loss.It's important to note that sensorineural hearing loss is often permanent and irreversible. Treatment options for sensorineural hearing loss include hearing aids, cochlear implants, and auditory rehabilitation programs, which aim to improve communication and quality of life for individuals with this type of hearing loss.
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If I would like to be a Psychiatric, what courses would be beneficial for me to take in high school?
Answer:
Anatomy and Physiology.
Child Development.
Computer Applications.
Food and Nutrition.
Foreign Language.
Introduction to Health Care.
Nursing.
Safety and First Aid.
Explanation:
of the following hypothes bel EARLIAL For each Maut the independent variable (Y) and the Agendent variabl 1) A professor analyzed whether female or male nursing students achie higher grades in medical-surgical uning courses. 2) A researcher explored the effect of critical care nurses' work schem on the incidence of medication errors in the ICU. Ans: 3) A study to ascertain whether gender identity affects neural resp infant cries.
Hypothesis testing is the procedure by which we test if a hypothesis is statistically significant or not. Statistical significance tests a hypothesis' accuracy by computing the likelihood of obtaining a result as a result of random chance or some other influence.
In this post, I'll go through the three hypotheses and clarify each of them in greater detail.The hypotheses are as follows:
1. A professor analyzed whether female or male nursing students achier higher grades in medical-surgical using courses. An independent variable is a variable that is influenced by the dependent variable. In the given hypothesis, the dependent variable (Y) is the grades of nursing students in medical-surgical courses, and the independent variable is gender. In this hypothesis, the aim is to determine whether male or female students perform better in medical-surgical nursing courses.
2. A researcher explored the effect of critical care nurses' work scheme on the incidence of medication errors in the ICU.The dependent variable (Y) in this hypothesis is the incidence of medication errors in the ICU, while the independent variable is critical care nurses' work scheme. This hypothesis intends to investigate whether the work schedule of critical care nurses has an effect on the incidence of medication errors in the ICU.
3. A study to ascertain whether gender identity affects neural resp infant cries. In this hypothesis, the dependent variable (Y) is the neural response to infant cries, while the independent variable is gender identity. This hypothesis intends to investigate whether gender identity has an effect on the neural response to infant cries.
Conclusion: In summary, hypothesis testing is a statistical method that helps us test whether a hypothesis is statistically significant or not. In the given hypotheses, the researchers aim to investigate the relationship between the dependent and independent variables. Through hypothesis testing, researchers can determine if there is a relationship between the two variables, and if so, to what extent.
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Multiple Choice Question
Which of the following male body structures is less movable than that of a female?
O Sacrum
oCoccyx
O Femur
0 Skull
Need help? Review these concept resources,
Read About the Concept
Answer:
oCoccyx
hope it is helpful
Hi,
Answer:
Which of the following male body structures is less movable than that of a female?
oCoccyx
this definition of death holds that individuals are dead when they have irreversibly lost all functions of the entire brain.
By demonstrating the permanent end of the brain's clinical functioning, brain death serves as a determination of human death. Due to the loss of the entire organism, whole-brain death constitutes a death in humans.
What transpires after someone passes away?The heart eventually quits, and they eventually stop breathing. Their brain completely shuts down after a few minutes, and their skin begins to cool. They have already passed away at this time.
Where do we go after someone dies?A person's soul departs from this world when they pass away because there is an everlasting life that comes after death. The soul will be transferred to a new body on the Day of the Resurrection, and people will appear before God to receive judgment.
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the middle cerebral artery is a branch of the ______ carotid artery.
The middle cerebral artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery.
The middle cerebral artery (MCA) is one of the major branches of the internal carotid artery (ICA). The internal carotid artery is one of the main arteries that supply blood to the brain. It arises from the common carotid artery, which is a large artery in the neck that branches into the external carotid artery and the internal carotid artery.
The internal carotid artery enters the skull through an opening called the carotid canal and then gives rise to several branches, including the middle cerebral artery. The MCA is responsible for supplying blood to a significant portion of the lateral or side areas of the brain, including parts of the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes.
The middle cerebral artery plays a critical role in providing oxygenated blood to regions of the brain that are involved in various important functions such as motor control, sensation, speech, language, and higher cognitive processes.
Blockages or disruptions in the blood flow through the middle cerebral artery can lead to significant neurological consequences, such as ischemic stroke, which is the most common type of stroke.
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Dental history dates back to ancient civilizations. Who are some of the early
contributors to the science of dentistry?
Answer:By the 1700s, dentistry had become a more defined profession. In 1723, Pierre Fauchard, a French surgeon credited as the Father of Modern Dentistry, published his influential book, The Surgeon Dentist, a Treatise on Teeth, which for the first time defined a comprehensive system for caring for and treating teeth. Additionally, Fauchard first introduced the idea of dental fillings and the use of dental prosthesis, and he identified that acids from sugar led to tooth decay.
Dentistry is one of the oldest medical professions, dating back to 7000 B.C. with the Indus Valley Civilization. However, it wasn’t until 5000 B.C. that descriptions related to dentistry and tooth decay were available. At the time, a Sumerian text described tooth worms as causing dental decay, an idea that wasn’t proven false until the 1700s!
In ancient Greece, Hippocrates and Aristotle wrote about dentistry, specifically about treating decaying teeth, but it wasn’t until 1530 that the first book entirely devoted to dentistry—The Little Medicinal Book for All Kinds of Diseases and Infirmities of the Teeth—was published.
Explanation:
Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future? 1 Assignment #2 Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future?
a) A fragility hip fracture is a broken hip bone resulting from minimal trauma or a fall in the elderly person which leads to pain, mobility loss, and reduced independence.
b) The specific situation in the given case study involves an elderly individual experiencing a fragility hip fracture and being admitted to the hospital for treatment. The fracture caused severe pain, limited mobility, and required surgery. A person's independence and quality of life are severely compromised and require support and rehabilitation to restore function.
c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making, the problem or dilemma is how to address the treatment and care of the elderly patient with a fragility hip fracture.
d) The potential issues involved in this scenario includes ensuring informed consent, maintaining patient confidentiality, promoting beneficence, and balancing autonomy with the patient's best interests.
f) Relevant ethics principles include informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence (doing good for the patient), and autonomy.
g) Possible courses of action may include surgical intervention, pain management, rehabilitation, and ensuring proper support and care for the patient.
h) Consequences of decisions can vary which includes successful recovery, complications, functional limitations, and impact on the patient's quality of life.
i) The best course of action depends on individual circumstances, but it may involve a comprehensive treatment plan that considers the patient's preferences, involves shared decision-making, and prioritizes their overall well-being.
Reflection: This case studies highlight the importance of considering ethical principles in medical decision-making, especially when dealing with vulnerable populations such as the elderly. It stresses the importance of informed consent, confidentiality and the promotion of the patient's best interests.
We learnt the significance of considering individual values and preferences, as well as involving the person and their support system in decision-making. In the future, we can apply this learning by ensuring a patient-centered approach, promoting open communication, and advocating for the well-being and autonomy of individuals in my healthcare practice.
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Which drug will most likely cause the client's eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects?A. Ketorolac B. Ofloxacin C. Diclofenac D. Vidarabine
Answer:
A Ketorolac
Explanation:
Low carbohydrate diets have been very popular recently. Many people today are going on variations of the high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. Describe what happens in the body when only proteins and fat are ingested but carbohydrates are excluded. Are diets that are high in proteins and fat healthy weight-loss alternatives? Why or why not?
Low carbohydrate diets lead to ketosis. This condition (ketosis) may cause fatigue, headache, weakness, etc. Moreover, long-term high-protein diets may cause kidney failure and osteoporosis.
Low carbohydrate diets lead to breaking fat down into ketones, a metabolic condition known as ketosis.
Ketosis is a condition that occurs when ketone bodies are used as an energy source instead of glucose.
Ketosis may have several side effects, which include, among others, headache, fatigue, brain fog, poor sleep, increased hunger, nausea, etc.
Moreover, long-term high-protein diets may have several negative effects on health including kidney failure and osteoporosis.
In addition, high-meat (protein and fat) diets have also been associated with an increased risk for heart diseases, which is due to the excessive consumption of saturated fatty acids and cholesterol.
In conclusion, low carbohydrate diets lead to ketosis. This condition (ketosis) may cause fatigue, headache, weakness, etc. Moreover, long-term high-protein diets may cause kidney failure and osteoporosis.
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This is a graded discussion: 100 points possible
Week 5 Lesson 1 Discussion
Deanna is a new medical assistant in the office in which you work. She does not understand the matrix for making appointments. On her second
day at work, she is on her own to make appointments, because the person who usually makes appointments is out with a sick child. Deanna
makes two appointments in each slot as she did in her previous place of employment instead of the one that should have been made using the
matrix. How will this affect the patients who are being seen for the next few days? What will this mistake do to public relations in the office?
rt
Select Next at the bottom right of this screen to access the Lecture.
I hope other people will comment and tell u the answer because I don’t really know
The mistake made by Deanna in her new place of employment will negatively affect the patients for the next few days as well as public relations in the office.
By creating two appointments in each slot instead of the one appointment that she should have made, Deanna will cause problems for the patients in question. The patients will arrive to their appointments only to find that they are scheduled at the same time as another patient which would mean one of them will have to wait. This is sure to anger some patients.
Public relations is described as the relationship that an entity has with the public, in this case the offices relationship with the patients. Due to the patients anger generated by this mistake, public relations will be negativity impacted as patients are likely to see the office as irresponsible or unreliable.
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1. Do you know someone with a genetic disease? Do you know someone with a disability? If you do, how do you think their problem has affected them?
2. Imagine someone with an obvious disability; for example, someone in a wheelchair. Do you treat someone like that differently than “normal” people? Do other people treat someone in a wheelchair differently? How?
3. Imagine your doctor told you that you had a genetic disease, such as Eric was told. Further, imagine that you are told there is nothing that can be done about it. How would you feel? What would you do?
4. Predict what the future holds for Eric.
what skills do I benefit when playing a yoyo
Answer:
a sore finger tolerence
Explanation:
A new mother is diagnosed with depression. Which antidepressant may be
prescribed to this client?
Answer: Prozac (Fluoxetine).
Explanation:
This is a very safe product for people and has more natural serotonin and endorphins. Both of these natural chemicals in our body help make our depression ween away. The mother would have best luck in this medicine.
Brexanolone antidepressant may be prescribed to the new mother is diagnosed with depression.
What is Post Partum Depression?Postpartum depression is a type of depression that occurs after giving birth and affects up to 15% of people. This will not only affect the person giving birth to the child but also the surrogate mother and adoptive parents.
This results in hormonal, physical, emotional, financial and social changes after having a baby which leads to postpartum depression. It can last up to a year after the baby is born which doesn't mean we should feel "right" in a year. Sometimes of antidepressant will given to these patients like Brexanolone.
Postpartum depression symptoms will include
Feeling sad and worthlessWorrying excessively or feeling on edge.Loss of interest in hobbiesChanges in appetite, or not eating anythingLoss of energy and motivation.Thus, Brexanolone antidepressant may be prescribed to the new mother is diagnosed with depression.
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An in vivo study was conducted to determine if mice that were given probiotics had higher alcohol consumption levels as compared to mice that did not receive probiotics. An appropriate null hypothesis to test this association can be best stated as
The appropriate null hypothesis for this study would be:
"There is no significant difference in alcohol consumption levels between mice that were given probiotics and mice that were not given probiotics."
What is a null hypothesis?This null hypothesis assumes that the probiotics have no effect on the alcohol consumption levels of the mice. The alternative hypothesis would be that there is a significant difference in alcohol consumption levels between the two groups, with the probiotics having an effect on the amount of alcohol consumed by the mice.
It is important to note that this null hypothesis is based on the assumption that the study was designed as a randomized controlled trial, with the mice randomly assigned to either the probiotics group or the control group.
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the master patient index must, at a minimum, include sufficient information to
The master patient index (MPI) is a critical component of a healthcare organization's information system, responsible for maintaining accurate and comprehensive patient records.
The MPI serves as a central repository of patient identification data and facilitates the linking of patient records across various systems and departments within the organization. To effectively fulfill its purpose, the MPI must, at a minimum, include sufficient information to uniquely identify and manage patient records.
Patient Identifier: A unique identifier assigned to each patient, such as a medical record number (MRN) or a national identification number. This identifier ensures that each patient has a distinct record in the MPI.
Demographic Information: Essential patient demographic details like full name, date of birth, gender, address, contact information, and any other pertinent identifiers like social security number or insurance information. These details help differentiate between patients with similar names and prevent data mix-ups.
Medical Record Linkages: Information on medical record numbers or identifiers from various systems within the healthcare organization that are associated with the patient. This allows for the consolidation and correlation of patient records across different departments or facilities.
Access Control: Security measures to protect patient information, including authentication and authorization protocols, to ensure that only authorized personnel can access and modify the patient records.
Audit Trail: A record of any changes made to the patient's record, including updates, corrections, or access history. This audit trail helps track the integrity of the patient's information and ensures accountability.
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