Constant voltage is NOT used for which of the following welding processes?

A. Gas metal arc welding

B. Flux core arc welding

C. Gas tungsten arc welding

D. Submerged arc welding

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

C. Gas tungsten arc welding

Explanation:

Arc welding processes that employ a continuous fed wire electrode uses a constant voltage power source. This type of power source has a flat volt-ampere curve. The welding current and the electrode feed rate are matched to rate of wire melting and transfer across the arc into the weld pool. A monitoring system is responsible for controlling electrode speed using the arc voltage.

Answer 2

It should be noted that Constant voltage is not used for the Gas tungsten arc welding.

Constant voltage can be regarded as the ability to fluctuate output current ,so that in this process set voltage can be maintained. and it is used where the workpieces do not have flat surfaces.

Constant voltage can be used for applications  such as welding process like;

Gas metal arc welding Flux core arc weldingSubmerged arc welding

Therefore, option C is correct because Constant voltage is not used for the

Gas tungsten arc welding.

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Related Questions

Which statement best explains why pneumatic cylinders need to be smaller than hydraulic cylinders?
The pneumatic system only needs enough room to have an onloff switch installed in order to operate correctly.
The energy in pneumatic power systems is easily transmitted to gases, which absorb the energy of the system and lower its efficiency
The control of the hydraulic system is much more precise and therefore requires a larger cylinder.
The fluid in a hydraulic system has more mass and therefore needs more storage space.

Answers

Answer:

The energy in pneumatic power systems is easily transmitted to gases, which absorb the energy of the system and lower its efficiency.

Explanation:

I did it on edge and got it right.

Answer:

The energy in pneumatic power systems is easily transmitted to gases, which absorb the energy of the system and lower its efficiency

Thanks for points!!! :D

An enterprise resource planning system reduces the need for extensive training T/F.

Answers

False. An  enterprise resource planning does not necessarily reduce the need for extensive training.

While an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system can streamline business processes and increase efficiency, it does not necessarily reduce the need for extensive training.

In fact, implementing an ERP system often requires significant training and education for employees to understand how to properly use the system.

ERP systems are complex and can involve multiple modules that handle different aspects of a business, such as finance, human resources, and supply chain management. Employees need to be trained on how to use each module and how they interact with each other. Additionally, ERP systems often require changes to existing business processes, which also require training and education.

Furthermore, ongoing training is necessary to ensure that employees are using the ERP system effectively and efficiently. As updates and new features are added to the system, employees need to be trained on how to use them.

In summary, while an ERP system can improve business processes and increase efficiency, it does not eliminate the need for extensive training. Proper training is essential to ensure that employees can effectively use the system and maximize its benefits.

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For this activity, imagine you are participating in a town hall meeting about possible gene drive research. In this fictional scenario, ASU scientists propose to develop a gene drive to eliminate West Nile Virus in the Phoenix area. In the spirit of democratic deliberation, the scientists plan to discuss the research vision with the community at a Science Cafe at Changing Hands Bookstore. Select one of the meeting participants to play from the list below. To prepare for the discussion, write a post explaining your starting position on the research. Are you in favor? Have questions? Are there ways of setting up the project that would lead you to support or oppose it? Etc.Participants:
A Tempe city council member
A retiree who has recently moved to Arizona to be near kids
A stay-at-home parent with young children
A local hardware store employee

Answers

As a local hardware store employee, I have concerns about the long-term consequences and risks of a gene drive for eliminating West Nile Virus.

Participant: A local hardware store employee

Post:

As a local hardware store employee, I have a vested interest in the well-being of the Phoenix community. I understand that the scientists from ASU are proposing the development of a gene drive to eliminate West Nile Virus in our area, and I believe it's crucial to have an open discussion about this research vision.

Firstly, I want to emphasize that I am not an expert in genetics or public health. However, I do have concerns and questions regarding the potential implementation of a gene drive for such a purpose.

My main concern revolves around the long-term consequences and potential risks associated with altering the genetic makeup of organisms, even if it is for a positive outcome like eliminating West Nile Virus. While the eradication of this disease is undoubtedly a worthy goal, we must ensure that the benefits outweigh any unintended negative effects.

Before I can fully support or oppose this research, I would like to better understand the safeguards that would be put in place to prevent any unintended ecological disruptions. What are the contingency plans if the gene drive were to have unintended consequences on non-target species? Are there measures in place to address potential resistance to the gene drive in the West Nile Virus-carrying mosquitoes? These are critical questions that must be answered to assess the feasibility and safety of this project.

Additionally, it would be crucial to involve a diverse range of stakeholders in the decision-making process. Engaging with experts in genetics, public health officials, and environmentalists, along with community members, will help ensure that all perspectives are taken into account. Transparency and inclusivity are key to fostering trust and ensuring that the decision ultimately made serves the best interests of our community.

In conclusion, while I recognize the importance of addressing the issue of West Nile Virus, I approach the proposal for a gene drive with caution. My starting position is one of skepticism and the need for further information. I believe a comprehensive risk assessment, robust stakeholder engagement, and a thorough examination of potential unintended consequences are necessary before making a final determination on supporting or opposing the project.

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The boost converter of Fig. 6-8 has parameter Vs 20 V, D 0.6, R 12.5 , L 10 H, C 40 F, and the switching frequency is 200 kHz. (a) Determine the output voltage. (b) Determine the average, maximum, and minimum inductor currents. (c) Determine the output voltage ripple. (d) Determine the average current in the diode. Assume ideal components.

Answers

Answer:

a) the output voltage is 50 V

b)

- the average inductor current is 10 A

- the maximum inductor current is 13 A

- the maximum inductor current is 7 A

c) the output voltage ripple is 0.006 or 0.6%V₀

d) the average current in the diode under ideal components is 4 A

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

a) the output voltage

V₀ = V\(_s\)/( 1 - D )

given that; V\(_s\) = 20 V, D = 0.6

we substitute

V₀ = 20 / ( 1 - 0.6 )

V₀ = 20 / 0.4

V₀ = 50 V

Therefore, the output voltage is 50 V

b)

- the average inductor current

\(I_L\) = V\(_s\) / ( 1 - D )²R

given that R = 12.5 Ω, V\(_s\) = 20 V, D = 0.6

we substitute

\(I_L\) = 20 / (( 1 - 0.6 )² × 12.5)

\(I_L\) = 20 / (( 0.4)² × 12.5)

\(I_L\) = 20 / ( 0.16 × 12.5 )

\(I_L\) = 20 / 2

\(I_L\) = 10 A

Therefore, the average inductor current is 10 A

- the maximum inductor current

\(I_{Lmax\) = [V\(_s\) / ( 1 - D )²R] + [ V

given that, R = 12.5 Ω, V\(_s\) = 20 V, D = 0.6, L = 10 μH, T = 1/200 kHz = 5 hz

we substitute

\(I_{Lmax\) = [20 / (( 1 - 0.6 )² × 12.5)] + [ (20 × 0.6 × 5) / (2 × 10) ]

\(I_{Lmax\) = [20 / 2 ] + [ 60 / 20 ]    

\(I_{Lmax\) = 10 + 3

\(I_{Lmax\) = 13 A

Therefore, the maximum inductor current is 13 A

- The minimum inductor current

\(I_{Lmax\) = [V\(_s\) / ( 1 - D )²R] - [ V

given that, R = 12.5 Ω, V\(_s\) = 20 V, D = 0.6, L = 10 μH, T = 1/200 kHz = 5 hz

we substitute

\(I_{Lmin\) = [20 / (( 1 - 0.6 )² × 12.5)] - [ (20 × 0.6 × 5) / (2 × 10) ]

\(I_{Lmin\) = [20 / 2 ] -[ 60 / 20 ]    

\(I_{Lmin\) = 10 - 3

\(I_{Lmin\)  = 7 A

Therefore, the maximum inductor current is 7 A

 

c)  the output voltage ripple

ΔV₀/V₀ = D/RCf

given that; R = 12.5 Ω, C = 40 μF = 40 × 10⁻⁶ F, D = 0.6, f = 200 Khz = 2 × 10⁵ Hz

we substitute

ΔV₀/V₀ = 0.6 / (12.5 × (40 × 10⁻⁶) × (2 × 10⁵) )

ΔV₀/V₀ = 0.6 / 100

ΔV₀/V₀ = 0.006 or 0.6%V₀

Therefore, the output voltage ripple is 0.006 or 0.6%V₀

d) the average current in the diode under ideal components;

under ideal components; diode current = output current

hence the diode current will be;

\(I_D\) = V₀/R

as V₀ = 50 V and R = 12.5 Ω

we substitute

\(I_D\) = 50 / 12.5

\(I_D\) = 4 A

Therefore, the average current in the diode under ideal components is 4 A

The boost converter of Fig. 6-8 has parameter Vs 20 V, D 0.6, R 12.5 , L 10 H, C 40 F, and the switching

Explain why employees get less on their paychecks than they expect, yet actually cost their employers more.

Answers

When employees get less on their paychecks than they expect, yet actually cost their employers more, it is because there is a disparity between their contribution to the company and what they cost the company (that is Total Cost to the Company).

What is the solution to the above scenario?

In order to solve the above problem, the company can redesign the role such that the staff is in full control over how much they earn. This can be done using a sales commission model. Or a performance-based pay model.

It is also important to hold regular performance appraisal meetings with staff to know how they are doing and to help them with any obstacles that prevent them from performing optimally.

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Summary of the human gait. It has to include the walking cycle appropriate definitions such as: Initial Contact, Loading Response, Mid Stance, Terminal Stance, Pre-Swing, Initial and Mid Swing, and Terminal Swing.

Answers

The human gait is the movement of an individual's limbs during walking. A single walking cycle includes eight distinct phases that occur in a specific order, namely; Initial Contact, Loading Response, Mid Stance, Terminal Stance, Pre-Swing, Initial Swing, Mid Swing, and Terminal Swing.

Human gait refers to the movement of an individual's limbs during locomotion or walking. This movement is essential in our daily lives as it enables us to get from one place to another. The walking cycle is an important part of the human gait as it describes the sequence of movements that occur in one complete step. A single walking cycle includes eight distinct phases that occur in a specific order: Initial Contact, Loading Response, Mid Stance, Terminal Stance, Pre-Swing, Initial Swing, Mid Swing, and Terminal Swing.

Initial Contact: This is the first phase of the walking cycle and occurs when the heel of the foot comes into contact with the ground.

Loading Response: This phase occurs immediately after initial contact and involves the foot flattening out as it bears the weight of the body.

Mid Stance: This is the third phase and occurs when the foot is flat on the ground and the body weight is distributed evenly over the foot.

Terminal Stance: This is the fourth phase and occurs when the heel of the foot starts to lift off the ground and the body weight is shifted onto the ball of the foot.

Pre-Swing: This is the fifth phase and occurs when the heel of the foot is lifted off the ground and the toe is still in contact with the ground.

Initial Swing: This is the sixth phase and occurs when the foot is lifted off the ground and begins to move forward.

Mid Swing: This is the seventh phase and occurs when the foot swings past the body but has not yet reached its furthest point forward.

Terminal Swing: This is the final phase and occurs when the foot reaches its furthest point forward before the next step begins.

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5 kg of a wet steam has a volume of 2 m3

at a pressure of 200 kPa. If the volume remains

constant and heat is added until the pressure reaches 800 kPa, find the initial and final

dryness fraction of the steam.

(b) Calculate the heat input for the reversible process defined in the problem above.​

Answers

Have you seen the state of her body. Mad. If I wear it I ain’t wearing a jolly. ADEOLA wanna ride in the gysa

describe the validation processes used throughout an object-oriented design process. reason the placement of each validation step in the process and what is the purpose of each validation?

Answers

Validation is a crucial part of the object-oriented design process. The primary purpose of validation is to ensure that the design meets the requirements and specifications of the system being developed.

How does the validation process work?

The validation process is typically divided into several stages and placed at specific points in the design process.

These stages include requirements validation, design validation, and implementation validation.

Requirements validation ensures that the design meets the specified requirements.

Design validation checks that the design is consistent with the requirements and that it is feasible to implement.

Implementation validation verifies that the implementation matches the design and meets the system's requirements.

The purpose of each validation step is to detect errors early in the design process to avoid costly rework later.

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Describe how a photo multiplier tube works. (3) 7.) How does a mercury lamp work?

Answers

A photo multiplier tube (PMT) amplifies the intensity of light by converting photons into electrical signals.

A photo multiplier tube (PMT) is a highly sensitive device used to detect and measure low levels of light. It consists of a vacuum tube with several important components. The PMT starts with a photocathode, which is a thin metal film that emits electrons when struck by photons. When light enters the PMT, it interacts with the photocathode, causing the emission of electrons through the photoelectric effect.

The emitted electrons are then accelerated by a high voltage applied across the PMT, creating an electron cascade. This acceleration occurs in a series of dynodes, which are metal plates that have a slightly higher voltage than the previous dynode. As the electrons strike each dynode, they release more electrons, resulting in a significant amplification of the signal.

At the end of the electron cascade, the amplified signal reaches an anode, where it is collected as an electrical pulse. This pulse can then be processed and measured by external electronic devices for further analysis or recording. The overall amplification of the PMT can range from thousands to millions, depending on the number of dynodes and their voltages.

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a load of 12tonnes is put along a horizontal plane by a force at 30°to and above the flat. if the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.2 find the frictional force​

Answers

Answer:

20368.917N

Explanation:

Frictional force (F) is the product of the Coefficient of friction and the normal reaction.

F = μN

Coefficient of friction, μ = 0.2

Normal reaction = MgCosθ

Mass, m = 12 tonnes = 12 * 1000 = 12000 kg

N = 12000 * 9.8 * cos30

N = 101844.58

F = 0.2 * 101844.58

F = 20368.917N

If a water heater operates at 20 amps on a 240 volt circuit, what is the wattage of the appliance?

Answers

Answer:

  4800 watts

Explanation:

Power is the product of voltage and current:

  P = VI = (240 V)(20 A) = 4800 W

The wattage is 4800 watts.

Calculate the settlement of a foundation supported on a sand stratum using the Schmertmann method. Square foundation 3 m by 3 m, foundation bearing capacity q 165 kPa, installation depth D 1.5m

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information:

The square foundation = 3m by 3m

capacity q = 165 kPa

depth = 1.5 m

assuming soil unit weight = 17.5 kN

q = 17.5 × 1.5

q = 26.25 kPa

Settlement \(Se = C_1C_2 (\overline q - q) (\dfrac{I_z}{E_s})D_f\)

where;

\(c_1 = 1-0.5 (\dfrac{q}{\overline q -q})\)

\(c_1 = 0.905\)

\(c_2 = 1+ 0.2 log ( \dfrac{t}{0.1})\)

suppose t = 1year

\(c_2 = 1+ 0.2 log ( \dfrac{1}{0.1})\)

\(c_2 = 1.2\)

Using Schertmann method.

\(\mathtt{ I_t = 0.5 }\)

\(\dfrac{length }{breadth } = \dfrac{3}{3}=1\)

E⁵ = \(2.5 q_e\)

E⁵ = 2.5 × 165

E⁵ = 412.5 kPa

Hence: \(Se = C_1C_2 (\overline q - q) (\dfrac{I_z}{E_s})D_f\)

\(Se = 0.905 * 1.2(165-26.25) (\dfrac{0.5}{412.5})*1.5\)

\(\mathbf{Se = 0.273 \ m}\)

Spectral radiation at 2 = 2.445 um and with intensity 7.35 kW/(m².umsr) enters a gas and travels through the gas along a path length of 21.5 cm. The gas is at uniform temperature 1000 K and has an absorption coefficient K2.445 um = 0.557 m-!. What is the intensity of the radiation at the end of the path?

Answers

The intensity of the spectral radiation at 2 = 2.445 um at the end of the path is 4.21 kW/(m².umsr) after passing through the gas at a uniform temperature of 1000 K.

The intensity of the spectral radiation at 2 = 2.445 um after traveling through the gas with a path length of 21.5 cm can be calculated using the Beer-Lambert law, which states that the intensity of radiation decreases exponentially with path length and absorption coefficient. The equation is given as:
I = I0 * e^(-K * L)
where I0 is the initial intensity, K is the absorption coefficient, and L is the path length.
Using the given values, the initial intensity (I0) is 7.35 kW/(m².umsr), the path length (L) is 21.5 cm (or 0.215 m), and the absorption coefficient (K2.445 um) is 0.557 m^-1.
Plugging these values into the equation, we get:
I = 7.35 kW/(m².umsr) * e^(-0.557 m^-1 * 0.215 m)
I = 4.21 kW/(m².umsr)
Therefore, the intensity of the spectral radiation at 2 = 2.445 um at the end of the path is 4.21 kW/(m².umsr) after passing through the gas at a uniform temperature of 1000 K.

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Can some help me with this !!! Is 26 points!!

Can some help me with this !!! Is 26 points!!

Answers

Third one
15,000,000 ohms because M=10^6

4. What are these parts commonly called?
Select all that apply:
Carburetor venturi tubes
Carburetor emulsion tubes
Carburetor air bleed tubes
O Carburetor stand-off tubes

4. What are these parts commonly called?Select all that apply:Carburetor venturi tubesCarburetor emulsion

Answers

These parts are commonly called carburetor emulsion tubes. These tubes maintain the air-fuel ratio at different speeds.

The carburetor is a device of the combustion engine power supply system that mixes fuel and air in order to facilitate internal combustion.

The carburetor emulsion tubes are tubes that maintain the air-fuel ratio at different velocities.

These tubes (carburetor emulsion tubes) are small brass cylinders where the metering needle slides into them.

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.Tech A says that unitized hubs have a wheel nut with a higher installation torque than
serviceable wheel bearings. Tech B says that unitized hubs have the proper bearing end
play designed into the assembly once they are torqued properly. Who is correct?
a. Tech A
b.
Tech B
C
Both a and b
D
Neither a and d

Answers

Tech A says that unitized hubs have a wheel nut with a higher installation torque than serviceable wheel bearings. Tech B says that unitized hubs have the proper bearing end play designed into the assembly once they are torqued properly is Option C: Both a and b

Describe a wheel bearing?

When compared to manually adjusted, PreSet, or LMS hub assemblies, unitized hub assemblies often require a lot more assembly torque and special spindle nut systems.

Therefore, An essential component of the wheel assembly that connects the wheel to the axle is a wheel bearing. A metal ring is used to hold a group of steel balls (also known as ball bearings) or taper (also known as tapered bearings) together. It permits the wheel to spin easily and with little resistance.

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The LSL instruction is used to load values from memory into registers. True False

Answers

False, The LSL instruction is not used to load values from memory into registers

How to determine the statement

It is not possible to load values from memory into registers using the LSL (Logical Shift Left) instruction.

It is a machine instruction that is frequently present in computer architectures, especially in those that use register-based architecture.

By moving the bits in a register to the left by a predetermined number of positions, the LSL instruction executes a bitwise shift operation on the register.

Within the CPU itself, this is frequently used for operations like multiplication or shifting.

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In the given example, which type of interior designer is Sarah? Sarah is an interior designer. The state in which she resides applies practice acts to interior design professionals. Therefore, Sarah carries the title of a ____ interior designer.

Answers

Answer:

Sarah is a professional interior designer.

Therefore, Sarah carries the title of a _registered___ interior designer.

Explanation:

Some states require only the licensed designers to carry out interior designs, while some others allow both the licensed and unlicensed interior designers to carry on the work of interior designers.  In the states where only the licensed designers are allowed to use the title of interior designer, they are registered after passing the state-prescribed examinations and meeting some professional experience requirements. The most common exam is the National Council for Interior Design Qualification (NCIDQ) examination, which only bachelor degree holders in interior design are allowed to sit for.

While playing a game of catch on the quadrangle, you throw a ball at an initial velocity of 17.6 m/s (approximately 39.4 mi/hr), at an angle of 50 degrees above horizontal. The ball flies past your friend, and lands on the ground. You let the ball go at a height of 2 m above the ground. Define upward as the positive y direction, and the horizontal direction of the ball's travel as the positive x direction. You can assume that air resistance and any effects of the ball spinning are so small that they can be ignored; this means that gravity is the only force causing an acceleration.

Required:
a. What is the y-component of velocity just before the ball hits the ground?
b. For how much time is the ball in the air?
c. How far horizontally does the ball travel before it hits the ground?
d. What is the magnitude of the velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground?
e. What is the angle of the total velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground?

Answers

Answer:

a) The y-component of velocity just before the ball hits the ground is -14.860 meters per second.

b) The ball is in the air during approximately 2.890 seconds.

c) The horizontal distance covered by the ball is 32.695 meters.

d) The magnitude of the velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground is approximately 18.676 meters per second.

e) The angle of the total velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground is approximately 52.717º below the horizontal.

Explanation:

a) The ball experiments a parabolic motion, which is a combination of horizontal motion at constant velocity and vertical motion at constant acceleration. First, we calculate the time taken by the ball to hit the ground:

\(y = y_{o} + (v_{o}\cdot \sin \theta) \cdot t+\frac{1}{2}\cdot g\cdot t^{2}\) (1)

Where:

\(y_{o}\), \(y\) - Initial and final vertical position, measured in meters.

\(v_{o}\) - Initial speed, measured in meters per second.

\(\theta\) - Launch angle, measured in sexagesimal degrees.

\(g\) - Gravitational acceleration, measured in meters per square second.

\(t\) - Time, measured in seconds.

If we know that \(y_{o} = 2\,m\), \(y = 0\,m\), \(v_{o} = 17.6\,\frac{m}{s}\), \(\theta = 50^{\circ}\) and \(g = -9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}\), then the time taken by the ball is:

\(-4.904\cdot t^{2}+13.482\cdot t +2 = 0\) (2)

This second order polynomial can be solved by Quadratic Formula:

\(t_{1} \approx 2.890\,s\) and \(t_{2} \approx -0.141\,s\)

Only the first root offers a solution that is physically reasonable. That is, \(t \approx 2.890\,s\).

The vertical velocity of the ball is calculated by this expression:

\(v_{y} = v_{o}\cdot \sin \theta +g\cdot t\) (3)

Where:

\(v_{o,y}\), \(v_{y}\) - Initial and final vertical velocity, measured in meters per second.

If we know that \(v_{o} = 17.6\,\frac{m}{s}\), \(\theta = 50^{\circ}\), \(g = -9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}\) and \(t \approx 2.890\,s\), then the final vertical velocity is:

\(v_{y} = -14.860\,\frac{m}{s}\)

The y-component of velocity just before the ball hits the ground is -14.860 meters per second.

b) From a) we understand that ball is in the air during approximately 2.890 seconds.

c) The horizontal distance covered by the ball (\(x\)) is determined by the following expression:

\(x = (v_{o}\cdot \cos \theta)\cdot t\) (4)

If we know that \(v_{o} = 17.6\,\frac{m}{s}\), \(\theta = 50^{\circ}\) and \(t \approx 2.890\,s\), then the distance covered by the ball is:

\(x = 32.695\,m\)

The horizontal distance covered by the ball is 32.695 meters.

d) The magnitude of the velocity of the ball just before hitting the ground (\(v\)), measured in meters per second, is determined by the following Pythagorean identity:

\(v = \sqrt{(v_{o}\cdot \cos \theta )^{2}+v_{y}^{2}}\) (5)

If we know that \(v_{o} = 17.6\,\frac{m}{s}\), \(\theta = 50^{\circ}\) and \(v_{y} = -14.860\,\frac{m}{s}\), then the magnitude of the velocity of the ball is:

\(v \approx 18.676\,\frac{m}{s}\).

The magnitude of the velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground is approximately 18.676 meters per second.

e) The angle of the total velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground is defined by the following trigonometric relationship:

\(\tan \theta = \frac{v_{y}}{v_{o}\cdot \cos \theta_{o}}\)

If we know that \(v_{o} = 17.6\,\frac{m}{s}\), \(\theta_{o} = 50^{\circ}\) and \(v_{y} = -14.860\,\frac{m}{s}\), the angle of the total velocity of the ball just before hitting the ground is:

\(\theta \approx -52.717^{\circ}\)

The angle of the total velocity of the ball just before it hits the ground is approximately 52.717º below the horizontal.

Answer:

A

Explanation:

why is the surface area an important factor in package design?

Answers

The surface area to volume (S/V) ratio (the three dimensional extrapolation of the perimeter to area ratio) is an important factor determining heat loss and gain. The greater the surface area the more the heat gain/ loss through it. So small S/V ratios imply minimum heat gain and minimum heat loss.

To minimize the losses and gains through the fabric of a building a compact shape is desirable. The most compact orthogonal building would then be a cube. This configuration, however, may place a large portion of the floor area far from perimeter daylighting. Contrary to this, a building massing that optimizes daylighting and ventilation would be elongated so that more of the building area is closer to the perimeter. While this may appear to compromise the thermal performance of the building, the electrical load and cooling load savings achieved by a well-designed daylighting system will more than compensate for the increased fabric losses.

In hot dry climates S/V ratio should be as low as possible as this would minimize heat gain. In cold-dry climates also S/V ratios should be as low as possible to minimize heat losses. In warm-humid climates the prime concern is creating airy spaces. This might not necessarily minimize the S/V ratio. Further, the materials of construction should be such that they do not store heat.

The surface area can be important for that because for a package design the people need to know like the sizes and measurements and other things and surface area includes some of that stuff so it can be important.

a steel compression member has a fixed supportat one end and a frictionless ball joint at the other end asshown. the total applied design load consists of a dead loadof 7 kips and an unspecified live load. this compressionmember is controlled by which type of buckling?

Answers

A steel compression member with a fixed support at one end and a frictionless ball joint at the other end, as described, is subject to a specific type of buckling known as Euler's critical buckling.

This buckling phenomenon occurs when the applied load reaches a critical value, causing the member to suddenly buckle and deform. In this case, the total applied design load consists of a 7 kip dead load and an unspecified live load. Since the fixed support provides full restraint, while the frictionless ball joint allows rotational movement, the member experiences one end fixed, and one end pinned boundary conditions. This configuration results in a lower buckling load capacity compared to a member with fixed supports at both ends, making it crucial to consider Euler's critical buckling when designing this compression member.

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Who should typically deliver a user support plan that addresses issues such as how users will be able to find help once the information system is integrated?
A) The development team should develop a user support plan.
B) The systems analyst should develop a user support plan.
C) Upper management should develop a user support plan.
D) The users of the system should develop a user support plan.

Answers

The correct answer is B) The systems analyst should develop a user support plan.

A furnace with an aperture of 20-mm diameter and emis- sive power of 3. 72 x 105 W/m, is used to calibrate a heat flux gage having a sensitive area of 1. 6 × 10-5 m2. (a) At what distance, measured along a normal from the aperture, should the gage be positioned to receive irradiation of 1000 W/m2? (b) If the gage is tilted off normal by 20°, what will be its irradiation?

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To calculate the distance at which the gage should be positioned to receive irradiation of 1000 W/m², we can use the inverse square law for radiation. The formula is:

Irradiation = Emissive Power / (4 * π * distance^2)

where Irradiation is in W/m², Emissive Power is in W, and distance is in meters.

(a) Let's solve for the distance:

1000 W/m² = 3.72 × 10^5 W/m / (4 * π * distance^2)

Rearranging the equation to solve for distance:

distance^2 = (3.72 × 10^5 W/m) / (4 * π * 1000 W/m²)

distance^2 = 296.94 m²

distance ≈ √(296.94) ≈ 17.23 meters

Therefore, the gage should be positioned at a distance of approximately 17.23 meters from the furnace aperture to receive irradiation of 1000 W/m².

(b) If the gage is tilted off normal by 20°, its irradiation will be affected by the cosine of the angle of incidence. The formula is:

Irradiation = Irradiation_normal * cos(angle)

where Irradiation_normal is the irradiation when the gage is normal to the radiation, and angle is the angle of incidence.

Given that the irradiation_normal is 1000 W/m², and the angle of incidence is 20°, we can calculate:

Irradiation = 1000 W/m² * cos(20°)

Irradiation ≈ 1000 W/m² * 0.9397 ≈ 939.7 W/m²

Therefore, if the gage is tilted off normal by 20°, its irradiation will be approximately 939.7 W/m².

Mechanic... Mechanical Engineer... What's the difference?
Instructions: Answer the question below with at least TWO complete sentences.

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Answer:

Mechanic: a person who repairs and maintains machinery

Mechanical engineers: design power-producing machines

Explanation:

Anyone help me please ?

Anyone help me please ?

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Answer:

I can help but I need to know what it looking for

if the old radiator is replaced with a new one that has longer tubes made of the same material and same thickness as those in the old unit, what should the total surface area available for heat exchange be in the new radiator to achieve the necessary heat exchange rate at the recommended temperature gradient?

Answers

First of all, we need to find the total surface area of the old radiator which is; 3/2* area of old radiator.

From the question that we have been given,

We can say that the Thermal conductivity is the same for both radiators.

We can use the following formula to get the surface area of the new radiator;

K = Q/A*ΔT

change in T =  ΔT

So, we can say the surface area for the new radiator is 3/2* area of the old radiator.

A heat exchanger

This is a heat transfer device, usually used to in transferring heat from one source to another and eventually to a working fluid. This heat exchangers are very vital in the cooling and heating processes. The fluids can be separated to avoid mixing. They are normally in many places such as, refrigeration, space heating, power plants etc.

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For heat transfer purposes, a standing man can be mod-eled as a 30-cm-diameter, 170-cm-long vertical cylinderwith both the top and bottom surfaces insulated and with theside surface at an average temperature of 34°C. For a con-vection heat transfer coefficient of 15 W/m2·K, determinethe rate of heat loss from this man by convection in still airat 20°C. What would your answer

Answers

Answer:

Rate of Heat Loss = 336 W

Explanation:

First, we will find the surface area of the cylinder that is modelled as the man:

\(Area = A = (2\pi r)(l)\)

where,

r = radius of cylinder = 30 cm/2 = 15 cm = 0.15 m

l = length of cylinder = 170 cm = 1.7 m

Therefore,

\(A = 2\pi(0.15\ m)(1.7\ m)\\A = 1.6\ m^2\)

Now, we will calculate the rate of heat loss:

\(Rate\ of\ Heat\ Loss = hA\Delta T\)

where,

h = convective heat tranfer  coefficient = 15 W/m²K

ΔT = Temperature difference = 34°C - 20°C = 14°C

Therefore,

\(Rate\ of\ Heat\ Loss = (15\ W/m^2K)(1.6\ m^2)(14\ K)\\\)

Rate of Heat Loss = 336 W

Thermal energy storage systems commonly involve a packed bed of solid spheres, through which a hot gas flows if the system is being charged, or a cold gas if it is being discharged. In a charging process, heat transfer from the hot gas increases thermal energy stored within the colder spheres; during discharge, the stored energy decreases as heat is transferred from the warmer spheres to the cooler gas. Consider a packed bed of 75 -mm-diameter aluminum spheres (rho=2700 kg/m3,c=950 J/kg⋅K,k= 240 W/m⋅K ) and a charging process for which gas enters the storage unit at a temperature of Tg,i​=300∘C. If the initial temperature of the spheres is Ti​=25∘C and the convection coefficient is h=75 W/m2⋅K, how long does it take a sphere near the inlet of the system to accumulate 90% of the maximum possible thermal energy? What is the corresponding temperature at the center of the sphere? Is there any advantage to using copper instead of aluminum?

Answers

The corresponding temperature at the center of the sphere after approximately 0.309 seconds is approximately 198.83°C.

To determine the time required for a sphere near the inlet of the system to accumulate 90% of the maximum possible thermal energy, we can use the concept of thermal diffusion through a sphere. The time required can be calculated using the equation for the thermal diffusion time constant:

τ = (ρ * c * r^2) / (4 * k)

where:

τ is the thermal diffusion time constant,

ρ is the density of the sphere material (in this case, aluminum) = 2700 kg/m^3,

c is the specific heat capacity of the sphere material (in this case, aluminum) = 950 J/kg⋅K,

r is the radius of the sphere (diameter/2) = 75 mm / 2 = 37.5 mm = 0.0375 m,

k is the thermal conductivity of the sphere material (in this case, aluminum) = 240 W/m⋅K.

Substituting these values into the equation, we can calculate the thermal diffusion time constant:

τ = (2700 kg/m^3 * 950 J/kg⋅K * (0.0375 m)^2) / (4 * 240 W/m⋅K)

Now we can solve for τ:

τ ≈ 0.309 seconds

The thermal diffusion time constant represents the time required for a sphere to reach approximately 63.2% of the maximum possible thermal energy. To calculate the time required to accumulate 90% of the maximum energy, we can use the following relation:

t = τ * ln((90% - 63.2%) / (100% - 63.2%))

Substituting the values into the equation:

t = 0.309 seconds * ln((90% - 63.2%) / (100% - 63.2%))

t ≈ 0.309 seconds * ln(0.271 / 0.368)

t ≈ 0.309 seconds * ln(0.736)

t ≈ 0.309 seconds * (-0.305)

t ≈ -0.094 seconds

The negative value obtained implies that 90% of the maximum possible thermal energy cannot be accumulated within a sphere near the inlet of the system. This suggests that the system may need additional time or adjustments to reach the desired energy level.

To calculate the corresponding temperature at the center of the sphere, we can use the concept of one-dimensional transient heat conduction through a sphere. The equation for this scenario is:

T = Ti + (Tg,i - Ti) * (1 - exp(-t / τ))

where:

T is the temperature at the center of the sphere at time t,

Ti is the initial temperature of the spheres = 25°C,

Tg,i is the gas temperature at the inlet of the system = 300°C,

t is the time,

τ is the thermal diffusion time constant calculated earlier.

Let's calculate the corresponding temperature at the center of the sphere when t = 0.309 seconds

T = 25°C + (300°C - 25°C) * (1 - exp(-0.309 / 0.309))

T ≈ 25°C + 275°C * (1 - exp(-1))

T ≈ 25°C + 275°C * (1 - 0.3679)

T ≈ 25°C + 275°C * 0.6321

T ≈ 25°C + 173.8275°C

T ≈ 198.8275°C

Therefore, the corresponding temperature at the center of the sphere after approximately 0.309 seconds is approximately 198.83°C.

Now, let's consider the advantage of using copper instead

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(6) effects of urbanization on the urban hydrology

Answers

Answer:

123456

Explanation:

determine the maximum value of the normal stress in the block. (input the answer with the appropriate sign.) the maximum value of the normal stress in the block is ksi.

Answers

The maximum value of the normal stress in the block is ksi, but the specific value is not provided in the question.

To determine the maximum value of the normal stress in the block, we need more information such as the applied load, geometry of the block, and material properties. Without these details, it is not possible to calculate the exact value of the maximum normal stress in ksi.

Normal stress refers to the force applied per unit area perpendicular to the cross-sectional area of the block. It is typically expressed in units of pressure, such as ksi (kips per square inch). The magnitude of the normal stress depends on the applied load and the area over which the load is distributed.

To calculate the maximum normal stress, one needs to consider the critical section or the region in the block where the stress is the highest. This critical section is influenced by factors like the shape and size of the block, as well as the loading conditions.

Without the necessary data regarding the applied load, block geometry, and material properties, it is not possible to determine the specific value of the maximum normal stress in ksi.

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