approximately how many vaccines and antiviral treatments are currently in development to reduce hospitalizations due to the sars-cov2 virus?

Answers

Answer 1

More than 80  vaccines and antiviral treatments are currently in development to reduce hospitalizations due to the sars-cov2 virus.

What vaccine means?

A substance used to boost the immune system's defenses against illness. Most vaccines are given by needle injection, although some can also be taken by mouth or sprays in to nose. It's crucial that you and family children who are able to receive vaccinations are properly immunized to help safeguard them.

How do vaccines function?

Immunity to just a disease is provided by vaccinations without the need for prior illness. They are created using the disease-causing germ's components or weakened, dead copies of the virus (called antigens). The proteins used in some vaccines are created through genetic engineering.

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Related Questions

If a child or adult has a medicine patch in the same place where you would attach the aed pad, you should:.

Answers

If a child or adult has a medicine patch in the same place where you would attach the AED pad, you should remove the patch and wipe the skin clean before attaching the AED pad.

AED (Automated External Defibrillator) pads need to make direct contact with the patient's skin for the device to work properly. Medicine patches may interfere with the electrical conduction and cause the AED to malfunction or deliver an insufficient shock. Removing the patch and cleaning the area ensures that the AED pads can adhere correctly and function properly.

In the case of a medicine patch being in the way of AED pad placement, always remove the patch, clean the skin, and then proceed with attaching the AED pads to ensure effective defibrillation.

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A narcotic analgesic tablet contains 5 mg of hydrocodone bitartrate and 500 mg of aspirin. How many grams of each ingredient needed to prepare 100 tablets?

Answers

Answer:

500 mg hydrocodone

5000 mg aspirin

Explanation:

1 tablet       -> 5 mg hydrocodone

100 tablets ->x

x=(100 tablets * 5 mg hydrocodone)/1 tablet      x=500 mg hydrocodone

1 tablet       ->500 mg aspirin

100 tablets ->x

x=(100 tablets*500 mg aspirin)/1 tablet         x=5000 mg aspirin

How should Steve collect the evidence?
Steve is a forensic expert who has been called for investigating a murder case. While looking for evidence, Steve saw some bloodstains on a table. He knew that an analysis of this evidence may help solve the case.

In order to collect this evidence, Steve would have to use a cotton swab moistened with distilled (BLANK)

Answers

Answer:

sterile water

Explanation:

a client with urinary retention needs to undergo a procedure to insert an indwelling catheter. what should the nurse discuss with the health care provider before catheterization?

Answers

The nurse should discuss with the health care provider before catheterization regarding the type and size of the catheter to be used

What is urinary retention and indwelling catheter ?

The inability of the bladder to evacuate urine. Acute urinary retention develops quite quickly, however chronic urinary retention takes time to develop.

Urine may be held if there is an obstruction, a stricture (narrowing), or if the muscles in or around the bladder are weak. Additionally, some tumour types and sites, specific medications, dehydration, or constipation might cause urinary retention.

An indwelling urinary catheter is inserted similarly to an intermittent catheter, with the exception that it is left in place. The catheter is kept in the bladder by a water-filled balloon to prevent it from escaping. These catheters are frequently referred to as Foley catheters.

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Responses of the Mast cells to the allergen include/s a. All of the answers are correct b. Degranulation c. Secretion of lipid mediators d. Secretion of cytokines

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - A. All of the answers are correct.

Explanation:

Mast cells are the cells that are present on connective tissue. These cells have many garnules that are filled with histamin and heparin that play role in first line immune response against allergens. Degranuation is the process of releasing these granules.

Other than this mast cells or mastocytes also secrete lipid mediators and cytokines. These are activated and secreted in presence of allergen or anaphalyxis response.

which medication would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a patient with acne?

Answers

Answer:

The medication that the nurse would anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a patient with acne depends on the severity of the acne and other factors. Here are some commonly used medications for acne:

Topical retinoids: These medications are derived from vitamin A and are used to unclog pores and promote the growth of new, healthy skin cells. Examples include tretinoin, adapalene, and tazarotene.

Topical antibiotics: These medications are used to kill bacteria that cause acne. Examples include clindamycin, erythromycin, and dapsone.

Benzoyl peroxide: This medication is used to kill bacteria and reduce inflammation in the skin. It is available over-the-counter in different strengths.

Oral antibiotics: These medications are used to kill bacteria that cause acne. Examples include doxycycline, minocycline, and tetracycline.

Oral contraceptives: In women, hormonal fluctuations can contribute to acne. Oral contraceptives that contain estrogen and progesterone can help regulate hormones and reduce acne.

The choice of medication depends on the type and severity of acne, as well as the patient's medical history and other factors. The nurse should work with the healthcare provider to determine the most appropriate medication for the patient's individual needs.

The medication that the nurse would anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a patient with acne is: topical retinoids.

Topical retinoids are derived from Vitamin A and work by promoting cell turnover, preventing the formation of comedones, and reducing inflammation. They can be effective in treating mild to moderate acne by reducing the number of lesions and improving the overall appearance of the skin.

Examples of topical retinoids include tretinoin, adapalene, and tazarotene.

Before starting treatment with topical retinoids, the nurse should assess the patient's skin condition and medical history. They should educate the patient on how to properly use the medication, potential side effects, and how long it may take to see improvement in their skin.

It is also important to advise the patient to avoid excessive sun exposure and to use sunscreen while using these medications, as they can increase sensitivity to sunlight. The nurse should monitor the patient for any adverse reactions and ensure that the patient follows up with their healthcare provider as scheduled.

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A physician orders Lanoxin elixir qd for an 81-pound child based on 3.4 mcg/ kg/day. Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is 50 mcg (0.05 mg)/mL. What volume should be administered per dose?

Answers

Answer:

Therefore 2.5 ml of Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is to be administered to the child daily

Explanation:

The child weighs 81 pound. The weight of the child is needed to be converted from pound to kg.

1 kg= 2.2 pound

Therefore 81 pound = 81/2.2 kg = 36.8 kg

Since the child is to be administered bases on 3.4 mcg/ kg/day, the volume of Lanoxin elixir qd to be administered to the 81 pound (36.8 kg) in one day = 36.8 kg × 3.4 mcg/ kg/day = 125.12 ≅ 125 mcg

Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is 50 mcg (0.05 mg)/mL, therefore 125 mcg = 125 mcg / 50 mcg/ml = 2.5 ml

Therefore 2.5 ml of Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is to be administered to the child daily

The nurse teaches a client diagnosed with an infection of both the left eye and right eye how to care for the eyes. It is most important for the nurse to include which instruction. True or false

Answers

True. The nurse should include instructions on proper hand hygiene as the most important step in caring for an eye infection.

The client should be instructed to wash their hands thoroughly with soap and water before and after caring for their eyes, as well as avoid touching their eyes with contaminated hands.

Other important instructions for eye care may include using prescribed eye drops or ointments, avoiding wearing contact lenses, and keeping the affected eye(s) clean and covered with a clean cloth or dressing.

Additionally, the nurse should advise the client to seek prompt medical attention if symptoms worsen or if there is no improvement within a specified time frame. Proper hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the spread of infection and ensuring proper eye care.

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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

set as brainliest

what type of medicine uses of plants, animal and mineral substances to stimulate the immune system to heal the body.

Answers

Answer: Antibiotics
Antibiotics (hope I helped)

When transporting a radiopharmaceutical, it must be place in a -lined delivery container

A. technetium
B. lead
C. thallium
D. tungsten

Answers

Answer:

D is the answer

Explanation:

Tungsten I think hopes this helps

A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.

A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.

The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.

DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:

Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:

Dehydration:

Hypertensive heart disease:

Left ventricular failure:

Answers

Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.

What does septic mean?

The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.

What triggers septicaemia in a person?

The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.

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The rationale use of (angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, β-blockers, calcium channel blockers and thiazide diuretics) in the management of hypertensive patients with:
A. diabetes mellitus
B. asthma
C. renal impairment
D. stable angina

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

A diabetes mellitus ...

Contraindication in appendidectomy

Answers

Certain contraindications exist for laparoscopic appendectomy, including extensive adhesions, radiation, or immunosuppressive therapy, severe portal hypertension coagulopathies. Laparoscopic appendectomy is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy. Hope this answers/helps

Pour 67 mL of juice followed by 29 mL of juice into a 100mL graduated cylinder what's the percent strength

Answers

Question Completion:

Pour 67 mL of Juice B followed by 29 mL of Juice A into the 100 mL graduated cylinder.  What is the percent strength of each juice?

Answer:

The

percent strength of Juice B = 70%.

The percent strength of Juice A = 30%.

Explanation:

a) Data and Explanation:

Juice B = 67 mL

Juice A = 29 mL

Graduated Cylinder capacity = 100 mL

Total juice of B and A = 96 mL

The percent strength of Juice B = 70% (67/96)

The percent strength of Juice A = 30% (29/96)

b) The percent strength is the computation of how much of Juice A substance is dissolved into a specific amount of Juice B liquid. The percent strength establishes the part-to-whole relationships. A percent is a part of the 100 total parts.  The 100 total parts in this case = 96 (67 + 29).  Therefore, the part of Juice A in the total parts = 29/96 * 100 = 30% , while the part of Juice B in the total parts = 67/96 * 100 = 70%.  Knowing the percent strength of each liquid helps to determine the content of each juice.

3.You are a public health official trying to determine the identity of the pathogen circulating within your city. Explain which genetic technologies would be most useful in this process.

Answers

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In the process of identifying the pathogen circulating within a city, genetic technologies like PCR, Real-time PCR, microarrays play a crucial role in providing valuable insights.

The word "gene technology" refers to a wide variety of activities dealing with figuring out how genes express themselves, making use of genetic variation found naturally, changing genes, and transferring genes to different hosts. All living things contain genes, which are passed down from one generation to the next.

Here are some genetic technologies that would be useful in this process:

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): PCR is a technique used to amplify specific regions of DNA or RNA. It allows for the rapid production of numerous copies of a specific DNA sequence, making it an essential tool for detecting the presence of pathogens in a sample.

DNA Sequencing: DNA sequencing techniques enable the determination of the precise nucleotide sequence of a pathogen's genome such as virulence genes or unique regions, which can help in distinguishing and characterizing the pathogen.

Genomic Microarrays: Microarrays can be used to identify specific DNA sequences or variations in the pathogen's genome. By comparing the patterns of hybridization on the microarray, it is possible to identify the presence of specific genes or genetic variations associated with a particular pathogen.

Therefore, above given are some of the technologies that can be used to determine the identity of the pathogen circulating in the city.

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a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation. which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside? select all that apply.

Answers

A COPD patient on mechanical ventilation requires critical equipment such as a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen levels, a ventilator to provide mechanical breathing, suction equipment, and a catheter to clear the airway.

Essential Equipment for a Client with COPD on Mechanical Ventilation

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation requires a range of equipment to ensure their safety and comfort. The most important equipment for the nurse to keep at the client's bedside includes an oxygen saturation monitor (pulse oximeter) to monitor the client's oxygen levels, the ventilator or mechanical ventilator itself to provide mechanical ventilation, suction equipment, and airway suction catheter to maintain airway patency, and a BVM (Bag-Valve-Mask) or Ambu bag as a backup ventilation device. The client will also require a steady source of oxygen, and a nebulizer may be necessary to deliver medication to the client. Additionally, sterile water for inhalation, sterile normal saline solution for irrigation, sterile gloves, and lubricating jelly are important to have on hand. Maintaining an adequate supply of these essential items is crucial for the well-being of the client with COPD mechanical ventilation.

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A rectangle is 8 centimeters wide. The area of the rectangle is 120 square cm. What is the length of the rectangle?

Answers

Answer:

15 cm

Explanation:

To find the length, divide the area by the width. We do this since the width times the length equals the area

120 ÷ 8 = 15

Therefore, the length is 15 cm

Answer: The length of the rectangle is 15 centimeters.

Explanation:

Area ÷  Width = Length

In this case, 120cm (Area) ÷ 8cm (Width) = 15cm (Length)

la importancia de la precisión y la
documentación adecuada de las tablas en caso de que la
reclamación de nuestro médico sea denegada o la
compañía de seguros reduzca el pago.

Answers

Answer:

don't understand

Explanation:

Don't understand

To assign an ICD-10 code to a diagnosis in the medical chart, first you must identify and locate
the
which describes the condition, disease, reason for a visit or eponym.

Answers

ICD-10 diagnosis code is used for medical claim reporting. When assigning the ICD-10 code one must identify and locate the correct documentation with details of condition, disease and reason for the visit.

Why to assign an ICD-10 code?

ICD0-10 coding enhance the quality of data for tracking public health condition, improve data for epidemiological research etc.  It also supports the medical need for the service and inform the payer about the services performed.

Thus, to assign ICD-10 code it is necessary to identify and locate the correct documents describing the condition, disease and reason for the visit.

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To assign a ICD-10 code it is necessary to describe the condition, location, disease and the reason for the visit.

ICD stands for International Statistical Classification of Disease and Health related problems. It provides information about the extent, causes and consequences of the human disease and death worldwide by the data  which is coded with ICD code.  

ICD-10 code contains all the codes about the signs, symptoms, health problems, circumstances, abnormalities and external causes of the injuries or diseases.

Assigning of the ICD 10 code increases the quality of the data. It become easier to track the health condition of the people and epidemiological researches. This allows the data to be shared and compared between the countries consistently and standardly.

Thus, to assign a ICD-10 code it is very important to know about the condition, location and reason for visit.

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in shock states, what general principle can be observed regarding perfusion?

Answers

In shock states, a general principle observed regarding perfusion is inadequate blood flow to vital organs.

How to find the general principle observed in shock states concerning perfusion?

In shock states, the general principle observed regarding perfusion is a decrease in blood flow to vital organs.

Shock is a critical condition characterized by a significant impairment in the body's ability to deliver oxygen and nutrients to tissues and organs.

It can result from various causes, such as hemorrhage, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.

During shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to redirect blood flow to essential organs like the brain, heart, and lungs.

However, as shock progresses, systemic vasoconstriction and redistribution of blood may lead to inadequate perfusion to non-vital organs such as the skin, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract.

The inadequate perfusion to vital organs can result in tissue hypoxia, organ dysfunction, and potentially irreversible damage if not promptly addressed.

Management of shock involves addressing the underlying cause, restoring intravascular volume, and ensuring adequate oxygenation and perfusion.

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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes

Answers

The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.

A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy  an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.

When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.

By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and  we can prevent them in future.

A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.

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What are the similarities and differences between heat stroke and heat exhaustion?

Answers

Heat stroke and heat exhaustion are both heat-related illnesses that can occur when the body is unable to regulate its internal temperature in response to high temperatures and/or high humidity. However, there are several key differences between the two conditions.

Similarities:

Both conditions are caused by prolonged exposure to high temperatures and/or high humidity

Both conditions can cause dehydration, weakness, and confusion

Both conditions require prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications

Differences:

Heat exhaustion is generally considered less severe than heat stroke, which is a medical emergency

Heat exhaustion is typically characterized by heavy sweating, pale skin, and a rapid heartbeat, while heat stroke is characterized by a high body temperature (over 104°F or 40°C), hot, dry skin, and a rapid heartbeat

Heat stroke can cause more serious complications such as organ damage, seizures, and even death if not treated promptly

Treatment for heat exhaustion generally involves rest, rehydration, and cooling measures such as moving to a cooler environment and using cold compresses or ice packs, while treatment for heat stroke may require hospitalization and more intensive cooling measures such as intravenous fluids and ice baths.

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Conjugated estrogens tablets (PREMARIN) are available in strengths of 0.3 mg, 0.45 mg, 0.625 mg, 0.9 mg and 1.25 mg. If patient "A" took one tablet daily of the lowest dose and patient ‘‘B’’ took one tablet daily of the highest dose, what is the difference in the total quantities taken between patients ‘‘A’’ and ‘‘B’’ over a period of 30 days (a) 2.85 mg (b) 2850mg (c) 2.85 cg (d) 2.85dg​

Answers

Answer:

(c) 2.85 cg

Explanation:

Patient A:  

- Lowest dose >> 0.3 mg x 30 days = 9 mg

Patient B:  

- Highest dose >> 1.25 mg x 30days  = 37.5 mg

Comparison of dose between patients  = 37.5 mg - 9 mg = 28.5 mg >>>  1 centigram is equivalent to ten (10) milligrams (mg), thereby the correct answer is (c) 2.85 cg

Premarin is a medication that contains conjugated estrogens (hormones). It is commonly used in the USA to treat menopause symptoms like hot flashes and vaginal dryness.

5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?

Answers

Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.

What is learning theories?

Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.

The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.

Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.

Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.

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who interprets the cells as normal or abnormal in a lab test.

Answers

Answer:

In a laboratory test, cells are usually interpreted by a medical professional called a pathologist. Pathologists are specially trained physicians who examine cells, tissues, and organs to diagnose diseases or conditions.

When cells are analyzed in a laboratory, they may be examined under a microscope or through various other laboratory techniques to determine if they are normal or abnormal. The pathologist will review the results of the laboratory tests and use their expertise to interpret the findings.

If abnormal cells are identified, the pathologist may also provide additional information about the characteristics of the abnormal cells and what it may indicate about a person's health. This information is then communicated to the patient's physician, who will work with the patient to develop a treatment plan if necessary.

Explanation:

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?A. diffuse urticariaB. severe hypotensionC. upper airway swellingD. systemic vasodilation

Answers

C. upper airway swelling is the negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the most rapidly fatal if not treated immediately.

Do anaphylaxis' effects last a lifetime?

Anaphylaxis can cause temporary post-traumatic stress disorder or longer-term increased anxiety. It can give somebody the impression that they "no longer know what is safe." This may lead to limiting certain foods or circumstances that are safe but make people anxious. Anaphylactic shock complications might result in death, brain injury, or kidney failure.

What to anticipate following anaphylaxis?

Other symptoms that may develop as anaphylaxis quickly advances to its more serious form, anaphylactic shock, include a feeling of impending disaster. a pounding or quick heart. stomach aches, motion sickness, and nausea.

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Yesterday your nephew was severely injured in a motorcycle accident. The provider believes there is a fracture in the thoracic spine but needs to have a radiological workup to determine the extend of the injury. your brother is very concerned because his son has no sensations or control of his body from the waist down. He has asked you what you think of his condition.

Answers

Answer:

It sounds like paralysis.

Explanation:

I don't think a fracture in the thoracic spine would cause him to not feel anything from the waist down. In fact, he should be feeling pain.

Radiological will reveal what exactly is going on without any unnecessary assumptions. I am leaning towards axial burst or extension fracture.

I am also not a doctor.

The best course of action is to follow the advice of the medical provider and undergo the necessary radiological workup to determine the extent of the injury.

What is the negative impact of the spinal injury?

Spinal injuries can be complex, and only a specialized medical team can provide a proper evaluation and recommend the appropriate treatment options.

During this difficult time, it's essential for your brother and his family to stay in close communication with the medical team, ask any questions they may have, and seek support from healthcare professionals who are experienced in dealing with spinal injuries.

Thus, the best course of action is to follow the advice of the medical provider and undergo the necessary radiological workup to determine the extent of the injury.

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Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?

Answers

Explanation:

Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.

Which of the following athletes is known for his serve? Andy Roddick Rafael Nadal Roger Federer None of the above

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is Andy

Explanation:

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