Clothes dryer spins to angular speed 7.2 rad/s starting from angular speed 0 rad/s
Average angular acceleration is 1.88rad/s^2
Takes dryer 3.82 s to reach 7.2 rad/s
How many revolutions does the dryer make during this time

The quadratic equation for the resistance ratio is 6E-06 t^2 + 0.00341t +1.

The temperature at which electric resistance would be double is  293.25 Fahrenheit.

Resistance predicted at 71 degrees is 1.2724.

What is resistance ratio?

The resistance ratio is the difference between the thermometer's resistance at the ice point and its resistance at a given temperature (t) (t0).

Temp t

in

degrees

(x) c(t) / c(0) (y) (x)2 (x)3 (x)4  xy x2 y

0 1 0 0 0 0 0

10 1.0393 100 1000 10000 10.393 103.93

20 1.0798 400 8000 16000 21.596 431.92

30 1.1215 900 27000 81000 33.645 1009.35

40 1.1644 1600 64000 2560000 46.576 1863.04

sum =100 5.405 3000 100000 2667000 112.21 3408.24

a. To calculate equation in the form of y = ax^2 + bx +c

Substituting the values calculated above in the formula

= 112.21 - (100*5.405) /5 =4.11

= 100000 - (3000*100)/5 =40000

= 2667000 -1800000 = 867000

a = { [ Σ x2 y * Σ xx ] - [Σ xy * Σ xx2 ] } / { [ Σ xx * Σ x2x 2] - [Σ xx2 ]2 }

= 6E-06

b = { [ Σ xy * Σ x2x2 ] - [Σ x2y * Σ xx2 ] } / { [ Σ xx * Σ x2x 2] - [Σ xx2 ]2 }

= 0.00341

c = [ Σ y / n ] - { b * [ Σ x / n ] } - { a * [ Σ x 2 / n ] } = 1.012

So the equation is c(t)/c(0) = 6E-06 t^2 + 0.00341t +1

b). c(t)/c(0) =2

Putting in the quadratic equation found above-

2 = 6E-06 t^2 + 0.00341t +1

1 = 0.00341t  (neglecting the square term)

t = 293.25 fahrenheit

c). at 71 degrees

c(t)/c(0) = 0.030246+0.24211+1.012

= 1.27235

Resistance predicted at 71 degrees = 1.2724

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The magnitude of the angular acceleration of the roller is approximately 108.8 rad/s².

To find the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the roller, we can use the rotational analog of Newton's second law: τ = Iα, where τ is the torque, I is the moment of inertia, and α is the angular acceleration.

First, let's calculate the moment of inertia of the roller. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder rotating about its central axis is given by the formula: I = (1/2)mr², where m is the mass and r is the radius.

Given:

Mass of the roller (m) = 2.4 kg

Radius of the roller (r) = 3.8 cm = 0.038 m

Moment of inertia (I) = (1/2) * 2.4 kg * (0.038 m)² = 0.0021744 kg·m²

Next, we need to calculate the torque (τ) applied to the roller. Torque is given by the formula: τ = rFsin(θ), where r is the distance from the axis of rotation to the point of application of the force, F is the magnitude of the force, and θ is the angle between the force and the line connecting the axis of rotation and the point of application.

Given:

Force applied (F) = 16 N

Angle (θ) = 35°

Distance from the axis of rotation to the point of application (r) is equal to the radius of the roller, so r = 0.038 m.

Torque (τ) = (0.038 m) * (16 N) * sin(35°) = 0.2366 N·m

Now, we can use the equation τ = Iα and solve for the angular acceleration (α):

0.2366 N·m = (0.0021744 kg·m²) * α

α = 0.2366 N·m / 0.0021744 kg·m² ≈ 108.8 rad/s²

Therefore, the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the roller is approximately 108.8 rad/s².

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The amount the needle on the meter is deflected A. increases

This phenomenon can be explained by Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. According to this law, when a magnetic field (created by the bar magnet) passes through a coil of wire, it induces an electric current in the wire. This induced current generates its own magnetic field, which interacts with the magnetic field of the bar magnet.

The deflection of the meter needle is a result of this induced current. When the number of coils of wire is increased, there is a greater number of wire loops for the magnetic field to pass through. This leads to a stronger induction of electric current, resulting in a larger deflection of the meter needle.

By increasing the number of coils, more magnetic flux is linked with the wire, resulting in a higher induced electromotive force (emf) and a greater current. This increased current produces a stronger magnetic field around the wire, leading to a larger deflection on the meter. Therefore, increasing the number of coils of wire enhances the magnetic field interaction, resulting in an increased deflection of the meter needle. Therefore, Option A is correct.

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The quantity of heat energy that must be transferred to 2.25 kg of brass to raise its temperature from 20 °C to 240 °C is 195030 J

First, we shall list out the given parameters from the question. This is shown below:

The quantity of heat energy that must be transferred can be obtained as follow:

Q = MCΔT

= 2.25 × 394 × 220

= 195030 J

Thus, we can conclude quantity of heat energy that must be transferred is 195030 J

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The reaction equations for the steps involved in the decay of U-238 to Ra-226 are;

\(^{238}_{92}U\ \rightarrow \ ^{234}_{90}Th \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

\(^{234}_{90}Th \ \rightarrow \ ^{230}_{88}Ra \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

\(^{230}_{88}Ra \ \rightarrow \ ^{226}_{86}Ra \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

The radioactive equation for the decay of U-238 to Ra-226 is calculated as follows;

First the uranium atom (U-238) will decay thorium by emitting alpha particle as shown in the equation below;

\(^{238}_{92}U\ \rightarrow \ ^{234}_{90}Th \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

The second stage is, the thorium will decay to radium by emitting alpha particles again as shown below;

\(^{234}_{90}Th \ \rightarrow \ ^{230}_{88}Ra \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

The third, and final stage, the radium will decay to an isotope of radium again, by emitting alpha particle as shown below;

\(^{230}_{88}Ra \ \rightarrow \ ^{226}_{86}Ra \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

Thus, the reaction equations for the steps involved in the decay of U-238 to Ra-226 are;

\(^{238}_{92}U\ \rightarrow \ ^{234}_{90}Th \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

\(^{234}_{90}Th \ \rightarrow \ ^{230}_{88}Ra \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

\(^{230}_{88}Ra \ \rightarrow \ ^{226}_{86}Ra \ + \ ^{4}_{2}He\)

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This is true I think

It applies to Newton's Laws

it's true because it's a part of newtons law

Answer:

Explanation:

0!!!!!! There was no displacement. That was the point of the question.

You run 8 miles in one direction. You walk - 8 miles on the return to home. You have not moved in terms of displacement. Displacement is distance that has direction.

The distance that you have travelled during the day is 8 + 8 = 16 miles. Distance does not account for direction. That's why your car has gone a distance of more than 0 miles. If the car measured displacement it would always read 0 when you returned home --  kind of a useless piece of information. You would never know when to get  an oil change.

Develop expressions for variations in pressure in fluids ⇒  p = K\(\frac{h^2}{2}\) + γ₀h

Since we are given a function of specific weight value, which varies with height, we have to define a differential change in pressure over an infinitesimally small change in height:

dp = γdh

Substitute the function:

dp = (Kh+γ₀) dh

This relationship allows us to integrate pressure changes, over small height changes, and obtain the total pressure change:

p = ∫(Kh+γ₀)dh

p = \(\int\limits^h_0\)Khdh + \(\int\limits^h_0\)γ₀dh

p = Kh²/2\(]_0^h\) + γ₀h\(]_0^h\)

p = K\(\frac{h^2}{2}\) + γ₀h

Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was:

Develop an expression for the pressure variation in a liquid in which the specific weight increases with depth, h, as γ = Kh+γ₀ where K is a constant and yo is the specific weight at the free surface.

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Answer:

\(metre \: per \: second\)

Explanation:

Velocity is a derived quantity and the S.I unit is metre per second.Speed is also a derived quantity which is has the S.I unit to be metre per second.

Given

mass (m) = 1 kg

velocity (v) = 10 m/s

kinetic energy ( ke) = ?

,we know

K.E =1/2 m v²

= 1/2 * 1 * 10²

= 100/2

=50 joule

hope it helps :)

The kinetic energy of a 1 kg pie if it is thrown at 10 m/s is 50 joule.

Energy due to motion of the body  is kinetic energy. Whether an object is moving vertically or horizontally, it contains kinetic energy.

Kinetic energy can take many different forms, including vibrational (the energy resulting from vibrational motion), rotational (the energy resulting from rotational motion), and translational energy (the energy due to motion from one location to another). To keep things straight-forward, we'll concentrate on translational kinetic energy.

An object's mass (m) and speed (v) are two factors that affect how much translational kinetic energy it has (from this point on, the term "kinetic energy" will refer to translational kinetic energy). The kinetic energy (K.E) of an object is denoted by the equation below.

K.E = (1÷2)×m×v²

where m = mass of object

v = speed of object

Given that in question  1 kg pie is thrown at  the velocity of 10 m/s,

K.E = (1÷2)×1×(10)²

K.E = 50 joule

So the kinetic energy of the pie is 50 joule.

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Answer:

The number of images formed by two adjacent plane mirrors depends on the angle between the mirror. If (in degrees) is angle between the plane mirrors then number of images are given by, n = 360 θ − 1.

Answer:

The current needed is 1790.26 A

Explanation:

Given;

magnitude of magnetic field, B = 1.5 T

length of the solenoid, L = 1.8 m

diameter of the solenoid, d = 75 cm = 0.75 m

The magnetic field is given by;

\(B = \frac{\mu_o NI }{L}\)

Where;

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ m/A

I is current in the solenoid

N is the number of turns, calculated as;

\(N = \frac{Length \ of\ solenoid}{diameter \ of \ wire} \\\\N = \frac{1.8}{1.5*10^{-3}} =1200 \ turns\)

The current needed is calculated as;

\(I = \frac{BL}{\mu_o N} \\\\I = \frac{1.5 *1.8}{4\pi *10^{-7} *1200} \\\\I = 1790.26 \ A\)

Therefore, the current needed is 1790.26 A.

Answer:

I = 1790.5 A

Explanation:

The magnetic field due to a solenoid is given by the following formula:

B = μ₀NI/L

where,

B = Magnetic Field Required = 1.5 T

μ₀ = 4π x 10⁻⁷ T/A.m

L = length of Solenoid = 1.8 m

I = Current needed = ?

N = No. of turns = L/diameter of wire = 1.8 m/1.5 x 10⁻³ m = 1200

Therefore,

1.5 T = (4π x 10⁻⁷ T/A.m)(1200)(I)/1.8 m

I = (1.5 T)(1.8 m)/(1200)(4π x 10⁻⁷ T/A.m)

I = 1790.5 A

Answer:

Unequal Wavelengths

Explanation:

Got it right on the exam

Unequal wavelengths limit interference between waves because the waves will have different frequencies and will not be able to form a stable interference pattern. When waves of different wavelengths interact, they will interfere constructively and destructively at different points, creating an unpredictable pattern.

Answer:

Unequal wavelengths

Explanation:

Got it correct on the quiz.

Answer:

Explanation:

We can use the conservation of energy principle to find the force constant of the spring. Initially, the ball has potential energy due to its height above the spring, and no kinetic energy. When it strikes the spring, it compresses it, and its potential energy is converted to elastic potential energy in the spring. At the instant the ball comes to rest, all of its initial potential energy has been converted to elastic potential energy in the spring.

The potential energy of the ball at height h is given by:

U = mgh

Where m is the mass of the ball, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the initial height of the ball.

The elastic potential energy stored in the spring when it is compressed by distance d is given by:

U = (1/2)kx^2

where k is the force constant of the spring, and x is the compression distance.

Since the potential energy of the ball is converted entirely to elastic potential energy in the spring, we can set these two expressions equal to each other:

mgh = (1/2)kx^2

Plugging in the given values, we have:

m = 1.55 kg

g = 9.81 m/s^2

h = 0.68 m

d = 0.091 m

Substituting these values into the equation, we get:

(1.55 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)(0.68 m) = (1/2)k(0.091 m)^2

Solving for k, we get:

k = (2mgh)/(d^2) = 2365 N/m

Therefore, the force constant of the spring is 2365 N/m.

The velocity is 4.9 m/s.

Centripetal acceleration is the acceleration that acts towards the center of a circular path and is required to maintain an object in circular motion. It is defined as the rate of change of velocity of an object moving in a circular path.

The formula for centripetal acceleration can be expressed as:

a_c = v^2 / r

Given that;

a = v^2/r

a = acceleration

v = tangential velocity

r = radius

Thus;

v = √ar

v = (6 * 4)^1/2

v = 4.9 m/s

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The sled's speed can be calculated by considering the acceleration, frictional force, and time. After substituting the given values and performing the calculations, the final speed is determined to be 12.25 m/s.

To calculate the speed of the sled after 2.50 seconds, we can use the equations of motion and consider the forces acting on the sled.

Let's denote the initial speed of the sled as v0, the final speed as vf, the acceleration as a, the time as t, and the coefficient of friction as μ.

Initially, the rocket sled is accelerating, so we can use the equation:

vf = v0 + at

Since the sled is skidding along its rails after the rocket engine stops, the only horizontal force acting on the sled is the force of friction. The frictional force can be calculated using the equation:

frictional force = coefficient of friction * normal force

Since the sled is moving horizontally, the normal force is equal to the weight of the sled, which can be calculated as:

weight = mass * gravity

Now, we can determine the acceleration of the sled using Newton's second law:

frictional force = mass * acceleration

Combining the equations and substituting the values, we have:

vf = v0 + (frictional force / mass) * t

To find the frictional force, we need to calculate the weight of the sled and then multiply it by the coefficient of friction:

frictional force = (mass * gravity) * coefficient of friction

Substituting this back into the previous equation, we get:

vf = v0 + ((mass * gravity * coefficient of friction) / mass) * t

Simplifying further, we have:

vf = v0 + (gravity * coefficient of friction) * t

Now we can substitute the given values into the equation. Assuming the acceleration due to gravity is approximately 9.8 m/s², the coefficient of friction is 0.5, the initial speed is 0 m/s (since the sled starts from rest), and the time is 2.50 s, we can calculate the final speed:

vf = 0 + (9.8 * 0.5) * 2.50

vf = 12.25 m/s

Therefore, the sled is moving at a speed of 12.25 m/s after 2.50 seconds.

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The length of wire whose resistivity is 3 x 10^-6ohm, and radius is 0.2 mm, with a given value of 15.552 resistance is 6.5268 m.

Given data: r = 0.2 mm = 0.2 x 10^-3m Resistivity = 3 x 10^-6 ohm R = 15.552 ohm

Formula Used: Resistivity (ρ) = (RA)/L

Where, R is resistance, A is the area of cross-section, L is the length of the wire.

Resistance (R) = ρ (L/A)

Multiplying A on both sides, we get

Resistance (R) x A = ρ L ... equation (1)

Area of the cross-section of a wire of radius (r) is given by, A = πr^2

where, π is a constant whose value is 3.14

Substituting the given values, we get

A = πr^2= π (0.2 x 10^-3m)^2= 1.2566 x 10^-7 m^2

Substituting the values of R, A and ρ in equation (1), we get

Length of wire (L) = (Resistance x Area) / Resistivity= (15.552 ohm x 1.2566 x 10^-7 m^2) / (3 x 10^-6 ohm)= 6.5268 m

Therefore, the length of wire whose resistivity is 3 x 10^-6ohm, and radius is 0.2 mm, with a given value of 15.552 resistance is 6.5268 m.

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Explanation:

For balanced forces, the severity of the 2 factors is equal, while the magnitude of the 2 factors is unequal in the situation of unbalanced forces. The three separate forces operate in opposing ways in balanced forces. In unbalanced forces, on the other hand, independent forces either behave in the same or reverse direction.

Using the impulse formula:

As we can see, the time is inversely proportional to the force, so increasing the time over which the ball's momentum is brought to 0 will decrease the force required to stop it.

Answer:

B. Time of impact is reduced

(1) The distance of the image formed by the lens is determined as 6 cm.

(2) The image formed is real.

The distance of the image formed by the lens is calculated by applying the following formula as follows;

1/f = 1/v + 1/u

where;

The distance of the image formed by the lens is calculated as;

1/v = 1/f - 1/u

1/v = 1/2 - 1/3

1/v = 1/6

v = 6 cm

Since the sign of the image of the image is positive, the image formed is real.

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Answer:

31

Explanation:

Answer:

I think it's A

Explanation:

he shouldn't have changed the amount of sugar, because the whole point is to see which temperature dissolves sugar more quickly.

Answer:

The sweepers motion adds torque to the stone's angular momentum.

Explanation:

This is due to angular momentum law.

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Dear Friend,

I received your letter a few days back. And because I was busy with work, I couldn't write a reply to you immediately. However, here is my well-detailed reply to your request. I hope you find it satisfactory. I am excited to learn that you wish to go on a tour to Nepal. For the advice, here is my suggestion for some places for you to visit.

1. Kathmandu: this is the capital of Nepal. It also doubles as the capital city. The atmosphere there is electric. The streets are wide and there are old monumental buildings there.

2. Bhaktapur: here you find interesting things around. It is the third-largest royal city. Durbar square is a nice place to visit.

3. Pokhara: this place has the largest population and the city is cleaner compared to most other big cities around. It has wonderful places to relax. And if you enjoy hiking this is the place for you.

4. Chitwan National Park: I know you love watching wildlife. So this is a must for you to visit. You get to see amazing animals such as rhinos, Bengal tigers, leopards, etc.

However, due to space and for me not to bore you, here are other honorable mentions

Trekking in the Langtang region, Swayambhunath, known as Monkey Temple. You should also consider the Everest & the Trek to Base Camp.

I hope you will enjoy your stay to the fullest. Don't forget to send me details of your tour after your visit.

I love you, friend.

Yours sincerely,

MyName

The amount of work done by the gas is proportional to the pressure and the change in volume, as well as the efficiency of the process. If the pressure and volume are known, the work done by the gas can be calculated by multiplying these values by the efficiency of the process.

The amount of work done by a gas when it expands is proportional to the change in volume, pressure, and temperature. According to the first law of thermodynamics, the energy of a closed system is conserved, so the work done by the expanding gas is equal to the energy transferred from the gas to the environment in the form of work. Therefore, the work done by the gas is equal to the change in energy of the system. Assume that the process is 10% efficient. Then, only 10% of the energy available to the system is converted into work. This means that the remaining 90% of the energy is lost to the environment in the form of heat. As a result, the amount of work done by the gas expanding into the atmosphere is given by the formula

W = E x η, where W is the work done by the gas, E is the energy available to the system, and η is the efficiency of the process. The energy available to the system is determined by the difference between the internal energy of the gas before and after the expansion. The internal energy of a gas is determined by its temperature, pressure, and volume.

Assuming that the temperature and pressure are constant, the change in internal energy is proportional to the change in volume. Therefore, the energy available to the system is equal to the product of the pressure and the change in volume: E = P x ΔV, where P is the pressure of the gas and ΔV is the change in volume during the expansion. Substituting this equation into the formula for work, we get W = P x ΔV x η.

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Answer:

Explanation:

The electric flux through a surface is given by the dot product of the electric field and the area vector of the surface:

Φ = E · A

where Φ is the electric flux, E is the electric field, and A is the area vector of the surface.

(a) If the surface lies in the yz plane, its area vector is in the x direction. Therefore, the area vector can be written as A = Ax i, where Ax is the magnitude of the area. The electric field is given as E = ai + bj. Therefore, the flux through the surface is:

Φ = E · A = (ai + bj) · (Ax i) = aAx

(b) If the surface lies in the xz plane, its area vector is in the y direction. Therefore, the area vector can be written as A = Ay j, where Ay is the magnitude of the area. The electric field is given as E = ai + bj. Therefore, the flux through the surface is:

Φ = E · A = (ai + bj) · (Ay j) = bAy

(c) If the surface lies in the xy plane, its area vector is in the z direction. Therefore, the area vector can be written as A = Az k, where Az is the magnitude of the area. The electric field is given as E = ai + bj. Therefore, the flux through the surface is:

Φ = E · A = (ai + bj) · (Az k) = 0

since the dot product of perpendicular vectors is zero.

The magnetic field in the region is into the paper and has a magnitude of 60 mT and the tension in either wire is 0.096 N.

To find the tension in either wire, we can apply the equation for the force experienced by a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field.

The force experienced by a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is given by the equation F = B * I * L * sin(θ), where B is the magnetic field strength, I is the current, L is the length of the wire, and θ is the angle between the wire and the magnetic field.

In this case, the wire is suspended horizontally by two vertical wires, and the magnetic field is into the paper. Since the wire is horizontal, the angle between the wire and the magnetic field is 90 degrees, so sin(θ) = 1.

The force experienced by the wire due to the magnetic field is F = B * I * L.

Given:

Current (I) = 8.0 A

Magnetic field (B) = 60 mT = 60 * 10^(-3) T

Length of the wire (L) = 40 cm = 40 * 10^(-2) m

Substituting the given values into the equation, we get:

F = (60 * 10^(-3) T) * (8.0 A) * (40 * 10^(-2) m)

Simplifying the expression, we find:

F = 0.192 N

Since the wire is suspended by two vertical wires, the tension in each wire will be half of the total force. Therefore, the tension in either wire is 0.192 N / 2 = 0.096 N.

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Answer: The depth of the ocean is 650 feets at the bottom of the sunlight zone.

The distance travelled by echo sound is given by the formula -

Speed = 2×distance/time

So, calculating the speed of sound from the formula using distance and time

Speed = 2×25/(1/100)

Speed = 50×1000

Speed of sound = 5000 feet/second

Now, calculating the distance or depth of ocean at the bottom of the sunlight zone -

Distance = (speed×time)/2

Distance = (5000×26/100)/2

Distance = 1300/2

Distance = 650 feets

Hence, the depth of ocean is 650 feets.

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Answer:

We can start by using the formula:

distance = speed x time

where distance is twice the depth of the ocean at the bottom of the Sunlight Zone (since the pulse travels down to the seafloor and then back up), speed is the speed of sound in water, and time is the round-trip time of the pulse.

The speed of sound in water is approximately 1,500 meters per second (or 4,921 feet per second).

Converting the round-trip time to seconds, we have:

26 seconds - 1 second = 25 seconds

Substituting the values into the formula:

2 x depth = 4,921 feet/second x 25 seconds

2 x depth = 123,025 feet

depth = 61,512.5 feet

Therefore, the ocean at the bottom of the Sunlight Zone is about 61,512.5 feet deep.

The readings of gage A and gage B can be expressed as:

Gage A: 52 kPa - 87.7 kPa = -35.7 kPa (vacuum pressure)

Gage B: 94 kPa - 87.7 kPa = 6.3 kPa (gage pressure)

Atmospheric pressure, also known as barometric pressure  is described as the pressure within the atmosphere of Earth.

The average atmospheric pressure at the sea level is 101.325 kPa. At an altitude of 2850 m, the atmospheric pressure decreases to approximately 87.7 kPa.

Atmospheric pressure is described as the force exerted at any given point on the Earth's surface by the weight of the air above that point.

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