Answer:
Yes, the focus should change to a disease prevention and health promotion plan.
Explanation:
The curative focus of the U.S healthcare system is an outlook that places more emphasis on the development of drugs and other treatment plans in the event of an ailment. This is not a proactive measure to counter health issues. It is rather reactive. The health promotion and disease prevention method focuses on countering and proactively dealing with situations that could lead to diseases. This is a better way of dealing with diseases for the following reasons;
1. It prevents the harmful side effects of drugs. A health-based plan that focuses on healthy ways of living like proper exercise and healthy eating would promote better health, and prevent the outbreak of diseases that would lead to the consumption of drugs with harmful side effects.
2. It saves cost. Evidence has shown that prevention is better than cure in terms of saving costs. Money that would have been spent on hospital bills and drugs are saved when healthy ways of living are observed. An example of this effect is the YMCA Diabetes Prevention program where people who are prone to diabetes are placed on a healthy lifestyle for a year. The result is that the likelihood of these participants suffering from type-2 diabetes is drastically reduced. This saves the cost that would have been involved in taking care of this disease.
3. It increases lifespan. The chances of people who stick to healthy ways of living rather than always subjecting themselves to drugs and other curative measures with their associated side effects are quite long.
For the above-stated reasons, it is imperative that the focus in the U.S health care system should change to the health promotion and disease prevention plan.
what is the most important factor related to progress in person-centered therapy?
The main answer to your question is that the therapeutic relationship is the most important factor related to progress in person-centered therapy.
Person-centered therapy places a strong emphasis on the therapeutic relationship between the client and therapist, with the belief that a safe, trusting, and non-judgmental environment is necessary for clients to feel comfortable enough to explore their thoughts and emotions.
When the therapist demonstrates empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence, it can help foster a sense of safety and trust that allows the client to make progress in therapy.
In summary, the therapeutic relationship is crucial to the success of person-centered therapy, and therapists who cultivate an accepting and empathetic environment can help their clients make significant progress towards their therapeutic goals.
Learn more about person-centered therapy click here:
https://brainly.com/question/2784541
#SPJ11
The emergency, cardiology, labor and delivery, neurology, and intensive care units are some of the ________ of a typical hospital.
The emergency, cardiology, labor and delivery, neurology, and intensive care units are some of the departments of a typical hospital.
A hospital is a type of medical facility that offers a variety of healthcare services to people with different illnesses and injuries. It is a location where patients can access healthcare, get diagnosed, treated, and cared for by licenced healthcare professionals. Hospitals are essential elements of any healthcare system because they provide cutting-edge medical equipment, trained medical personnel, and numerous specialised divisions to meet diverse medical demands. These divisions could be maternity wards, intensive care units, surgical units, radiology departments, and many others.
To know more about hospital, here:
https://brainly.com/question/33953208
#SPJ6
how high is the chance of getting pregnant with straight parents
Answer:
You tell me...
Explanation:
Answer:
30 percent get pregnant within the first cycle (about one month). 60 percent get pregnant within three cycles (about three months). 80 percent get pregnant within six cycles (about six months). 85 percent get pregnant within 12 cycles (about one year).
pt with cd20 positive , non hodgkin lymphoma is scheduled to begin rituximab. the nurse knows what A. most infusion-related reactions occur 24-48 hours after the infusion B. the risk of infusion reactions is decreased since the patient is chemotherapy-naive. C. another therapy is ordered if the patient has an infusion reaction, D. infusion-related side offects are reduced with subsequent infusions.
Patient with cd20 positive , non hodgkin lymphoma is scheduled to begin rituximab therefore the nurse knows that infusion-related side offects are reduced with subsequent infusions which is therefore denoted as option D.
What is an Infusion reaction?
This is referred to as a type of hypersensitivity reaction that develops during or shortly after administration of a drug and symptoms may include pruritus, bronchospasms, and cardiovascular collapse.
Strategies to reduce the incidence of HSR include premedications and slow titration which is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice.
Read more about Infusion reaction here https://brainly.com/question/13137912
#SPJ1
medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
19 of 25 State and local spending is primarily spent on the following item(s): education. libraries, hospitals, and health care. parks, police, and fire protection. All of the above 20 of 25 When the government spending is more than it receives in taxes, this is known as a( n) budget surplus. balanced budget. deficit budget. automatic stabilizer. 21 of 25 Rational expectations believe that the government must change government spending and taxes during inflationary and deflationary gaps. people will form the most accurate possible expectations about the future that they can, using all the available information available to them. the federal reserve must buy and sell government securities during inflationary and deflationary gaps. the economy will never self-correct.
19 of 25 State and local spending is primarily spent on the following item(s): education, libraries, hospitals, and health care, parks, police, and fire protection. All of the above.
State and local governments spent $3.1 trillion in 2019, with education being the most significant spending area, followed by public welfare, insurance trust, and health. It is not unexpected that the highest spending category was education. However, what may be surprising is how far ahead education was in comparison to the other categories. Education expenditures alone accounted for 34.2% of total state and local government spending.
20 of 25 When the government spending is more than it receives in taxes, this is known as a deficit budget. It is a common phenomenon. When a government's budgetary expenditure exceeds its revenue, the government is forced to borrow from the market to meet its spending requirements. Deficit spending occurs when a government spends more than it collects in revenue.
21 of 25 Rational expectations believe that people will form the most accurate possible expectations about the future that they can, using all the available information available to them. Rational expectations are beliefs held by individuals that are consistent with the economic model. Agents form their predictions about the future of the economy based on available data and a model of the economy.
According to the theory, all individuals use all accessible information when forming expectations. Rational expectations theory implies that people are rational and forward-looking, and that they use all available information to create expectations about the future.
To know more about primarily visit:
https://brainly.com/question/28149281
#SPJ11
What have one-way valves just like valves of the heart
Answer:
The heart consists of four chambers, two atria (upper chambers) and two ventricles (lower chambers). There is a valve through which blood passes before leaving each chamber of the heart. ... They act as one-way inlets of blood on one side of a ventricle and one-way outlets of blood on the other side of a ventricle.
Explanation:
A clinical test on humans of a new drug is normally done in three phases. Phase I is conducted with a relalively small number of heallhy volunteers. For example, a phase I test of a specific drug involved only 5 subjects. Assume that we want lo treal 5 heallhy humans with this new drug and we have 8 suitable volunteers available. Complete parts (a) through (c) below. a. If the subjects are selecled and troaled in soquence, so that the Irial is discontinuod if anyone displays adverse effects, how many different sequential arrangements are possible if 5 people are selected from the 8 that are available? Choose the correct answer bolow. A. 40,320 B. 56 C. 6,720 D. 120
Answer:
The correct answer is B. 56.
Explanation:
To calculate the number of different sequential arrangements possible when selecting 5 people from a pool of 8 available volunteers, we can use the concept of combinations.
The number of different sequential arrangements can be calculated using the formula for combinations, which is denoted as "nCk" or "n choose k," where n is the total number of available volunteers and k is the number of volunteers to be selected.
In this case, we want to select 5 volunteers from a pool of 8, so the calculation is:
8C5 = 8! / (5! * (8-5)!) = (8 * 7 * 6) / (3 * 2 * 1) = 56
You must always test blood sugar 2-4 hours after a meal ?
Answer:
true......
hope it helps
The timing for testing blood sugar levels can vary depending on individual circumstances and healthcare provider recommendations. The statement is false.
While testing 2-4 hours after a meal can be useful in some cases, it is not a universal rule.
The timing of blood sugar testing may be different for different individuals, depending on factors such as the type of diabetes, medication regimen, and individual blood sugar patterns.
Blood sugar testing and its variability based on individual circumstances:
1. Type of Diabetes: Individuals with Type 1 diabetes, who do not produce insulin, often need to monitor their blood sugar levels more frequently, including before meals, after meals, before bedtime, and during physical activity. On the other hand, individuals with Type 2 diabetes may have more flexibility in their testing schedule, depending on the severity of their condition and the medications they are taking.
2. Medication Regimen: The type of diabetes medications a person is taking can also influence the timing of blood sugar testing. For example, individuals using insulin may need to test their blood sugar levels more frequently to ensure proper insulin dosing and to prevent hypoglycemia.
3. Gestational Diabetes: Pregnant women with gestational diabetes may have different testing schedules based on their meal timings.
Thus, the given statement is false.
To know more about Blood sugar, click here:
https://brainly.com/question/28577744
#SPJ3
Complete question:
You must always test your blood sugar 2-4 hours after a meal. True or False
Subjective: Here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. No new problems. Feeling well. Medications are per medication sheet. These were reconstituted with the medications that she was discharged home on. Objective: Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Neck is supple. Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Assessment: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. Plan: 1. Prothrombin time to monitor long term use of anticoagulant. 2. Follow up with me in one month or sooner as needed if she has any other problems in the meantime. Will also check a creatinine and potassium today. What diagnosis code(s) are reported
Diagnosis code(s) are reported :
F03.90M25.511I11.9E11.9Diagnosis codeTo categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field. Diagnostic coding is the process of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization.
In the clinical coding procedure for medical categorization, diagnostic codes are utilized with intervention codes. A medical classification expert such as a clinical coder or a health information manager assigns the diagnostic and intervention codes.
Learn more about Diagnosis code to visit this link
https://brainly.com/question/14592968
#SPJ4
a 87 year- old caucasian woman is seen in the office with the sudden onset of severe back pain in the mid dorsal region, occurring after she lifted her dog to give it a bath. her previous health has been good, though she had a mastectomy for carcinoma 14 years previously and she has a chronic cough, which has lately been worse. she smokes over a pack a day and has for more than 30 years. examination reveals a thin woman with prominent dorsal kyphosis. she is very tender to dorsal spine percussion and splints the back markedly, preventing most motion. what diagnosis seems most likely?
The diagnosis seems most likely to be osteoporotic fracture of the thoracic spine.
What is thoracic spine?
The upper and middle region of the back is where the thoracic spine is found. The thoracic spine contains twelve vertebrae, labelled T-1 through T-12. T-1 through T-5 nerves affect muscles in the upper chest, mid-back, and abdominal muscles. Each number on the spinal column corresponds to the nerves that run through that region of the spinal cord.
What is osteoporotic fracture?Osteoporotic fractures, also known as fragility fractures or low-trauma fractures, are those brought on by falls of at least one metre from the ground and without significant trauma, such as a car collision. The spine is where osteoporosis-related fractures most frequently happen. In the United States, there are an estimated 1.5 million vertebral compression fractures, often known as spinal fractures. They occur roughly two times as frequently as other fractures, like shattered hips and wrists, that are typically associated with osteoporosis.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that the diagnosis seems most likely to be osteoporotic fracture of the thoracic spine.
Learn more about the Fracture here:
https://brainly.com/question/4261308
#SPJ4
Automated hematology procedures have many advantages over manual methods list five of these advantages
Answer:
What are the celluar components of blood? erythrocytes ... Hemoglobin..serves to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide through the body. Upgrade ... Which cell type is most numerous? ... What is the difference between Wintrobe method and Westergen method? ... List five advantages of Automated hematology procedures.
Explanation:
What does a major medical insurance plan do?
mr. williams like to fill his ace inhibitor medication. which one of these medications should you refill?
mr. williams like to fill his ace inhibitor medication enalapril is one of these medications should you refill.
What are medications used for?Medicines are chemicals or compounds used to cure, halt, or prevent disease; ease symptoms; or help in the diagnosis of illnesses. Advances in medicines have enabled doctors to cure many diseases and save lives.
Does drug mean medication?In pharmacology, a drug is a chemical substance, typically of known structure, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a biological effect. A pharmaceutical drug, also called a medication or medicine, is a chemical substance used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose a disease or to promote well-being.
To know more about medication visit
https://brainly.com/question/9526183
#SPJ4
All the following are example of an advance directive except
Select one:
O a. healthcare proxy.
O b. durable power of attorney.
O c. living will.
O d. Certificate of Death Notice.
All the following such as a healthcare proxy, a durable power of attorney, and the living will are example of an Advance directive except certificate of Death Notice. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is an advance healthcare directive?An advance healthcare directive is also known as the living will, personal directive, or advance decision. It is a legal document in which a person specifies actions or wishes regarding the medical treatment. It is made to ensure those wishes that are carried out even if the person is unable to communicate them to a doctor.
A specific and common example of an advance directive is a do not resuscitate (DNR), which guides care only if the heart stops beating i.e., cardiac arrest or the person is no longer breathing.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
Learn more about Advance directive here:
https://brainly.com/question/27550010
#SPJ2
what action used to clean or remove gross debris from surgical instruments in the ultrasonic cleaner
a 58-year-old man ran out of his congestive heart failure medications. he presents with significant dyspnea and altered mental status. examination reveals bibasilar crackles and jugular venous distension. an electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm with low voltage complexes. which of the following is most appropriate at this time?
The most appropriate action at this time for the 58-year-old man with congestive heart failure who ran out of his medication and is presenting with dyspnea, altered mental status, bibasilar crackles, jugular venous distension, and low voltage complexes on an electrocardiogram would be to administer immediate medical attention.
This patient is experiencing an acute exacerbation of heart failure and requires urgent treatment. The treatment plan will likely involve hospitalization, administration of intravenous diuretics, oxygen therapy, and medication management. The primary objective will be to relieve the patient's symptoms and stabilize his condition.
Additionally, the healthcare team will need to investigate the cause of the medication shortage to prevent it from happening again in the future.
This case highlights the importance of medication adherence in chronic disease management, as failure to take prescribed medications can have serious and potentially life-threatening consequences.
To know more about electrocardiogram refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/11417041#
#SPJ11
pyelo- (pyelo/nephritis; pyelo/gram) means:
The prefix pyelo- is derived from the Greek word "pyelos" which means "pelvis". Therefore, the term pyelo- typically refers to conditions or processes that involve the renal pelvis, which is the part of the kidney where urine collects before passing through the ureter and out of the body.
Pyelo/nephritis is a medical term that describes inflammation of the renal pelvis and the kidney. This condition is typically caused by a bacterial infection that spreads from the bladder or urethra to the kidneys. Symptoms of pyelo/nephritis may include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, and pain in the back or side. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and rest.
Pyelo/gram, on the other hand, is a medical imaging test that uses contrast dye to visualize the renal pelvis and the ureters. This test is typically performed to diagnose urinary tract obstructions, kidney stones, or other conditions that may affect the urinary system. During a pyelo/gram, the contrast dye is injected into a vein and then travels through the bloodstream to the kidneys, where it is filtered and excreted into the urine. X-ray or other imaging techniques are then used to visualize the flow of dye through the urinary system.
In summary, the prefix pyelo- refers to the renal pelvis, and is commonly used in medical terms to describe conditions or processes that involve this part of the kidney. Pyelo/nephritis refers to inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney, while pyelo/gram is a medical imaging test that visualizes the urinary system.
To know more about pelvis, refer
https://brainly.com/question/28306858
#SPJ11
Growth hormone is administered to people who have pituitary dwarfism. Parents wanting their normal children to be taller have requested the treatment for them. Do you think this is a wise request? Why or why not? Using 300 to 500 words post your thoughts about this. Please include at least two scholarly references. Reply to at least two other students' posts using approximately 100 words.
I provided a guide on how to go about writing your essay.
Explanation:
To begin, kindly review relevant literature that relates to the subject to the subject. For example, at least two more articles that discuss growth hormone administration in children with pituitary dwarfism can carefully read.
Next, form conclusions based on the evidence provided from the review of previously published work. Your conclusion should be written in your own words, while also making proper reference citations of authors in other avoid being held for plagiarism.
Ensure the main points are stated taking into account the word limit requirement of 300 to 500 words.
Define the following terms/disorders:
a Articulation Disorder -
b. Phonological Disorder dif
Sounds, not associated with
c. Fluency -
d. Voice Disorder -
e. Language Disorder -
f. Learning Disability -
Answer:
a. Articulation Disorder: A speech disorder in which a person has difficulty producing sounds or pronouncing words correctly due to problems with the articulators (lips, tongue, teeth, palate).
b. Phonological Disorder: A speech disorder in which a person has difficulty understanding and using the sound system of a language, resulting in errors in speech production.
c. Fluency: The ability to speak smoothly and easily without hesitations, repetitions, or pauses.
d. Voice Disorder: A speech disorder in which a person's voice quality, pitch, loudness, or resonance is affected due to problems with the vocal cords or other parts of the voice box.
e. Language Disorder: A communication disorder in which a person has difficulty understanding or using language effectively due to problems with comprehension, expression, or both.
f. Learning Disability: A neurological disorder that affects a person's ability to learn and process information efficiently and accurately.
which of the following is not a natural ligand that binds to G protein
Answer:
Some girls in a Girl Scout troop are pairing up with some boys in a Boy Scout troop to practice square dancing. Two-thirds of the girls are paired with three-fifths of the boys. What fraction of the scouts are square dancing? (Each pair is one Girl Scout and one Boy Scout. The pairs are only from these two troops.)
Explanation:
Some girls in a Girl Scout troop are pairing up with some boys in a Boy Scout troop to practice square dancing. Two-thirds of the girls are paired with three-fifths of the boys. What fraction of the scouts are square dancing? (Each pair is one Girl Scout and one Boy Scout. The pairs are only from these two troops.)
Dr. Mullis conducting testing on a fourth grade student who is having difficulty with math. He is most likely a?
Answer:
Dr. Mullis is most likely a psychologist testing for dyscalculia or another math learning disability rather than simply needing extra support in math. A psychologist can also give input as to the possibility of other learning differences, such as ADHD or dyslexia.
A cell lacking mitochondria would be incapable of what?
Question 47 options:
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Lactic acid fermentation
c)
Aerobic metabolism
d)
Hydrolysis
Answer:
A cell lacking mitochondria would be incapable of aerobic metabolism. Aerobic metabolism is the process by which cells use oxygen to produce energy. This process takes place in the mitochondria, so a cell without mitochondria would not be able to produce energy through aerobic metabolism.
Glycolysis and lactic acid fermentation are both anaerobic processes, meaning they do not require oxygen. Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction that breaks down molecules using water. None of these processes require mitochondria, so a cell lacking mitochondria would still be capable of glycolysis, lactic acid fermentation, and hydrolysis.
So the answer is (c).
8. Your patient is prescribed a medication 2.5 mg orally twice a day x 20 tablets. The
owner of the patient asks you how many days in total she should give her dog the
medication. What do you tell her?
Answer:
according to the tablet she will buy
Explanation:
if the pill is 2,5 it will be 10 days
if the pill is 5 mg and she needs to divide it to be suitable to the does which the dr described it will be 20 days
The first line of defense involves which structure(s)?
O T-cells
O skin
O blood
OB-cells
Plz help me and don’t just say you got I right
8. What is the first thing you should do after you know the scene is safe to help?
Slide 8)
a. Start CPR
b. Hook up the AED
C. Call 911
d. Do rescue breathing
Something was wrong with Tu. He felt sick, and he had a fever. At 3:00 pm his temperature was 101.8°F By 5:00
pm it was 102.3°F. How many degrees had his temperature gone up by?
Answer:
.5
Explanation:
You subtract 102.3 F by 101.8 F to find out the difference.
a pregnant client who has hiv asks the nurse if her baby will have the disease. the best response would be:
"Although HIV can be transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, delivery, or breastfeeding, there are ways to significantly reduce the risk of transmission. With appropriate medical care and treatment, the risk of transmitting HIV to your baby can be reduced to less than 1%. We can also provide antiretroviral medications to both you and your baby during pregnancy, labor, and delivery to further reduce the risk of transmission. We can discuss all of these options with you and provide you with the support and care you need to ensure the health and well-being of you and your baby."
\( \: \)
Which type of fruit commonly interferes with proper absorption of several common drugs?
Grapefruit is the fruit that commonly interferes with the proper absorption of several common drugs.
Grapefruit is a subtropical citrus fruit that has a taste ranging from bitter to sour. It is usually consumed for breakfast, and it is also a component of various juices, salads, and cocktails.
Grapefruit is high in fiber, vitamins, and minerals. However, it contains a variety of chemicals known as furanocoumarins, which have been linked to interactions with a variety of medications.
The furanocoumarins in grapefruit are responsible for the fruit's interaction with certain drugs. Grapefruit inhibits CYP3A4, a particular enzyme found in the intestinal wall and liver, which affects the absorption and metabolism of a wide range of medications. This leads to an increased concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, which can cause a variety of adverse effects,
Some examples are Seville oranges, lime, and pomelo.
When you take a medication that may interact with grapefruit, the safest approach is to avoid the fruit or its juice entirely. The same advice goes for other fruits that contain furanocoumarins.
To know more about drugs visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29767316
#SPJ11
What would you expect to find in the anterior columns of the spinal cord?
O perikarya
0 tracts
O cerebrospinal fluid
O meninges
O blood
B, tract is the found in the anterior columns of the spinal cord.
What does the spinal cord consist of?The anterior columns of the spinal cord, also known as the anterior funiculi, contain descending motor tracts, which are responsible for carrying motor signals from the brain to the spinal cord and then out to the muscles. These tracts include the corticospinal tract, the rubrospinal tract, and the vestibulospinal tract, among others.
The perikarya (cell bodies), cerebrospinal fluid, meninges, and blood, are not typically found in the anterior columns of the spinal cord. However, perikarya of motor neurons are located in the anterior horn of the spinal cord.
Find out more on spinal cord here: https://brainly.com/question/12187861
#SPJ1