Consider the following table, which gives a security analyst's
expected return on two stocks for two particular market
returns:
Market Return Aggressive Stock Defensive Stock
8% 3.8% 5.0%
20 32 15
a. What are the betas of the two stocks? (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)
b. What is the expected rate of return on each stock if the market return is equally likely to be 8% or 20%? (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)
c. If the T-bill rate is 7%, and the market return is equally likely to be 8% or 20%, what are the alphas of the two stocks? (Negative values should be indicated by a minus sign. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)

Answers

Answer 1

To find the betas of the two stocks, we can use the formula:beta = (expected return - risk-free rate) / (market return - risk-free rate)beta = (0.05 - 0.07) / (0.2 - 0.07) = 0.43 alpha = 0.08 - (0.07 + 0.43 x (0.08 - 0.07)) = -0.01 or -1.00%.

The value of a stock depends on various factors, such as the company's financial performance, growth prospects, industry trends, and overall market conditions. Stocks can be bought and sold on stock exchanges, where buyers and sellers come together to trade shares.stocks can offer potential rewards, such as capital gains and dividend payments, but it also involves risks. Stock prices can be volatile, and investors can lose money if the company's performance declines or if the market experiences a downturn.

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Related Questions

Why is it important to have insurance?
It's important to have insurance so people can
protect themselves from losing a lot of money in
the event of an unpredictable event or something
happens to them or their property.
So individuals can defend against the possibility of
financial loss due to unpredictable event
So people can engage in risky behavior without
financial consequences
A and B

Answers

It's important to have insurance so people can protect themselves from losing a lot of money in the event of an unpredictable event or something that happens to them or their property. So individuals can defend against the possibility of financial loss due to unpredictable events. The correct options are a and b.

What is insurance?

Insurance is a means of protection from financial loss in which, in exchange for a fee, a party agrees to compensate another party in the event of a certain loss, damage, or injury.

It is a form of risk management, primarily used to hedge against the risk of a contingent or uncertain loss.

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John has $10,000 in debt with discover, $4,000 in debt with chase, $9,000 in debt with citi bank, and $3,000 in debt with wells fargo, giving him a total debt of $26,000. what percentage of john's total debt is with discover

Answers

The percentage of John's debts with discover is \(38.46%\), by using percentage calculation.

Given,

John's total debt:

$10,000 with discover$4,000 with chase $9,000 with Citi bank$3,000 with wells Fargo

Total debt of John is $26,000, to calculate his Percentage of debt with discover, we need to add all the debts and then calculate how much percentage is 10,000 of 26000.

Calculation is as follows:

\(10000/26000*100=38.46\)

Hence, The percentage of John's debts with discover is \(38.46%\)\(%\), by using percentage calculation.

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Nora is applying for a student loan to attend college. What is true? A) Her lender takes less risk with this type of loan. B) There is no collateral needed for this secured loan. C) The APR will be lower the first month of the loan. D) A higher interest may be associated with this unsecured loan. Help QUICK!!!

Answers

Answer:

D) A higher interest may be associated with this unsecured loan.

Explanation:

The secured loan is the loan in which collateral property is pledged while on the other hand the unsecured loan is the loan in which no collateral property is pledged

As in the given situation, the unsecured loan is higher riskier as compared with the unsecured loan. Moreover, in the unsecured loan the interest rate is high and it required high credit scores

Therefore the option D is most appropriate and fits to the current scenario

Which of the following is an advantage of renting over
advantage of renting over buying a home?

Which of the following is an advantage of renting overadvantage of renting over buying a home?

Answers

Answer:

having to make a down payment..

An advantage of renting over buying a home and having to make a down payment. The correct option is D. Financial risks are lower when renting. You are aware of the precise monthly rent payment you will be making.

What is the most significant advantage of renting?

The three biggest advantages of staying a renter, in Ramsey's opinion, are having more flexibility if you decide to move, not having to pay for home maintenance, and not having to spend as much money initially. Additionally, your landlord will handle all necessary repairs, upkeep, and other costs. There is no additional cost.

Renting offers convenience, consistent monthly costs, and maintenance assistance. Along with the concrete advantages of tax deductions and equity, home ownership also offers intangible advantages like a feeling of security and pride in one's possession.

Thus, the ideal selection is option D.

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The activities of the federal reserve board have the most direct influence on.

Answers

Answer:

The activities of the Federal Reserve Board have the most direct influence on: bank interest rates, monetary policy (interest rates, credit, etc.) 

Exhibit 8-4 marginal cost and revenue for a firm unit quantity marginal cost marginal revenue 12 $ 5 $9 13 6 9 14 7 9 15 8 9 16 9 9 17 10 9 in exhibit 8-4, this firm is currently producing 16 units of output. What would you advise this firm to do

Answers

(a) Income Statement for 2019 (under FIFO) and Income Statement for 2019 (under LIFO).

(b)(1) The FIFO method produces the more, So select this method.

(a) Income Statement for 2019 (under FIFO):  

     Sales revenue  $865,000

     Cost of goods sold:

     Beginning inventory (15,000 units  $32,000)  $480,000

     Purchases (in chronological order) :

         Q1 (60,000 units $2.40)   $144,000

         Q2 (50,000 units  $2.50)   $125,000

         Q3 (20,000 units  $2.70)    $54,000

         Q4 (28,000 units  $2.80)    $78,400

     Total cost of goods purchased              $401,400

     Goods available for sale  $881,400

     Ending inventory (28,000 units  $2.80)   $78,400

     Cost of goods sold     $803,000

     Gross profit               $62,000

     Operating expenses         $147,000

     Net loss before tax        ($85,000)

     Income tax expense         ($28,900)

     Net loss                   ($56,100)

  Income Statement for 2019 (under LIFO):

     Sales revenue  $865,000

     Cost of goods sold:

     Beginning inventory (15,000 units $32,000)  $480,000

     Purchases (in reverse chronological order) :

         Q4 (70,000 units $2.80)   $196,000

         Q3 (50,000 units $2.70)   $135,000

         Q2 (50,000 units $2.50)   $125,000

         Q1 (60,000 units $2.40)   $144,000

     Total cost of goods purchased              $600,000

     Goods available for sale  $1,080,000

     Ending inventory (28,000 units $2.50)   $70,000

     Cost of goods sold     $1,010,000

     Gross profit               ($145,000)

     Operating expenses         $147,000

     Net loss before tax        ($292,000)

     Income tax expense         ($99,280)

     Net loss                   ($192,720)

(b) (1) The FIFO method produces the more

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Correct Question:

a. Exhibit 8-4 marginal cost and revenue for a firm unit quantity marginal cost marginal revenue 12 $ 5 $9 13 6 9 14 7 9 15 8 9 16 9 9 17 10 9 in exhibit 8-4, this firm is currently producing 16 units of output.

b. What would you advise this firm to do.

Exhibit 8-4 marginal cost and revenue for a firm unit quantity marginal cost marginal revenue 12 $ 5

A townhouse is purchased for $475,000. If the transfer tax is $2.00 on the first $1,000. and $0.10 for each additional $100., how much are the transfer taxes?

Answers

Based on the information given the amount of the transfer taxes is $476.

Using this formula

Total transfer tax=[(Purchased price+ First transfer tax)×(Additional tax)]+Transfer tax

Let plug in the formula

Total transfer tax=[($475,000-$1,000)×($0.10/$100)]+$2

Total transfer tax = ([$474,000 x .001] + $2)

Total transfer tax=$474+$2

Total transfer tax=$476

Inconclusion the amount of the transfer taxes is $476.

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Match the term with the correct description.

Free Market

Fixed Market
The government increased involvement in the economy.
The government scales back involvement in the economy.

Answers

A free market is one in which the economic system is solely supported by voluntary transaction and the principles of supply and demand, without the involvement of the government.

What other term would you use to describe voluntary?

Deliberate, intentional, or willing are a few words that are frequently used as synonyms for voluntary. Voluntary means freedom or spontaneity in choice or action without any outside force, even if all of these words indicate "done and brought out of one's own will."

Why is it referred to as voluntary?

When something is voluntary, it is being done of one's own free will or volition. Since all the muscles linked to the skeleton are voluntary muscles, voluntary muscles are also frequently referred to as skeletal muscles or striated muscles (because the muscle fibers make them look striated, or stripy).

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how has smartphones product changed the way business is conducted? What business innovations have occurred as a result of this product being offered?

Answers

Answer: that make business communications more polished than ever before. No longer limited to voice only, we can now send various media through text messages, and other platforms.                                                       What business innovations have occurred as a result of this product being offered and it and how it is achieved - include Outcome-Driven Innovation and "Jobs.

Explanation:  i know its right. I hope it helps.

There are three clues labeled "daily double" on the game show Jeopardy. If three equally matched contenders play, what is the probability that: a. A single contestant finds all three "daily doubles"? b. The returning champion gets all three of the "daily doubles"? c. Each of the players selects precisely one of the "daily doubles"?

Answers

Answer:

a)  0.0358

b)  0.0395

c)  0.1506

Explanation:

Number of clues "daily doubles" = 3

Determine the probabilities

a) P(single contestant finds all three )

assuming event A= a returning champion gets the "daily double" in first trial

P(A) = 1/30 , P(~A) = 29/30              

assuming event B = any player picks up "daily double" after the first move

P(B |~A ) = 1/3

hence : P ( B and ~A ) = 29/30 * 1/3 = 29/90

considering second round

P(player chooses both daily doubles ) = 1/3 * 1/3 = 1/9

∴ P(single contestant finds all three )  = 29/90 * 1/9 = 0.0358

B) P ( returning champion gets all three )

= (1/30 + 29/90 )* 1/9

= 32 / 810 = 0.0395

c) P ( each player selects only one )

P = 32/405 + 29/405

  = 61 / 405 = 0.1506

Suppose that the price of oranges
increases from $1 to $1.10 per pound
and the quantity demanded falls from
1000 pounds to 800 pounds.
A. Calculate the price elasticity of
demand when price changes from
$1.to $1.10.
B. Are oranges elastic or inelastic at
this price point? Explain your
answer.
C. What happens to total revenue for
orange sellers when the price of
oranges increases a few cents
above $1 (total revenue increases,
decreases, stays the same, cannot
be determined)? Explain your
answer and why..
D. Assume that the demand for
oranges is a straight line, Calculate
its equation in terms of price (p)
and quantity (q).

Answers

The price elasticity of demand is -2.

B. Oranges are elastic at this price point because the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1. A price elasticity of demand value greater than 1 means that a change in price leads to a proportionally larger change in quantity demanded.

What is the  price elasticity about?

A. The price elasticity of demand can be calculated using the formula:

% change in quantity demanded / % change in price

The percentage change in price is:

(1.10-1)/1 * 100%

= 10%

The percentage change in quantity demanded is:

(800-1000)/1000 * 100% = -20%

Using these values in the formula, we get:

-20% / 10% = -2

Therefore, the price elasticity of demand is -2.

C. Total revenue is calculated as the price of oranges multiplied by the quantity sold. When the price of oranges increases, the quantity demanded decreases. The effect on total revenue depends on the price elasticity of demand. If demand is elastic (as it is in this case), the decrease in quantity demanded will be proportionally larger than the increase in price, so total revenue will decrease. Therefore, total revenue decreases when the price of oranges increases a few cents above $1.

D. We know that the demand for oranges falls from 1000 pounds to 800 pounds when the price increases from $1 to $1.10. Using the two points, we can find the slope of the straight line as:

(800-1000)/(1.10-1) = -200/0.1 = -2000

This gives us the slope of the line, which is also the coefficient of price (p) in the demand equation. Using the point-slope form of a line, we can find the equation of the line as:

q - 1000 = -2000(p - 1)

Simplifying, we get:

q = -2000p + 3000

Therefore, the equation of the demand curve for oranges is q = -2000p + 3000, where q is the quantity demanded and p is the price of oranges.

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A firm practicing unrelated diversification can make better capital allocations to its subsidiary businesses than the external capital market can for all the following reasons EXCEPT: a. corporate headquarters can allocate capital according to more specific criteria than is possible with external market allocations. b. corporate headquarters has more complete information about the subsidiary businesses than the external capital market. c. the firm can acquire other firms with innovative products instead of allocating capital to research and development. d. corporate headquarters can more effectively discipline underperforming management teams through resource allocation than can the external market.

Answers

Answer: C. the firm can acquire other firms with innovative products instead of allocating capital to research and development

Explanation:

Unrelated Diversification is regarded as a diversification which takes place when a company adds an unrelated product to its business. For example, when an television manufacturer enters into a clothing business.

A firm practicing unrelated diversification can make better capital allocations to its subsidiary businesses than the external capital market can for all the following reasons except when the firm can acquire other firms with innovative products instead of allocating capital to research and development.

Which of the following statements regarding corporate vertical marketing systems is most accurate? A.Corporate vertical marketing systems require all links in the marketing chain to share title to the goods passed through these firms.
B.Corporate vertical marketing systems can incorporate both forward and backward integration.
C.Corporate vertical marketing systems increase distribution costs.
D.Corporate vertical marketing systems increase investment increases but decrease fixed costs.
E.Corporate vertical marketing systems are only effective with low-end consumer products.

Answers

The option B is correct. Corporate vertical marketing systems can incorporate both forward and backward integration is the most accurate statement regarding corporate vertical marketing systems.

Therefore, option B is correct.

A corporate vertical marketing system is a network of firms that work together to achieve a common goal and create mutual benefits. It's a collaboration between manufacturers, retailers, and wholesalers that work together to streamline production, distribution, and marketing of a product or service.

In a corporate vertical marketing system, two or more businesses at various stages of the supply chain work together. It aids in the creation of a more effective and efficient supply chain.

The firms that participate in a corporate vertical marketing system are the manufacturers, wholesalers, and retailers.

Corporate vertical marketing systems have the potential to incorporate both forward and backward integration. They don't increase distribution costs; instead, they aim to reduce them by making the system more effective and efficient. Corporate vertical marketing systems necessitate a significant initial investment, which raises fixed costs but ultimately lowers variable costs. Therefore, option B is correct.

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electricians are trained in a process with two resources. the processing times for the resources are 38 and 37 hours. demand occurs at the rate 0.03 electricians per hour. instruction: round your answer to one decimal place. what is the implied utilization (%) of the first resource?

Answers

The implied utilization (%) of the first resource is  114%.

What is implied utilization?

The ratio of a task's capacity to demand is known as implied utilization.

The total demand rate for resource I tells us how many flow units across all types of flow units must be processed at resource i. Utilization implied. The capacity to demand ratio: Demand for that resource / its capacity equals implied utilization.

Implied  utilization = Demand/capacity

Demand = 0.03 units/hour

First resource capacity = 60/processing time = 60/(38×60)= 0.02632 Units/hour

First resource implied utilization = 0.03/0.02632 ×100 = 114%

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which of the following would not be considered an investment asset? select one. question 4 options: a. cash value in life insurance b. money market account c. brokerage account d. 401(k) plan

Answers

Cash value in life insurance would not be considered an investment asset.

A life insurance policy is a contract between a policyholder and an insurance company or insurance company, in which the insurance company promises to pay an amount to a specified beneficiary upon the death of the insured. Depending on the contract, other events B. Terminal or critical illness trigger payment.

Life insurance is a contract between a policyholder and an insurance company in which the insurer promises to pay an amount for premiums upon the death of the insured or after a specified period of time. can be defined.

Term life insurance is a life insurance product that provides financial protection to policyholders for a specified period of time. If the insured dies during the policy period, the company will pay the death benefit to the beneficiary.

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The purpose of brainstorming is to generate a list of problems, opportunities, or ideas from a group of people. The result of the session will be a list of ideas, problems, or opportunities to be tackled. The items are sorted and ranked.

Exercise: Brainstorm 5-7 ideas that your instructor can use to improve online discussion. Use sticky notes to write to your ideas.

Answers

The purpose of brainstorming is to generate a variety of ideas from a group of people in order to identify potential solutions, opportunities, or problems. In the context of improving online discussions, here are 5-7 ideas that your instructor could consider:

1. Use an icebreaker activity at the start of each discussion to help students feel more comfortable sharing their thoughts and ideas with the group.

2. Create a clear set of discussion guidelines and expectations, including guidelines for respectful communication and participation, to help ensure that discussions are productive and inclusive.

3. Provide prompts or questions that are thought-provoking and encourage students to think critically about the course material. This could help to spark engaging and insightful discussions.

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What is the required temperature for hot holding shredded beef?
O a. 115°F (46°C)
O b. 125°F (52°C)
O c. 135°F (57°C)
O d. 145°F (63°C)

Answers

It’s C 135 F (57 C)

The required temperature for hot holding shredded beef is 135°F (57°C).

What is a Hot holding technique?

Hot-holding is a technique that is used in public to serve hot foods as it stops germs from growing when food is kept at hot temperatures. This lowers the risk of getting sick from eating food in pans which are heated at low heat temperatures. But according to food safety law, the heat temperature shouldn't exceed 135° Fahrenheit as it poses health hazards to the food.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Using an advertising agency is a cost-effective way for a small business to advertise its products or services.
a. True
b. False

Answers

True !! Can I be marked as brainliest ?!

What is the main characteristic of short run in economics?

Answers

The main characteristic of short run in economics is that at least one factor of production is fixed while the other factors can be varied.

This means that in the short run, a firm cannot change the size of its factory or the amount of land it owns, but it can change the number of workers it employs or the amount of raw materials it uses.


In the short run, a firm can increase its output by increasing the use of variable factors of production, such as labor and raw materials. However, since at least one factor of production is fixed, there are limits to how much the firm can increase its output in the short run. This is why the short run is often associated with the concept of diminishing returns, where increasing the use of variable factors of production leads to smaller and smaller increases in output.

In summary, the main characteristic of short run in economics is that at least one factor of production is fixed while the other factors can be varied. This means that a firm can increase its output in the short run by increasing the use of variable factors of production, but there are limits to how much it can increase its output due to the presence of fixed factors of production.

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The highest priority for an OSHA workplace inspection is(are) ______. A. worker complaints B. catastrophes (fatalities or hospitalizations) C. imminent danger D. targeted inspections (particular hazards, high injury rates)

Answers

The highest priority for an OSHA workplace inspection is imminent danger, followed by catastrophes (fatalities or hospitalizations), worker complaints, and targeted inspections (particular hazards, high injury rates).

It is necessary to maintain safety in the workplace. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is the federal agency responsible for enforcing safety and health regulations in the workplace. The main objective of OSHA is to ensure that workers work in a safe and healthy environment.The priority of OSHA in workplace inspections is imminent danger, followed by catastrophes (fatalities or hospitalizations), worker complaints, and targeted inspections (particular hazards, high injury rates). Imminent danger situations involve conditions that pose an immediate threat of serious harm or death to employees. OSHA requires an employer to rectify the problem immediately if they are found to be in imminent danger. It may issue a citation and a monetary penalty if the employer does not correct the problem.Catastrophes, such as fatalities or hospitalizations, are next on the priority list. Catastrophes can occur unexpectedly and should be investigated immediately. Worker complaints, such as hazardous work conditions, is the third priority. When OSHA receives a complaint, it will investigate the workplace to determine whether the complaint is accurate. OSHA may issue citations and monetary penalties to the employer if the complaint is valid.Lastly, targeted inspections, such as particular hazards, high injury rates, and special emphasis programs, are the last priority. OSHA targets specific industries and work activities to focus on areas with a high incidence of injuries, illnesses, or fatalities. This priority system of OSHA ensures that the safety of employees in the workplace is maintained.

The highest priority for an OSHA workplace inspection is imminent danger, followed by catastrophes (fatalities or hospitalizations), worker complaints, and targeted inspections (particular hazards, high injury rates). OSHA's priority system ensures that the safety of employees in the workplace is maintained.

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It's an opportunity to give a good impression or introduction of yourself. It can capture the attention of a potential employer and give them a chance to see a bit of your personality. Creating a cover letter shows that you are putting effort into your application, and it will make you stand out as an applicant. This is also a great way to tell the employer how your work and contribution will benefit and make you a good employee.

Answers

Answer:

Period

Explanation:

what is y=x^3+7x^2+14x+8​

Answers

Answer:

x=−2,−1,−4

Explanation:

you need to be more specific in what you want. These are the zeros for the problem

Kaleb wants to get a payday loan in the amount of $375. He knows that the annual percentage rates (APR) for these types of loans are high, but he is hoping to find one that has an APR of 40%. If Kaleb finds a business that charges a fee of $37 for the loan, what would the term of the loan need to be in order for Kaleb to get his desired APR? a. 9 days b. 19 days c. 90 days d. 95 days Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D.

Answers

It would take 95 days for Kaleb to get his desired APR.

Since Kaleb wants to get a payday loan in the amount of $ 375, and he is hoping to find one that has an APR of 40%, if Kaleb finds a business that charges a fee of $ 37 for the loan, to determine what the term of the loan need to be in order for Kaleb to get his desired APR, the following calculation must be performed:

APR = 37/375 x 365 APR = 0.098 x 365 APR = 36 100 = 365 36 = X 36 x 365/100 = X 13140/100 = X 131.4 = X 131.4 - 37 = 94.4

Therefore, it would take 95 days for Kaleb to get his desired APR.

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Advise someone on the implications of CPA on businesses​

Answers

Answer:

Impact of the CPA on businesses

The main function of the Consumer Protection Act now is to protect consumers against product liability. Protection against product liability means that consumers are protected if the product they purchase from you is defective and causes further damage.

Explanation:

Hope it helps! Correct me if I am wrong :>

please do it in 10 minutes will upvote
35. If a firm wishes to decrease the length of its Operating Cycle, it may A. Increase Average Payment Period B. Increase Average Age of Inventory C. Decrease Average Collection Period D. Increase Yie

Answers

In order to decrease the length of its Operating Cycle, a firm should decrease the Average Collection Period. The option c is correct.

The Operating Cycle is the time it takes for a firm to convert its inventory into cash through sales. It consists of two components: the Average Collection Period and the Average Age of Inventory. The Average Collection Period represents the time it takes for a firm to collect payments from its customers, while the Average Age of Inventory represents the average time it takes for inventory to be sold.

To decrease the length of the Operating Cycle, the firm needs to reduce the time it takes to collect payments from customers. This can be achieved by decreasing the Average Collection Period. By collecting payments more quickly, the firm can convert its accounts receivable into cash faster, allowing it to reinvest or use the cash for other purposes.

On the other hand, increasing the Average Payment Period (A) would have the opposite effect, as it would delay the firm's payments to its suppliers, potentially leading to strained relationships and disruptions in the supply chain. Increasing the Average Age of Inventory (B) would also lengthen the Operating Cycle, as it would indicate slower inventory turnover and longer holding periods for inventory.

Therefore, the most effective option to decrease the length of the Operating Cycle is to decrease the Average Collection Period (C), allowing the firm to improve its cash flow and operate more efficiently. Increasing yield (D) does not directly affect the Operating Cycle and is not a suitable option for achieving this objective. Therefore, the option c is correct.

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Several theories try to account for the existence of the informal sector: a legalistic/libertarian approach, a structuralist approach, and a survivalist approach. Give a one-sentence overview of each. Why does understanding each theory matter?

Answers

By considering the legalistic/libertarian, structuralist, and survivalist perspectives, a more comprehensive understanding of the informal sector can be developed.

The legalistic/libertarian approach posits that the informal sector exists due to excessive government regulation and intervention, which drives individuals and businesses to operate informally to avoid bureaucratic constraints.

The structuralist approach asserts that the informal sector is a result of structural issues within the economy, such as income inequality, underemployment, and limited opportunities for formal employment.

Lastly, the survivalist approach suggests that the informal sector exists as a means for individuals to make a living and meet their basic needs when formal employment opportunities are scarce or unavailable.

Understanding each theory matters because it enables policymakers and stakeholders to address the root causes of the informal sector's existence and develop appropriate strategies to reduce its negative effects, such as tax evasion and labor exploitation, while fostering the positive aspects, like entrepreneurship and self-reliance.

By considering the legalistic/libertarian, structuralist, and survivalist perspectives, a more comprehensive understanding of the informal sector can be developed, ultimately leading to better-informed policy decisions and interventions.

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multiple choice-- economics

Entrepreneurs do all of the following EXCEPT ...

Come up with new ideas about what, how, when, and where to produce

Own all the other resources

Organize labor, land, and capital

Bear risk from business decisions

Answers

Own all the other resources

Entrepreneurs do all of the following except own all the other resources. Thus, the correct answer is option B.

Who are Entrepreneurs ?

An entrepreneur is someone who has an idea and tries to develop a good product or service that others will purchase, together with a business to help them in their endeavour. An entrepreneur is seen as a visionary or an innovator since they take on the majority of the risk and responsibility for their new company.

An individual who starts a new firm, taking on the majority of the risks and reaping the majority of the gains, is known as an entrepreneur. The entrepreneur is frequently viewed as an innovator, a source of fresh concepts for products, services, businesses, and operational methods. An entrepreneur plans for labour, capital, and resources.

Therefore, Own all the other resources is not a role of an entrepreneur.

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What can a boosted post help an advertiser achieve?

Answers

A boosted post helps an adviser to connect with the audience and gain trust.

Boosted post is a kind of post that is used on social media platforms in order to enhance the page of the platform and to attract audience to the page. Boosted post can help better communication with the audience along with the increase in a greater number of messages, calls and texts. Boosted posts help for better advertisements of the product. For example, A Chocolate brand may use Boosted posts to gain audience as well as consumers. Boosted posts helps an adviser to be discovered among people, to establish a benchmark in the market and to gain more and more customers. It's a kind of marketing strategy used for publicity purpose.

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What are the key characteristics of a well-designed performance appraisal?
Select all that apply.

Focus on job-related tasks


Conducted by a trained manager


Based on company policy


Opportunities for employee feedback


Clear management feedback

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The key characteristics of a well-designed performance appraisal include a focus on job-related tasks, being conducted by a trained manager, based on company policy, providing opportunities for employee feedback, and clear management feedback.

How can you describe the well-designed performance ?

Firstly, the performance appraisal should focus on job-related tasks to ensure that the evaluation is objective and fair. This means that the appraisal should measure employee performance against job-related criteria, such as job responsibilities, goals, and objectives.

Secondly, a well-designed performance appraisal should be conducted by a trained manager who has experience in conducting appraisals and who understands the company's policies and procedures for conducting them.

Thirdly, the appraisal should be based on company policy, ensuring that all employees are evaluated in a consistent and fair manner.

Fourthly, there should be opportunities for employee feedback, allowing employees to provide their input on their own performance and the appraisal process.

Finally, the appraisal should provide clear management feedback, including specific examples of areas where the employee has excelled, as well as areas where improvement is needed. This feedback should be constructive and provide guidance for the employee on how to improve their performance.

Overall, a well-designed performance appraisal should be fair, consistent, and provide valuable feedback to both the employee and the manager.

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What system strives to improve access to preventative health care services?

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Answer:

Managed care systems

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