In adults and adolescents with mild asthma, FABA/ICS as needed is clinically effective in reducing exacerbations, hospital admissions, or unforeseen medical visits, exposure to systemic corticosteroids, and presumably minimizes adverse events when compared to FABA as needed alone.
FABA/ICS as needed is equally as effective as standard ICS and decreases hospital admissions or unforeseen medical visits related to asthma as well as average exposure to ICS. It is also unlikely to be linked to an increase in adverse events.
combination fixed-dose beta agonist and steroid inhaler as needed for adults or kids with mild asthmaBackground Poor adherence to regular therapy is frequent in persons with mild asthma and raises the risk of exacerbations, morbidity, and mortality. Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and fast-acting 2-agonists (FABA) are both commonly used in fixed-dose combination inhalers for moderate asthma, but mild asthma patients may also benefit from their use.Goals To assess the effectiveness and safety of a single mixed FABA/ICS inhaler that is only used when necessary by those with mild asthma.Cochrane meta-analysis of accessible trial data designed and set.Participants Young people (12 and older) and adults who have mild asthma.Methods of search On March 19, 2021, we searched MEDLINE and Embase, ClinicalTrials.gov, the WHO trials portal, the Cochrane Airways Trials Register, and the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials.learn more about mild asthma here
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aclare la importancia de la mision preventiva de la medicina deportiva
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In regards to individual health insurance policy renewals, renewal provisions include all of the following except: a. Guaranteed nonrenewable b. Guaranteed issue c. Conditionally renewable d. Noncancelable
In regards to individual health insurance policy renewals, the renewal provisions include all of the following except guaranteed nonrenewable. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.
1) Guaranteed Renewable: The insurance company is required to renew the policy. The insurer can increase the policy's premiums at each renewal. The policy can be cancelled only if the policyholder stops paying premiums or commits fraud.
2) Conditionally Renewable: The insurance company is required to renew the policy. The insurer can increase the policy's premiums at each renewal. The policy can be cancelled for certain reasons, such as the policyholder's fraud or nonpayment of premiums.
3) Noncancelable: The insurance company is required to renew the policy. The insurer cannot increase the policy's premiums at each renewal. The policy can be cancelled only if the policyholder stops paying premiums or commits fraud.
4) Guaranteed Issue: The insurance company is required to issue a policy to any applicant who meets the policy's eligibility criteria. The insurer cannot deny coverage to anyone who meets the criteria.
5) Guaranteed Nonrenewable: The insurance company is not required to renew the policy. The policyholder is not guaranteed the right to renew the policy.
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Which situation places the client at the highest risk of lack of oxygen
Answer:
The nurse caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side and the chest tube accidentally disconnects from the water seal chamber.
Explanation:
Diana is unconscious, and the nearest healthcare professional suspects she might have inhaled water into her lungs. if a percussive assessment were performed, which tone would suggest this to be true
If a percussive assessment were performed, a drum-like sound will indicate inhaled water in the lungs.
What is a percussive assessment?A percussion assessment is an assessment technique which is done by tapping on the patient's chest wall to produces sounds which gives information about the underlying body structures.
If a percussive assessment were performed, a drum-like sound will indicate inhaled water in the lungs..
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Severe fatigue and weakness are key signs of amyloidosis. a. True
b. False
What is the only disease to be eradicated worldwide.
The only disease that has been eradicated worldwide is smallpox. Smallpox is the only disease that has been eradicated worldwide.
It was eradicated in 1980 after a massive vaccination campaign that was carried out across the globe. Smallpox is a contagious viral disease that is characterized by fever and a severe rash. It spreads from one person to another through respiratory droplets, saliva, or direct contact with the lesions of an infected person.
Smallpox is known to have killed millions of people worldwide before it was eradicated. In 1967, the World Health Organization (WHO) launched a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. This campaign involved vaccination programs that targeted people in areas where the disease was endemic. The vaccination campaign was successful, and by 1977, the last natural case of smallpox was reported in Somalia.
In 1980, the WHO declared that smallpox had been eradicated worldwide. This was a major achievement in the history of public health. Since then, no cases of smallpox have been reported anywhere in the world.
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Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that:
A. the placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus
B. the duration of the third stage may be as short as 3 to 5 minutes
C. it is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface
D. the major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate
Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that:B. the duration of the third stage may be as short as 3 to 5 minutes.
During the third stage of labor, the focus is on the delivery of the placenta. The duration of this stage can vary, but it is typically shorter than the first and second stages. It can range from a few minutes to up to 30 minutes. The placenta eventually detaches from the uterine wall, but it does not detach by itself. It requires assistance from contractions and maternal pushing efforts.It is important for the placenta to be delivered intact and complete. The shiny fetal surface of the placenta should appear before the dark, roughened maternal surface. This indicates that the placenta has been expelled completely and there is no retained tissue.Rapid heart rate is not a major risk for women during the third stage of labor. Hemorrhage and uterine atony are the more significant risks associated with this stage. Nurses play a crucial role in monitoring and managing these potential complications to ensure a safe and successful third stage of labor.
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A person receives Ty21a vaccine because he is traveling to a country in which typhoid fever is endemic. If he plans to continue this type of travel in the future, when is it recommended that he be revaccinated against typhoid fever
Answer:
in five (5) years
Explanation:
Typhoid fever is a disease caused by eating or drinking food or water contaminated with a bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Some symptoms of typhoid fever include high fever, abdominal pain, weakness, constipation and mild vomiting. The S. typhi Ty21a (Ty21a) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine created by reducing the virulence of the pathogen, which is orally administrated. Revaccination with Ty21a is recommended after 5 years in the USA and 7 years in Canada after first vaccination, regardless of the risk of infection. However, the period of protection after Ty21a immunization still has not been well defined.
if you clean out the vacuum, are you the vacuum cleaner?
Answer:
no
Explanation:
Answer:
YES if want to be anything it happened with your imagination
I was trying to dye a barbies hair so i blew a bunch of ink from a crayola marker into a small bowl of water. I didnt notice a small cut on my thumb until my hands started turning kinda red? The marker was black. Am i gonna die? This is an actual question! Please help!
Many medications, including antihistamines, cough syrups, sleeping aids, and pain relievers, can cause __________.
Answer:
They all can cause sleepiness (drowsiness)
Explanation:
The RSI (relative strength index) measures the strength of a security relative to. a. its own price history b. the S
The RSI (Relative Strength Index) is a technical indicator used in financial analysis to measure the strength of a security relative to its own price history.
Therefore, the correct answer is a. its own price history. The RSI is based on the concept of momentum and helps identify overbought and oversold conditions in a security. It is calculated using the average gain and average loss over a specified period of time. The RSI value ranges from 0 to 100 and is typically plotted on a chart.
By analyzing the RSI, traders and investors can assess whether a security is overbought or oversold, indicating potential reversals or corrections in price. A high RSI value suggests that the security may be overbought, indicating a possible price decline, while a low RSI value suggests oversold conditions and a potential price increase.
The RSI is not directly compared to other securities or external benchmarks like the S&P 500 index (S&P). It primarily focuses on the security's own price history and provides insights into its internal strength and potential price reversals.
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Which of the following topics is NOT emphasized on the NCLEX-PN examination?
Psychosocial integrity
Health promotion and maintenance
Psychological analyses of patients
Maintaining a safe and effective environment for patient care
Answer:
Psychological analyses of patients
Explanation:
if there's more than answer u can additive Psychosocial integrity also.
Forensic linguistic evidence is only used as demonstrative evidence in courts of law.
False
True
Answer:
A.) False
I am pretty sure the answer is false
An __ drug is also known as a tranquilizer
Answer:
An anxiolytic drug is also known as a tranquilizer
Explanation:
Timothy just finished an exercise where he straightened his arms and brought them together in front of his body. he then bent his arms up at the elbows and then opened them outward, pressing them toward his back. what kind of exercises did timothy complete?
Timothy completed a combination of exercises that targeted different muscle groups. The first part of the exercise where he straightened his arms and brought them together in front of his body is called a chest fly.
This exercise primarily targets the chest muscles (pectoralis major).
The second part where he bent his arms up at the elbows and then opened them outward, pressing them toward his back is called a reverse fly or rear delt fly.
This exercise primarily targets the posterior deltoids, which are the muscles located at the back of the shoulders.
Overall, Timothy completed a chest fly and a reverse fly exercise.
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According to the segment, which of the following agencies ensures antibiotics are removed from animals’ systems before products are available to the public?
A-Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
B-United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)
C-Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
D-Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS)
Answer:
C-Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Explanation:
CDC supports the improved use of antibiotics in people and animals, and strongly supports the important work that the FDA and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) are doing to improve antibiotic use in veterinary medicine and agriculture.
Hope this helped!
A 54-year-old male is found pulseless and apneic on the sofa. The scene is safe. You should first:
A. Start CPR and retrieve an AED
B. Call for ALS
C. Apply oxygen
D. Call medical control
A. Start CPR and retrieve an AED
In this situation, since the person is pulseless and apneic, starting CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) and retrieving an AED (automated external defibrillator) is the most appropriate first action.
It is crucial to begin life-saving measures immediately to improve the person's chances of survival.
In this scenario, the best course of action is to begin CPR and retrieve an AED as quickly as possible.
Summary: When encountering a pulseless and apneic individual, start CPR and retrieve an AED as the primary action.
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what is the role of nurse
Answer:
a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions
they are responsible for the holistic care of patients
Explanation:
Explanation:
A nurse is a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions. ... They are responsible for the holistic care of patients, which encompasses the psychosocial, developmental, cultural, and spiritual needs of the individual.
Which statement best describes the ciliary muscles and shape of the lens when focusing on close objects?
а.The ciliary muscles are relaxed to make the lens round.
b.The ciliary muscles are relaxed to make the lens flat.
c.The ciliary muscles are contracted to make the lens round.
d.The ciliary muscles are contracted to make the lens flat.
Answer:
d is correct am pretty sure
Explanation:
hope it helps
Why were the midwife's skills thought to be magical during the Middle Ages? Most midwives were women, and because women were often illiterate because they could not attend school, people thought they had too much "mysterious" knowledge to be trusted to help deliver babies. They were able to do things no trained physician could and because they were often seen in the company of witches. They were very experienced at sleight-of-hand tricks. They could accurately predict whether the baby was a boy or girl.
Answer:
A. Most midwives were women, and because women were often illiterate because they could not attend school, people thought they had too much "mysterious" knowledge to be trusted to help deliver babies.
Explanation:
The answer is A.
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
when a drug company advertises it will provide a prescription drug at no charge to certain individuals. (True or False)
This statement is True. Pharmaceutical companies often provide prescription drugs at no charge to certain individuals.
This may include those without insurance coverage or those who have limited income or limited access to healthcare. Such programs may have eligibility requirements and be subject to restrictions or limitations.
About drug companyWhen a drug company advertises that it will provide a prescription drug at no charge to certain individuals, it means that the company is offering a program known as a patient assistance program (PAP).
These programs are designed to help individuals who cannot afford their prescription medications by providing them with the medications they need at no cost. PAPs are typically offered by pharmaceutical companies and are available to individuals who meet certain income and eligibility requirements.
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during the initial history and physical of a 30-year-old primipara client, the nurse has identified some teratogens the fetus is being exposed to at this phase of the pregnancy. which lifestyle data could result in teratogenic exposure to the fetus? select all that apply.
The lifestyle factors that could result in teratogenic exposure to the fetus during early pregnancy in a 30-year-old primipara client include smoking, alcohol consumption, illicit drug use, exposure to certain medications, and exposure to environmental toxins.
During the initial history and physical examination of a 30-year-old primipara client, the nurse should identify lifestyle factors that may lead to teratogenic exposure to the developing fetus. Teratogens are substances or factors that can cause structural or functional abnormalities in the developing fetus. One significant teratogen is smoking, as it increases the risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and developmental issues. Additionally, alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, causing cognitive and physical impairments. Illicit drug use, such as cocaine or heroin, can have detrimental effects on the fetus, including premature birth, growth restriction, and neurodevelopmental problems.
Exposure to certain medications can also be teratogenic. It is crucial to review the client's current medications and assess if they pose any risk to the fetus. Some medications, such as certain antidepressants, anticonvulsants, and acne medications, have been associated with birth defects. Lastly, exposure to environmental toxins, such as lead, mercury, or pesticides, can have harmful effects on fetal development. These toxins can cross the placenta and interfere with organ formation and function.
Identifying and addressing these lifestyle factors is essential for promoting a healthy pregnancy and reducing the risk of teratogenic effects on the developing fetus. The nurse should provide education, support, and referrals to appropriate resources to help the client make necessary lifestyle changes and minimize teratogenic exposures.
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NAME:
1. What were Florence Nightingale's major contributions to nursing?
Answer:
She helped to define nursing practice by suggesting that nurses did not need to know all about the disease process like the medical field.
Explanation: hope this helps
crepitation is an audible sound that is produced by:
Crepitation is a sound that can be heard when someone moves a joint or limb. It is produced by the rubbing together of the bones and cartilage in the joint.
This can be due to a variety of factors, including wear and tear on the joint, injury or damage to the joint, or inflammation in the joint.Crepitation can be a sign of joint problems and can be indicative of arthritis, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or other joint conditions.
It can also be caused by trauma, such as a sprain or strain, or by repetitive stress on the joint. In some cases, crepitation can be accompanied by pain or discomfort, while in others it may be a painless but audible sound.A healthcare provider can diagnose the underlying cause of crepitation through a physical exam and diagnostic imaging, such as X-rays or MRI scans.
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A patient returns to the medical office after wearing a Holter monitor for 24 hours. He states that he forgot to depress the event marker when he was having chest pain due to extreme stress at the office, but he wrote this on the daily journal that he kept but forgot to note the time. Will the monitor tape be effective in this case?
Answer: yes
Explanation: it will
Answer:
A patient returns to the medical office after wearing a Holter monitor for 24 hours. The monitor tape is effective in this case because:
While you are gone from the doctor's office, it constantly records the electrical activity of your heart for up to 24 hours. A typical ECG, sometimes known as a "resting" ECG, is one of the most basic and quick diagnostics for evaluating the heart.
Explanation:
The Holter monitor is a type of portable electrocardiogram (ECG).
As
a healthcare leader how can you adapt your professional practice to
integrate a focus on chronic disease management and support
successful aging in place ?
As a healthcare leader, there are several ways to adapt professional practice to integrate a focus on chronic disease management and support successful aging in place. This can include:
Promoting preventive care and regular health screenings to identify chronic conditions early.Implementing care coordination and multidisciplinary teams to provide comprehensive and holistic care for individuals with chronic diseases.Incorporating technology solutions for remote monitoring and telehealth services to enhance access to care and support aging in place.Developing educational programs and resources for patients and their families to improve self-management skills and empower individuals to actively participate in their own care.Collaborating with community organizations and resources to create a supportive environment that promotes healthy aging and disease management.By implementing these strategies, healthcare leaders can foster an integrated approach that addresses the unique needs of individuals with chronic diseases and supports their desire to age in place successfully.
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which rationale explains why the nurse also monitors a client with ahistory of gerd for lcinical manifestations of heart disease
The rationale that explains why the nurse also monitors a client with a history of GERD for clinical manifestations of heart disease is because both GERD and heart disease share similar symptoms. Furthermore, GERD has been discovered to increase the possibility of heart disease.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a digestive system ailment that occurs when stomach acid frequently flows back up into the esophagus. It's the most frequent gastrointestinal (GI) disease, affecting roughly 20% of people in the United States. The symptoms of GERD can vary from person to person, and in some cases, no apparent symptoms may be present.
Heart disease refers to any illness that affects the heart. Heart disease is used interchangeably with the term "cardiovascular disease." According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), heart disease is responsible for one out of every four deaths in the United States.
The disease can manifest itself in a variety of ways, including coronary artery disease, heart rhythm disturbances, and heart infections. Some of the symptoms of heart disease include chest pain, shortness of breath, and fatigue.
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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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