Calculate the force a 75 kg high jumper must exert in order to produce an acceleration that is 3.2 times the acceleration due to gravity.

Answer:   the acceleration of the masses is given by = 0, which means the angular acceleration of the pulley is zero. This implies that the masses m and 2m move with constant velocity,  they are in equilibrium.

Answer:

Play tennis, nothing can train you better for the sport than the sport itself. However, tennis is one of those unique sports that combine nearly all components of fitness including power, agility, speed, flexibility, reaction time, balance, coordination, cardiovascular endurance and muscular endurance.

Explanation:

Complete Question

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Answer:

The correct option is the second option

Explanation:

 Generally the electric force exerted by the charge Q  on the  charge  (q) is mathematically represented as

           \(F_Q = \frac{kqQ}{r^2}\)

 Generally the electric force exerted by the charge 2Q  on the  charge  (q) is mathematically represented as

         \(F_{2Q} = \frac{kq2Q}{2r^2}\)    

Now the net force exerted on q is

       \(F_{net} = \frac{kqQ}{r^2} - \frac{2k q Q}{4r^2}\)

        \(F_{net} = \frac{4kqQ- 2kqQ}{4r^2}\)

        \(F_{net} = \frac{kqQ}{2r^2}\)

Looking at the resulting equation we see that \(F_{net} > 0\)

This implies that the charge q would move to the right

When materials vibrate, waves are created that travel through the substance, and this energy is what we hear as sound. Earthquakes are earth vibrations that cause the (potential) energy held within rocks to be released (as a result of their pressure-generating relative positions). Seismic waves are produced by earthquakes.

How do sound waves and earthquakes compare?

The waves lose energy as they move through the air with sound or through the ground with shaking during an earthquake. Therefore, a band can be heard louder close to the stage than farther away, and an earthquake can be felt more strongly close to the fault than farther away.

In actuality, sound in the air cannot match how quickly earthquake waves move. In rock, the compressional or "P" wave of an earthquake moves at the In actuality, sound in the air cannot match how quickly earthquake waves move. The speed of a P wave is typically 10,000 mph. The speed of sound through air is roughly 750 mph.

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Answer: B. The elevator is not an inertial frame of reference.

F. The elevator must be accelerating.

Explanation:

Since we've been given the information that the tension in the string is measured to be exactly equal to the force due to gravity on the load and that no other forces are acting on the load, the statements about the elevator that are correct include:

• The elevator is not an inertial frame of reference.

• The elevator must be accelerating.

If the elevator isn't accelerating, the tension in the string can't be equal to the force of gravity.

Answer:

Diffusion

Explanation:

Diffusion is a phenomenon whereby particles move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

Now, when the chemical substances of the perfume are sprayed in a room, their particles will now mix with the particles of the surrounding air.

Furthermore, the particles of the perfume which is like gas will be free to move in a very fast manner in all directions. Thus, they will eventually spread throughout the whole area where you are and thus move from the area where it is sprayed which is the area of higher concentration to the area where you are which includes your nose which is the area of lower concentration.

The distance traveled by the object during the time of acceleration is 211.75 m.

Distance can be defined as the total lenght between two points.

T o calculate the distance traveled by the object during the time of acceleration, we use the formula below.

Formula:

Where:

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 1

Hence, the distance traveled by the object is 211.75 m.

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Answer:

  P₂ = 2 P₁

we conclude that in the second time the power used is double that in the first rise

Explanation:

In this exercise we are asked the power to climb the stairs, if we assume that we go up with constant speed, we use an energy equal to the potential energy due to the difference in height of the stairs, as this height is constant the potential energy does not change and therefore therefore the energy used by us does not change either.

Now we can analyze the required power,

         P = W / t

From the analysis of the previous paragraph the work is equal to the energy used, according to the work energy theorem,

therefore the first time the power is

           P₁ = E / 10

           P₁ = 0.1 E

for the second time the power is

          P₂ = E / 5

          P₂ = 0.2 E

we see that the power in the second case is

         P₂ = 2 P₁

Therefore, we conclude that in the second time the power used is double that in the first rise.

The law of conservation energy

PE₁ + KE₁ = PE₂ + KE₂

From rest ⇒ v₁ = 0 ⇒ KE₁ = 0

Input the value:

PE₁ = PE₂ + KE₂

\(\tt mgh_1=mgh_2+\dfrac{1}{2}mv_2^2\rightarrow divide\:m\\\\gh_1=gh_2+\dfrac{1}{2}v_2^2\\\\9.8(1.226-0.126)=\dfrac{1}{2}v_2^2\\\\v_2=4.64\:m/s\)

We have that the magnification of each focal length is given respectively as

A) has \(u=3\frac{f}{2}\)

B) has \(u=4\frac{f}{3}\)

C) has  \(u=5\frac{f}{4}\)

From the question we are told that:

Focal Length F

Generally, the equation for Magnification is mathematically given by

\(M=\frac{-v}{u}\)

Therefore

\(v=2u\)

For A

\(M=-2\)

Therefore

\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{v}\)

\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{2u}\)

Therefore

\(u=3\frac{f}{2}\)

For B

\(M=-3\)

Therefore

\(v=3u\)

Where

\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{v}\)

\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{3u}\)

Therefore

\(u=4\frac{f}{3}\)

For C

\(M=-4\)

Therefore

\(v=4u\)

Therefore

\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{v}\)

\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{4u}\)

Therefore

\(u=5\frac{f}{4}\)

Conclusion

From the calculations above we can rightly say that the magnifications of the values above are

A has \(u=3\frac{f}{2}\)

B has \(u=4\frac{f}{3}\)

C has  \(u=5\frac{f}{4}\)

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Answer:

Explanation:

Ignoring air resistance

v² = u² + 2as

u = √(v² - 2as)

u = √(29.2² - 2(9.81)(10.9))

u = 25.27413... 25.3 m/s

Answer:

De cual Tema??? jajaja no se que necesitas

Answer:

El análisis temático es un método de análisis de datos cualitativos. Por lo general, se aplica a un conjunto de textos, como las transcripciones de entrevistas. El investigador examina de cerca los datos para identificar temas comunes: temas, ideas y patrones de significado que surgen repetidamente.

Explanation:

(a) The position-time equations for fishing boat is x = 3.4t + 40.8

(b) The time taken for the speedboat to catch up with the fishing boat is 7.1 seconds.

The position-time equations for fishing boat will be obtained by applying the principle of relative velocity as follows;

Let the time when the speedboat catches up = t

let the total time spent by fishing boat = t + 12

x = 3.4(t + 12)

x = 3.4t + 40.8

fishing boat is moving at a constant speed = 3.4 m/s

speed boat started moving 12 seconds later,

distance between the boats = 3.4 m/s  x 12 s = 40.8 m

v = u + at

v = 2.8 + 1.7t

set up the following equation to determine the time when the two boats meet.

vt - x = 40.8

t(2.8 + 1.7t) -  (3.4t + 40.8) = 40.8

2.8t + 1.7t² - 3.4t - 40.8 = 40.8

1.7t² - 0.6t  - 81.6 = 0

solve the quadratic equation using formula method as shown below;

a = 1.7, b = -0.6, c = -81.6

t = 7.1 seconds

Thus, the time taken for the speedboat to catch up with the fishing boat is 7.1 seconds.

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The Kinetic energy possessed by the cycle with a mass of 100 kg and velocity 40 m/s is 80 kJ.

Kinetic energy is the energy of an object when the object is in motion. It is obtained by the product of the mass of the object and the velocity of the object. The unit of kinetic energy is the joule (J).

From the given,

mass of the motorcycle (m) = 100 kg

velocity (v) = 40 m/s

K.E =?

K.E = (mv²) / 2

     = (100×40×40) / 2

    = 160,000 / 2

   = 80,000 J

Thus, the kinetic energy of the motorcycle is 80kJ.

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From the calculation, the normal force is 6161.2 N.

The normal force is given by the expression;

N - mg = ma

Then;

N = mg + ma

m = 84.4 kg

g = 9.8 m/s^2

a = 63.2 m/s2

Now we have;

N = m(g + a)

N = 84.4 (9.8 + 63.2)

N = 6161.2 N

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Take into account that the power is the wrok done in a interval of time:

P = W/t

In this case, the work W is given by:

W = m*g*h = (1000kg)(10m/s^2)(2m)

W = 20000J

Then, the power is:

P = 20000J/10s

P = 2000W

Hence, the power of the pump is 2000 watts

Explanation:

It is given that,

The position of a particle is given by :

\(r(t)=(3t^2i+5j-6tk)\ m\)

(a) Velocity of a particle is given by :

\(v=\dfrac{dr(t)}{dt}\)

Putting values,

\(v=\dfrac{d}{dt}(3t^2+5-6t)\\\\v=(6ti-6k)\ m/s\)

The acceleration of the particle is given by :

\(a=\dfrac{dv}{dt}\\\\a=\dfrac{d}{dt}(6t-6)\\\\a=6i\ m/s^2\)

(b) At t = 0,

Velocity, v = 6k m/s

Acceleration, a = 6i m/s²

The object distance of the lens is 10 cm and the image distance of the lens is 30 cm.

The object and image distance formed by the lens is calculated by applying the following lens formula.

v + u = 40 ------- (1)

v/u = 3 ------------ (2)

v = 3u

Substitute v into equation (1);

3u + u = 40

4u = 40

u = 40/4

u = 10 cm

The image distance = 3u

= 3 x 10 cm

= 30 cm

Thus, the object distance is 10 cm and the image distance is 30 cm.

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The maximum length of runway needed and tension in the towrope will be 175.05 m and 5999N.

For solving this question we will use the laws of Kinematics as well as the Newton's Laws of Motion. According to the third law of Kinematics

v² = u² + 2aS ; where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration and S is the displacement.

According to Newton's Laws of Motion we know that the net force is equal to product of mass and acceleration that is

F = ma ; where F is net force, m is mass of the body and a is the acceleration.

Now, form the free body diagram of the gliders, we balance the forces by Newton's law of motion as:

For glider 1 the forces in x axis will be:

T₁ - T₂ - f = ma                                                    ......(1)

where T₁ and T₂ are tensions on glider 1 and 2 respectively and f is the frictional force.

In y axis the forces will be:

N₁ - W = 0 ; where N₁ is the normal on first glider and W is the weight due to gravity.

For glider 2 the forces in x axis will be:

T₂ - f = ma                                                           ......(2)

where T₂ is tensions on glider 2 and f is the frictional force.

In y axis the forces will be:

N₂ - W = 0 ; where N₂ is the normal on second glider and W is the weight due to gravity.

From equation (1) and (2) we get

T₁ - 2f = 2ma

a = T₁ - 2f/2m

a = 12000 - 2(2800)/2(700)

a = 6400/1400

a = 4.57 m/s²

Now from laws of Kinematics we have

v² = u² + 2aS; here the initial velocity is zero so u = 0 and v = 40 m/s

(40)² = 0 + 2 × 4.57 × S

S = 1600/9.14

S = 175.05 m

Now for the tension in the second rope of glider we use equation (2) that is

T₂ - f = ma

T₂ = ma + f

T₂ = 700 × 4.57 + 2800

T₂ = 3199 + 2800

T₂ = 5999 N

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The initial velocity of the car is u = 0 m/s because the car starts from rest.

The acceleration of the car is a = \(2m/s^{2}\).

The instantaneous velocity is v = 16 m/s.

By applying the formula that connects the details that we have with the duration

a = v − u t

      t

we get the duration as follows

Make t the subject of the formula

    t = v − u

            a

=  16m/s− 0 m/s

      \(2M^{2}\)

= 8s.

The duration for that speed change is 8s.

Calculating acceleration involves dividing velocity by using time or in phrases of SI units, dividing the meter according to the second m/s by the second one. Dividing distance by time twice is the same as dividing distance via the rectangular of time. hence the SI unit of acceleration is the meter according to 2nd squared. If the acceleration is consistent, it's far viable to discover acceleration without time if we have the preliminary and final pace of the item as well as the amount of displacement. The system v2=u2+2as where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration and s is the displacement is used.

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Answer:

d= 23.25 m

Explanation:

       \(E_{o} = K_{transo} + K_{roto} (1)\)

       \(E_{f} = m*g*h (2)\)

       \(h = d* sin 37 (3)\)

       \(E_{f} = m*g* d * sin 37 (4)\)

       \(v = \omega * R (5)\)

       \(K_{rot} = \frac{1}{2}* I * \omega^{2} (6)\)

       \(E_{o} = K_{transo} + K_{roto} = \frac{1}{2}* m* v^{2} +(\frac{1}{2}* \frac{1}{2}) *m*r^{2}*(\frac{v}{r}) ^{2} = \\ \frac{3}{4} * m * v^{2} (7)\)

       \(d =\frac{3}{4} * \frac{v^{2}}{g*sin37} = \frac{3}{4}*\frac{(\omega*r)^{2}}{g*sin 37} (8)\)

       \(d =\frac{3}{4}*\frac{(\omega*r)^{2}}{g*sin 37} = \frac{3}{4} *\frac{(12.0536rad/sec*1.12m)^{2}}{9.8 m/s2*0.601} = 23. 25 m.\)

Nernst potential for K+ ions bathed in DMEM at 37°C is  55 mV. The correct option is A.

The Nernst potential for K+ ions bathed in DMEM at 37°C is a measure of the equilibrium potential for K+ ions across a cell membrane in a solution of DMEM. It is calculated using the Nernst equation, which takes into account the concentration gradient of K+ ions across the membrane, as well as the valence of K+ ions and the temperature of the solution.

The Nernst potential for an ion at a given temperature is calculated using the Nernst equation:

E = (RT/zF) * ln([ion]out/[ion]in)

Where:

E is the Nernst potential (in mV)

R is the gas constant (8.314 J/K/mol)

T is the temperature (in Kelvin)

z is the valence of the ion

F is the Faraday constant (96,485 C/mol)

[ion]out is the concentration of the ion outside the cell (in mM)

[ion]in is the concentration of the ion inside the cell (in mM)

ln is the natural logarithm function

Using the values from the table given in the question, we can calculate the Nernst potential for K+ ions bathed in DMEM at 37°C:

Plugging in the values for K in DMEM:

E = (RT/zF) * ln([K+]out/[K+]in)

E = (8.314 * 310.15)/(1 * 96485) * ln(5.3/140)
E≈ 0.055 V

E ≈ 55 mV

Therefore, The correct option is A.

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A 3m beam of negligible weight is balancing in equilibrium with a fulcrum placed 1m from its left end. If a force of 50N is applied on it's right end, The amount of force would need to be applied to the left end is (F)= 100N

Force is a physical phenomena that help of a object to change its motion and move its position from one end to another. It is a vector quantity. It can be measured in Newton.

To calculate the force we are using the formula,

F= f×(d₂-d₁)

Here we are given,

f= The initial force affect on the weight. = 50N

d₁= The primary distance from the weight.=1m

d₂= The secondary distance from the weight.=3m

We have to calculate the force applied on the left end.=F

Now we put the values in above equation, we get

F= f×(d₂-d₁)

Or, F= 50×(3-1)

Or, F= 100N

From the above discussion we can say that, The amount of force would need to be applied to the left end is (F)= 100N

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The quantity of heat energy that must be transferred to 2.25 kg of brass to raise its temperature from 20 °C to 240 °C is 195030 J

First, we shall list out the given parameters from the question. This is shown below:

The quantity of heat energy that must be transferred can be obtained as follow:

Q = MCΔT

= 2.25 × 394 × 220

= 195030 J

Thus, we can conclude quantity of heat energy that must be transferred is 195030 J

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Answer:

options B,C,D are true

Explanation:

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Yw :)

Answer:

a

Explanation:

a) The capacitance of the ceramic capacitor is approximately 354.16 pF.

b) The potential difference between the plates of the capacitor will be approximately 3.39 x 10^6 volts.

To calculate the capacitance of the ceramic capacitor, we can use the formula:

C = (ε₀ * εᵣ * A) / d

where:

C is the capacitance,

ε₀ is the vacuum permittivity (approximately 8.854 x 10^(-12) F/m),

εᵣ is the relative permittivity of the ceramic (given as 100),

A is the effective plate area (given as 4 cm², which is equal to 4 x 10^(-4) m²),

d is the separation between the plates (given as 0.1 mm, which is equal to 0.1 x 10^(-3) m).

Let's calculate the capacitance in picofarads (pF):

a) Calculation of capacitance (C):

C = (ε₀ * εᵣ * A) / d

= (8.854 x 10^(-12) F/m * 100 * 4 x 10^(-4) m²) / (0.1 x 10^(-3) m)

= (8.854 x 100 x 4) / 0.1

= 354.16 pF

Therefore, the capacitance of the ceramic capacitor is approximately 354.16 pF.

b) To find the potential difference (PD) between the plates when the capacitor is given a charge of 1.2 μC (microcoulombs), we can use the formula:

PD = Q / C

where:

PD is the potential difference,

Q is the charge (given as 1.2 μC, which is equal to 1.2 x 10^(-6) C),

C is the capacitance (calculated in part a) as 354.16 pF, which is equal to 354.16 x 10^(-12) F).

Let's calculate the potential difference (PD):

b) Calculation of potential difference (PD):

PD = Q / C

= (1.2 x 10^(-6) C) / (354.16 x 10^(-12) F)

= 3.39 x 10^6 V

Therefore, the potential difference between the plates of the capacitor will be approximately 3.39 x 10^6 volts.

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Approximately 4300 hours is required for the decay of 2/3 of its nuclei.

Radioactive decay is the random process by which the nuclei of radioactive substances disintegrate into smaller particles. The time taken for half of the radioactive nuclei in a substance to decay is known as the half-life of the substance. In the following paragraphs, I'll explain how to calculate how much time is required for the decay of 2/3 of its nuclei if the half-life of a radioactive element is 2000 hours.The half-life of a radioactive element is the time it takes for half of its original nuclei to decay. The quantity of the substance that has decayed by half of its original quantity is called the half-life. If the half-life of a substance is T, the fraction of the original amount of the substance that remains after a time t is given by the equation:N(t) = N₀(1/2)^(t/T),Where N₀ is the initial number of radioactive nuclei and N(t) is the number of radioactive nuclei remaining after a time t. If we want to know the time it takes for two-thirds of the nuclei to decay, we must solve for t when N(t)/N₀ = 1/3. Putting this into the equation, we have:(1/3)N₀ = N₀(1/2)^(t/T).Simplifying this equation, we get:(1/2)^(t/T) = 1/3.Dividing both sides of the equation by (1/2)^(2000/T), we get:(1/3)/(1/2)^(2000/T) = (1/2)^(t/T - 2000/T).Taking the logarithm of both sides, we get:(t/T - 2000/T)log(1/2) = log(1/3).Simplifying this equation, we get:t/T = -log(1/3)/log(1/2) + 2000/T.To get an approximate solution to this equation, we can make use of the fact that the half-life of a substance is much smaller than the time it takes for most of its nuclei to decay. Therefore, the quantity 2000/T is much larger than one. This allows us to neglect the second term on the right-hand side of the equation. Then we have:t/T = 2.15.Substituting the value of T as 2000 hours, we get:t = 4300 hours.

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