As a result of the increased magnitude and visibility of the heroin problem in the aftermath of the Vietnam conflict, one of the steps taken by the U.S. government was to launch a "War on Drugs" campaign.
This campaign was a set of policies and initiatives aimed at reducing drug use and trafficking in the United States. The campaign included increased law enforcement efforts, tougher sentencing laws for drug offenses, and public awareness campaigns to discourage drug use. The campaign also led to the establishment of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), a federal agency tasked with enforcing drug laws and coordinating drug control activities across different levels of government.
However, the effectiveness of the War on Drugs campaign has been a subject of debate, with some critics arguing that it has led to mass incarceration, racial disparities in the criminal justice system, and a failure to address the root causes of drug addiction.
Learn more about United States.
https://brainly.com/question/1527526
#SPJ4
As a result of the increased magnitude and visibility of the heroin problem in the aftermath of the Vietnam conflict, one of the steps taken by the U.S. government was to implement drug control policies and expand treatment programs for addiction.
The magnitude scale of a star in astronomy is typically described magnitude and visibility as a logarithmic scale that measures the star's brightness, which directly relates to the star's relative distance from the earth. The brightness of the object and its distance from a fixed point are the two key variables that affect the magnitude value.
A star is 7.3 visual magnitude, which is comparatively considerably less luminous. This indicates that the star is quite far away from the earth, and because of this distance and the star's low brightness, it is not visible to the unaided eye.
Learn more about magnitude and visibility here
https://brainly.com/question/14782876
#SPJ11
Give an example of a 2 x 2 matrix game with exactly three nash equilibria in pure strategies. Explain.
Answer:
A Nash equilibrium is a profile of strategies (s1,s2) such that the strategies are best responses to each other, i.e., no player can do strictly better by deviating. This helps us to find the (pure strategy) Nash equilibria.
To start, we find the best response for player 1 for each of the strategies player 2 can play. I will demonstrate this by underlining the best responses:
ABCA1–,10,101–,−10B10–––,01,11,10C−10,110–––,11,1
Player 1 is the row player, player 2 is the column player. If 2 plays column A, then player 1's best response is to play either row A or C, which gives him 1 rather than 0 as payoff. Similarly, the best response to column B is row A, and to column C it is row B.
Now we do the same for player 2 by underlining the best responses of the column player:
ABCA1–,1–0,10–––1–,−10B10–––,01,11,10–––C−10,1–10–––,11,1
So, if player 1 plays row A then player 2 best responds either with column A or column C, giving him 1 rather than 0. We also find the best responses for row B and C.
Now a pure strategy Nash equilibrium is a cell where both payoffs are underlined, i.e., where both strategies are best responses to each other. In the example, the unique pure strategy equilibrium is (A,A). (There may also be mixed strategy equilibria.) In all other cells, at least one player has an incentive to deviate (because it gives him a higher payoff).
EDIT: How to compute mixed strategy equilibria in discrete games?
In a mixed Nash strategy equilibrium, each of the players must be indifferent between any of the pure strategies played with positive probability. If this were not the case, then there is a profitable deviation (play the pure strategy with higher payoff with higher probability).
Consider player 2. He plays column A with probability p, B with probability q, and C with probability 1−p−q. We need to find p,q such that player 1 is indifferent between his pure strategies A,B,C. He is indifferent between row A (left hand side) and row B (right hand side) if p,q are such that
p+10q−10(1−q−p)=q+10(1−p−q).
He is indifferent between B and C if
q+10(1−p−q)=p+q+1−q−p=1.
You just have to solve the first condition for q as function of p, substitute q in the second condition and you have p. Inserting p again in the first gives you q.
Now we do the same with strategies for player 1 such that player 2 is indifferent. Player 1 plays A with probability x, B with probability y and C with probability 1−x−y. The two conditions that follow are
1x+10y−10(1−x−y)=x+10(1−x−y)x+10(1−x−y)=1
Solve this again to find x,y. This is a mixed-strategy equilibrium, because neither player has a profitable deviation. Remember, we constructed the profile (x,y;p,q) such that the other player is indifferent between his pure strategies. So, no matter how the other player unilaterally deviates, his expected payoff will be identical to that in equilibrium (x,y;p,q). In general, depending on the game and solutions x,y,p,q, there may be infinitely many mixed Nash equilibria, or none. The more pure strategies there are, the more tedious it is to compute mixed strategy equilibria, since we solve for N−1 variables for each player (N being the number of pure strategies of the other player).
Moreover, to find all equilibria, if there are more than 2 actions for a player, then every possible combination of actions has to be checked. Here, a player has 3 actions, and a mixed strategy equilibrium could entail mixing over all three or just any two of them. Since such a player would not have to be indifferent regarding the strategy played with probability 0, the equations you have to set up are different. In summary, manually checking for all possible mixed strategy equilibria if at least one player has more than two actions can require a lot of effort.
mark me brainliest
follow
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
Read more on patients:
https://brainly.com/question/11418947
#SPJ1
Being consistent with toddlers
A. Reduces stress and anxiety
B. Repeats a routine or expectation so the toddler knows what to expect
C. Minimizes problems such as going to bed
D. All of the above
Complete the sentence.
Medication administration technology uses
to dispense the right medication to the right patient.
Answer:
Medicare is a government national health insurance program in the United States, begun in 1965 under the Social Security Administration (SSA) and now administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). It primarily provides health insurance for Americans aged 65 and older, but also for some younger people with disability status as determined by the SSA, including people with end stage renal disease and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS or Lou Gehrig's disease)
Is jumping on a trampoline gravatational energy
Answer:There are Multiple different types of energy transfer, including gravitational potential energy, elastic energy, and kinetic energy.
Explanation:When you use your potential energy to jump, the trampoline uses its potential energy in its springs to push back against you.
Concerning parenteral drug admininistration, which of these is untrue? A) more predictable compared to oral administration route B) not acceptable for unconscious patients C) rate of drug systemic absorption insensitive to drug solubility in interstitial fluid D) drug bypass first-pass metabolism
Answer:
not acceptable for unconscious
class iii restorations involve the interproximal surfaces of which teeth?
Class III restorations involve the interproximal surfaces of anterior teeth.
What is dental restoration?Dental restoration is the result of a dental procedure that aims to restore the shape, function, and appearance of the teeth.
Restorations can be divided into direct and indirect restorations.
Direct dental restorations are dental restorations that can be made directly into the tooth cavity in one visit.Indirect dental restoration is the restoration of tooth structure that is performed outside the patient's mouth. Materials for restorations are prepared in a dental laboratory and then attached to the prepared teeth.Usually, class III tooth restorations can involve the interproximal surfaces of the anterior teeth.
Learn more about examples of direct restorative dental material for a class ii restoration here :
https://brainly.com/question/28346335
#SPJ4
The infant weighs 7 lb 4 oz (3,300 g) at birth. if the infant is following a normal pattern of growth, what would be the expected weight for this child at the age of 12 months
Answer:
The expected weight for the infant at 12 months would be 20 pounds.
Hopefully this helps! have a great day :)
What would be the combining form for the terms Tachycardic, Gastritis, or Intercostal?
Answer:
i d k
Explanation:
what is the final step after cementing the provisional crown
The final step after cementing the provisional crown is to evaluate and ensure proper fit, function, and aesthetics. This step is crucial to ensure the success of the final restoration and patient satisfaction.
Once the provisional crown is cemented in place, the dentist will assess several key factors:
1. Occlusion: The dentist will check the bite to ensure that the provisional crown does not interfere with the opposing teeth during chewing or cause any discomfort. Adjustments may be made to achieve proper occlusion.
2. Marginal Fit: The dentist will examine the margins of the provisional crown to ensure a tight and accurate fit along the tooth preparation. Any gaps or discrepancies may need to be addressed to prevent leakage or irritation to the underlying tooth structure.
3. Esthetics: The provisional crown should closely mimic the color, shape, and contour of the natural tooth. The dentist will evaluate the provisional crown's appearance, making any necessary adjustments to achieve a pleasing and natural-looking result.
4. Patient Comfort: The patient's feedback and comfort are essential considerations. The dentist will inquire about any discomfort or sensitivity, addressing any issues that may arise.
After assessing these factors, the dentist may make adjustments or refinements to the provisional crown as needed. Once the dentist is satisfied with the fit, function, and aesthetics, the final step may involve documenting the provisional crown's placement, reviewing postoperative care instructions with the patient, and scheduling the next appointment for the placement of the permanent crown.
To know more about provisional crown,
https://brainly.com/question/32313292
#SPJ11
The final step after cementing the provisional crown is to check for occlusion and make any necessary adjustments. This ensures the patient's bite is comfortable and aligned properly. The dentist will also evaluate the provisional crown for any aesthetic concerns.
Explanation:The final step after cementing the provisional crown is to check for occlusion and make any necessary adjustments. Occlusion refers to the contact between the upper and lower teeth when the mouth is closed. The goal is to ensure that the patient's bite is comfortable and aligned properly.
To check for occlusion, the dentist will ask the patient to bite down and move their jaw from side to side. If any high spots or interference are detected, the dentist will use a dental articulating paper to mark them. The areas of interference will then be adjusted using a dental handpiece.
Once the occlusion has been checked and adjusted, the dentist will evaluate the provisional crown for any aesthetic concerns, such as shape, color, and contour. If necessary, the crown can be further manipulated to achieve the desired appearance. Finally, the dentist will provide the patient with post-operative instructions and schedule a follow-up appointment to monitor the stability and fit of the provisional crown.
Learn more about Provisional crown here:https://brainly.com/question/32512042
#SPJ11
During shift report, the nurse states that a patient is receiving an oxytocin drip at 6 milliunits/min. The oxytocin concentration is 30 units in 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution. The IV pump should be set for how many milliliters per hour? _________mL/h
Answer:
... i think it should be 15
Explanation:
Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?
Explanation:
Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.how would you heal a broken finger?
The DSM-IV-TR A. is designed specifically for therapeutic recreation B. is a tool used regularly in diagnosis and treatment planning related to mental health disorders C. lists over 250 specific diagnoses D. both a and b E. both b and c F. all of the above
The DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition, text revision) is a tool that is used regularly in diagnosis and treatment planning related to mental health disorders. The DSM-IV-TR lists over 250 specific diagnoses and is not designed specifically for therapeutic recreation.
Therapeutic recreation can incorporate the use of the DSM-IV-TR in treatment planning, but it is not its sole purpose. The DSM-IV-TR is a manual used by mental health professionals and researchers to diagnose and classify mental disorders. It provides standardized criteria for the diagnosis of mental disorders and is an important tool in clinical and research settings.
The DSM-IV-TR is organized into five axes or categories that include clinical disorders, personality disorders, general medical conditions, psychosocial and environmental factors, and global assessment of functioning. Each disorder in the DSM-IV-TR is accompanied by a description of its diagnostic criteria, prevalence, and treatment options.
To know more about therapeutic visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14598348
#SPJ11
Which ancient discoveries are you most interested in learning about? check all that apply. Calendars farming math medicine astronomy music.
The ancient discoveries that are most interesting in learning about are math and astronomy.
Аncient Egyptiаn civilizаtion wаs аn аdvаnced culture in terms of аstronomy аnd mаthemаtics. However, these were not only scholаrly pursuits. These developments hаd аn importаnt impаct in the everydаy аctivities of common people. That's why mathematics and astronomy are most interesting in learning about.
There were significаnt аchievements in the field of аstronomy аs well. Bаsed on their observаtions of the sun аnd the moon's movements, the Egyptiаns developed аn аccurаte cаlendаr orgаnized in twelve 30-dаy months, three seаsons of four months eаch, plus аn extrа five dаys, giving а 365-yeаr dаy but with no wаy of аccounting for the extrа quаrter dаy eаch yeаr. Dаy аnd night were split into 24 units. This аllowed people to fаrm the lаnd more successfully.
Your options are not well arranged, but most probably your options were
a. Calendars farming
b. math
c. medicine
d. astronomy
e. music
Thus, the correct answer is B and D.
For more information about ancient Egyptians’ advancements refers to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/11264583
#SPJ4
A postoperative client is experiencing a flash pulmonary edema. what finding in the client’s sputum is consistent with this problem?
Respiratory distress symptoms and signs are always present, but the telltale sign of NPPE is foamy pink sputum.
A rare consequence of general anaesthesia is pulmonary oedema, which can take the forms of cardiogenic, non-cardiogenic, or negative pressure pulmonary oedema (NPPE). Upper airway obstruction is known to cause the complication of postoperative pulmonary oedema. In a clinical situation known as post obstructive pulmonary edema, or NPPE, immediate onset pulmonary edema arises after upper airway obstruction.
To learn more about edema click here:
https://brainly.com/question/12977976
#SPJ4
Some disease-causing microbes attack the body by turning on or off specific signal transduction pathways. In the disease cholera, the bacterium vibrio cholerae causes massive diarrhea by interfering with such a pathway. A toxin from this bacterium enters intestinal cells and chemically modifies g proteins. Once modified, the g proteins can no longer cleave gtp into gdp. What would you expect to see within the intestinal cells of a person with cholera?.
Answer:
3cane
Explanation:
how important is the function of each organ in our body
Morbid obesity due to excess calorie intake what is the main term?
Answer:
Class 3 obesity
Severe obesity and the technical code is E66. 01
The main term for morbid obesity due to excess calorie intake is "obesity."
Obesity is a medical condition characterized by the excessive accumulation of body fat, which can have significant negative effects on a person's health. When obesity is specifically attributed to excess calorie intake, it means that the individual is consuming more calories than their body requires for daily energy expenditure.
Excess calorie intake is a major contributor to weight gain and obesity. When a person consistently consumes more calories than their body needs for daily activities and functions, the excess calories are stored as fat. Over time, this can lead to significant weight gain and an increase in body fat percentage.
To know more about obesity here
https://brainly.com/question/27031973
#SPJ2
A young nurse is working in a busy, crowded emergency department. He is instructed by the doctor to get a vial of heparin flush for a patient, but retrieves a potassium as the vials are almost identical. The patient screams with pain when they are injected. The nurse feels terrible and afraid they will be fired. What steps would you take to address this error and describe strategies to prevent this error from occuring again. (4-6 lines or 1-2 short paragraphs maximum)
First step is emphasizing to the young nurse that in a just culture, this error (though potentially fatal!) does not constitute grounds for dismissal nor does it define their nursing ability. Nurses make mistakes unfortunately and the most important aspect of these errors is honesty so that the patients have positive outcomes. The mistake was negligent but, understandable and this needs to be communicated as to not discourage future reporting.
Second, emphasize fundamental nursing principles. When busy, stressed, overwhelmed, etc., the likelihood of committing a medication error is amplified. So, go back to basics. Check the five rights (right patient, med, dose, route, and time) on the order, during preparation, and before administration. If vials look alike, checking for the correct medication at least three different times can prevent these errors.
Tried to stay within the parameters but instead did two short paragraphs of 6 lines.
Gamma radiation is sometimes used to kill cancer cells in patients. However, the procedure must be used with great caution because Select one: a. gamma-radiation can also destroy healthy cells in the patient. b. hospital workers cannot be protected from gamma radiation. c. electrical and magnetic fields cannot be used to control gamma radiation. d. gamma radiation is produced by radioactive material.
Gamma radiation is sometimes used to kill cancer cells in patients. However, the procedure must be used with great caution because the gamma-radiation can also destroy healthy cells in the patient.
Gamma radiation is ionizing radiation. It is a form of high-energy radiation. Gamma rays are used to kill cancer cells in radiation treatment. It is often used in conjunction with other types of radiation, such as X-rays. Radiation therapy is a cancer treatment that uses high-energy rays or particles to kill cancer cells. The primary goal of radiation therapy is to damage cancer cells' DNA so they cannot continue to divide and grow. Although radiation therapy is effective in killing cancer cells, it can also harm normal cells that are healthy. The procedure must be used with great caution because the gamma-radiation can also destroy healthy cells in the patient.Hence, the correct option is a. Gamma-radiation can also destroy healthy cells in the patient.
Learn more about Gamma radiation
https://brainly.com/question/22166705
#SPJ11
As a Medical Technologist, what would like to contribute in medical field.
Answer:
Hi here goes my answer and I hope this may help you, may you have a successful day. Look down there goes the answer!
Here goes my answer:
The restorative technologist inquiries about and creates modern specialized applications for the healthcare industry, as a rule at a clinic or autonomous restorative research facility. They help restorative experts by analyzing the patient’s natural tests and contribute to the patient’s wellbeing arrange by diagnosing and making a treatment procedure.
Explanation:
Patient Y was diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder, a severe form of depression, and is frustrated that after three days of taking a SSRI, her symptoms have not been alleviated.
a) Are you surprised that after three days of taking her SSRI, Patient Y still has symptoms of depression? Briefly explain why or why not.
b) Patient Y is presenting her family history and she reveals that her monozygotic twin has also been diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder. Patient Y bitterly tells her psychiatrist that their depression likely stems from living in impoverished conditions throughout their childhood, and concludes that their upbringing is completely to blame. Knowing the multiple factors that can increase one’s risk for depression, do you completely agree with Patient Y’s assessment? Briefly explain your answer, and include your reasoning.
It is not surprising that Patient Y still has symptoms of depression after taking a SSRI for only three days. SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, typically take several weeks to take full effect.
These medications work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can take some time to achiev
.b) Patient Y's assessment that their upbringing in impoverished conditions during childhood is completely to blame for their depression is not entirely accurate. While environmessive Disorder suggests a strong genetic component to their depre
ntal factors, such as poverty and trauma, can increase the risk of developing depression, there are also genetic and biological factors that contribute to the disorder. Patient Y's monozygotic twin also being diagnosed with Major Depre
Learn more about reuptake here:
https://brainly.com/question/30928503
#SPJ11
According to Clevette and colleagues, examples of unsafe, common disciplinary actions reviewed by boards of nursing include all of the following EXCEPT
Failure to implement safeguards to ensure patient confidentiality of patients protected health information aren't reviewed by boards of nursing.
Who is a Nurse?This is a healthcare professional who is involved in taking care of the patient so as to ensure quick recovery.
The nursing board deals with approval of nursing programs and also issues which may arise from direct relationship with the patient such as abuse so as to ensure the best hands are in the job.
Read more about Nursing here https://brainly.com/question/6685374
#SPJ1
What do you feel should be the priority Health Promotion agenda for the United States (or any particular sub-population within the U.S.)? Why do you think this issue persists and what do you think should be done?
An effective health promotion agenda requires a holistic approach that targets both individual behavior change and broader societal factors to improve population health outcomes and reduce health disparities.
Determining the priority health promotion agenda for the United States or any specific sub-population requires considering various factors such as population health needs, disparities, and public health goals. However, some overarching priorities that can benefit the entire population include:
Health Equity:Addressing health disparities and promoting equitable access to healthcare services, resources, and opportunities. This involves targeting social determinants of health, such as income, education, and discrimination, which contribute to health inequalities.
Chronic Disease Prevention:Focusing on preventing and managing chronic diseases like heart disease, diabetes, and obesity through promoting healthy lifestyles, regular physical activity, nutritious diets, and tobacco cessation.
Mental Health:Prioritizing mental health promotion, early intervention, and access to mental healthcare services to address the rising prevalence of mental health disorders and reduce the stigma associated with seeking help.
Preventive Care and Immunizations:Encouraging routine preventive care visits, screenings, and immunizations to prevent the onset of diseases and improve population health outcomes.
Health Literacy and Education:Enhancing health literacy levels by providing accurate and understandable health information to empower individuals to make informed decisions about their health.
To address the persistence of these issues, a multi-faceted approach is needed. This includes comprehensive public health campaigns, policy interventions, community engagement, healthcare system reforms, and collaborations among government, healthcare providers, educational institutions, and community organizations. It is crucial to allocate resources and funding towards preventive care, health education, and improving access to affordable healthcare services. Additionally, addressing social determinants of health and promoting health equity requires systemic changes to reduce disparities and ensure fair distribution of resources and opportunities.
To learn more about Mental Health visit:
https://brainly.com/question/983672
#SPJ11
Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription. T/F?
The given statement, "Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription" is a false statement because automated sentence building is a process of generating sentences automatically using computer algorithms, while electronic transcription is the conversion of spoken language into written text using electronic devices or software.
However, Automated sentence building is a method used for automatic summarization, which involves reducing the input text into a shortened version consisting of only the main points and ideas. It is often used in Natural Language Processing (NLP) and other related fields to create summaries of long articles or other textual content. In essence, the purpose of automated sentence building is to make it easier for humans to understand and analyze large amounts of information by breaking it down into its most important elements.
The electronic transcription method is used for the conversion of speech into written or electronic text using software applications. It is often used in a wide range of industries, including legal, medical, and entertainment, as well as for creating subtitles for videos and other multimedia content.
Therefore, the given statement is false since automated sentence building and electronic transcription are two distinct concepts used in different fields.
Learn more about automated sentence here:
https://brainly.com/question/15166630
#SPJ11
The Association of Preoperative Nurses can provide ?
The Association of PeriOperative Registered Nurses (AORN) was established in 1949 to provide a network for operating room nurses who wanted to exchange best practices for patients having surgery.
What is the perioperative nurse's (AORN) function?A registered nurse (RN) who organizes, coordinates, administers, and evaluates nursing care for patients whose defensive reflexes or capacity for self-care may be jeopardized during surgical or other invasive procedures is known as a perioperative nurse.It is impossible for nurses to carry out surgery on their own. Before, during, and after surgeries, nurses can perform a wide variety of tasks. To land the job you want most, take into account pursuing more education or training.In order to keep the patient and surgical team safe before, during, and after surgery, the primary duty of the perioperative nurse is to maintain a sterile environment. Anxiety and knowledge deficiency are the two most typical nursing diagnoses during the preoperative period. 30. A lack of knowledge could be caused by surgical procedures, normal operating room procedures, or unrealistic expectations for results.To learn more about Association of Preoperative Nurses, refer to:
https://brainly.com/question/29052558
-¿Qué son los músculos Isquiotibiales ? -Origen -Inserción -Antagonista -Sinergista -Dibujar los músculos y poner sus nombres. -¿Cuáles son las funciones de los músculos isquiotibiales?
Respuesta y explicación:
Los músculos isquiotibiales son un grupo de músculos ubicados en el compartimento posterior del muslo, que reciben su nombre debido a su inserción proximal en el isquion del hueso coxal y su inserción distal en la tibia. Los músculos isquiotibiales son: el semitendinoso, el semimembranoso, y el bíceps femoral (aunque solo su cabeza larga se inserta en el hueso coxal).
Tienen un rol muy importante en la extensión del muslo sobre la cadera y también en la flexión de la pierna sobre el muslo cuando el sujeto se encuentra de pie.
Los músculos isquiotibiales tienen como antagonista al cuádriceps femoral, que se encuentra en el compartimiento anterior del muslo y se encarga de la flexión del muslo sobre la cadera y de la extensión de la pierna sobre el muslo. El antagonista se opone al músculo agonista (el que realiza el movimiento).
El sinergista es aquel que facilita el movimiento del agonista, en este caso, los músculos sinergistas son el gastrocnemio, el sartorio, el poplíteo y el grácil.
El músculo semitendinoso se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática y se inserta en la superficie medial del extremo superior de la tibia.
El músculo semimembranoso se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática y se inserta en el cóndilo medial de la tibia.
La cabeza larga del músculo bíceps femoral también se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática, mientras que la cabeza corta se origina en la línea áspera del fémur; y se inserta en el extremo superior del peroné.
Some nursing care points to consider when administering Recombinant Tissue Plasma Activator (tPA) include:
a. Must be given within 2 hours of symptom onset
b. Need an ultrasound prior to administering tPA
c. The goal of blood pressure monitoring is <180/105 mm Hg
d. Family history of receiving tPA
Some nursing care points to consider when administering Recombinant Tissue Plasma Activator (tPA) include: a. Must be given within 3-4.5 hours of symptom onset, not 2 hours as stated. It is crucial to administer tPA as soon as possible within this time frame to maximize its effectiveness in dissolving blood clots and improving outcomes for stroke patients. b. A CT scan, rather than an ultrasound, is typically performed prior to administering tPA.
Some nursing care points to consider when administering Recombinant Tissue Plasma Activator (tPA) include the following:
1. Must be given within 2 hours of symptom onset: tPA is most effective when given within the first 2 hours of symptom onset. Therefore, it is important to act quickly when administering tPA to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
2. Need an ultrasound prior to administering tPA: An ultrasound is necessary to determine if the patient has a blood clot or bleeding in the brain. This information is crucial in determining whether or not tPA can be administered safely.
3. The goal of blood pressure monitoring is <180/105 mm Hg: Blood pressure monitoring is important in patients receiving tPA as it can increase the risk of bleeding in the brain. The goal is to keep blood pressure under control to minimize this risk.
4. Family history of receiving tPA: A family history of receiving tPA may indicate a genetic predisposition to stroke. It is important to take this into consideration when administering tPA as the patient may be at a higher risk for future strokes.
Overall, nursing care points to consider when administering tPA include careful monitoring of blood pressure and ensuring that the medication is given within the appropriate time frame. Ultrasound prior to administration is also important to ensure patient safety.
Learn more about Recombinant Tissue Plasma Activator at brainly.com/question/14350102
#SPJ11
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest