Andrew was running late for class and could only find a parking space next to the golf course. His new truck was hit by a 0. 300 kg golf ball which left a 0. 400 cm dent in the hood. The golf ball was falling with a velocity of 8. 00 m/s.


a) What is the initial momentum of the golf ball? b) what average force did the hood of the truck exert on the ball to stop it? c) how long did it take for the hood to stop the ball?

Ferromagnetic materials can be magnetized more easily than other materials due to their ability to have their magnetic domains aligned. This property allows for a stronger and more pronounced magnetic effect compared to non-ferromagnetic materials.

Ferromagnetic materials, such as iron, nickel, and cobalt, have a unique property called ferromagnetism, which allows them to exhibit strong magnetic behavior. One of the key factors contributing to this property is the presence of magnetic domains within the material. Magnetic domains are regions within the material where the magnetic moments of individual atoms align in the same direction.

In the absence of an external magnetic field, the magnetic domains in ferromagnetic materials are randomly oriented, resulting in a net magnetic field of zero. However, when an external magnetic field is

applied, the domains can align in the direction of the field, resulting in a magnetized state.

What sets ferromagnetic materials apart from other materials is their ability to have their magnetic domains easily aligned. This means that the material can be magnetized more easily and exhibit a stronger magnetic effect. Once the external magnetic field is removed, the ferromagnetic material retains some degree of magnetization due to the aligned domains.

This characteristic of ferromagnetic materials makes them highly useful in various applications, including electromagnets, transformers, and magnetic storage devices.

Learn more about ferromagnetic materials here:

brainly.com/question/8266319

#SPJ11

Answer:

3) Be durable

Explanation:

It says that ¨ They found the material polycarbonate, which is long-lasting and not too costly.

Answer:

The inner, rocky planets are smaller than the outer, gaseous planets

Explanation:

The relationship between the sizes of the planets and their distances from the Sun is: The smaller planets are closer to the sun while the bigger planets are farther from the sun.

A solar system can be defined as a collection of both the inner and outer planetary bodies alongside the Moon in orbit (travel) around the Sun, in slightly elliptical orbits.  

Basically, the nine (9) planets of the solar system orbiting (traveling) in order of their distance around the Sun are;

Basically, the relationship between the sizes of the planets and their distances from the Sun is that the smaller planets are closer to the sun while the bigger planets are farther from the sun.

Read more: https://brainly.com/question/1251115

The volume of the aluminum ball is 297 cm³.

The volume of an object changes with temperature, according to the law of linear thermal expansion.

The volume of the aluminum ball is calculated as follows;

V = V₀ ( 1 + 3αΔθ )

where;

V = 300 cm³ ( 1 +   3 x 23 x 10⁻⁶ x  (-150 ) )

V = 297 cm³

Learn more about Volume expansion here: https://brainly.com/question/29594873

#SPJ1

The lower mechanical stage knob moves the stage back and forth.

A microscope's mechanical stage is the mechanism that has been mounted there to hold and move the microscope slide.

It is an essential component of the microscope that improves the way the stage works. The specimen can be moved precisely through the field of view—the region of the specimen that can be seen through the microscope—by using this technique.

To get a better and clearer view of the specimen, it is crucial to use the mechanical stage. It significantly eases using the microscope.

In addition to preventing unintentional bumps that could cause the slide to lose focus, it enables better control of the slide.

To know more about mechanical knob visit:

brainly.com/question/17432375

#SPJ4

The velocity after two minutes is v = 616.67 m/s

Using the equation final velocity = beginning velocity + acceleration * time, the final velocity of this bus after two minutes is determined. Symbolically, v is represented as follows: vi = 60 km/h, a = 5 m/s2, and t = 2 minutes. First, we must translate 60 km/h into m/s. 50/3 m/s is equal to 60 km/h or 60,000 m/36 seconds.

When determining the final velocity, v

v = vi + a * t

120 seconds at v = 50/3 m/s + 5 m/s2

v = 50/3 m/s + 600 m/s

v = 16.67 m/s + 600 m/s

v = 616.67 m/s

After two minutes, the bus's speed is 616.67 m/s. For a bus, it is a pretty implausible velocity. The speed of this object is 2,220 km/h, exceeding the speeds of both air and jet aircraft. Your acceleration time should have been capped at 20 seconds or less.

Learn more about velocity here;

https://brainly.com/question/18084516

#SPJ9

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Answer:https://www.ux1.eiu.edu/~cfadd/1150-05/Hmwk/Ch09/Ch09.html

i has the answer that you need i think i could not take a screen shot of it sorry

Explanation:

Answer:

1.83 meters

Explanation:

1 meter = 100 cm

183cm/100cm= 1.83 meters

Answer: 210 cm

Explanation:

Look up Thin Lens Equations Calculator- it helps!

The distance between first airplane and second airplane after 1.8 hours of their departure is 1598.22 meters.

The cosine formula for vector addition is -

|R|² = |A|² + |B|² + 2AB cosφ

Where - φ is the angle between vectors A and B.

Given is two airplanes that leave the airport at same time. The velocity of the first airplane is 690 m/h at a heading of 68.5°. The velocity of the second airplane is 590 m/h at a heading of 156°.

The length of the position vector of first airplane →

|OA| = velocity x time = 690 x 1.8 = 1242 miles.

The length of the position vector of second airplane →

|OB| = velocity x time = 590 x 1.8 = 1062 miles

Angle between vectors OA and OB →

φ = 156° - 68.5° = 87.5°

In the triangle ΔOAB, using the triangle law of vector addition, we get →

OA + AB = OB

AB = OB - OA

AB = OB + (- OA)

Now, using the formula for resultant of addition of two vectors →

AB² = (OB)² + (- OA)² + 2(OA)(- OB) cosφ

AB² = OB² + OA² + - 2(OA)(OB)cosφ

AB² = 11,27,844 + 15,42,564 - 2 x 1242 x 1062 x cos(87.5°)

AB² = 11,27,844 + 15,42,564 - 2 x 1242 x 1062 x 0.044

AB² = 26,70,408 - 1,16,072.352 = 25,54,335.648

AB = √25,54,335.648

AB = 1598.22 meters

Hence, the distance between first airplane and second airplane after 1.8 hours of their departure is 1598.22 meters.

To solve more questions on Geometry of Vectors, visit the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/27804960

#SPJ1

if a charged object touches a neutral object it will be a short circuit.

Answer:

will force atom(electrons) within the escort (conductor) to go (move).

Explanation:

Answer:

Velocity.

Explanation:

It is given that, the officer reports that the suspect is traveling north at 100 miles per hour. It means the suspect covers a distance of 100 miles every hour and moving in North direction.

It shows the velocity of the suspect. This is because his speed and direction are given. Velocity is a vector quantity.

So, the officer has reported the suspect's velocity.

Answer:

μ = 0.692

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, we must make a free body diagram and include the respective forces acting on the body. Similarly, deduce the respective equations according to the conditions of the problem and the directions of the forces.

Attached is an image with the respective forces:

A summation of forces on the Y-axis is performed equal to zero, in order to determine the normal force N. this summation is equal to zero since there is no movement on the Y-axis.

Since the body moves at a constant speed, there is no acceleration so the sum of forces on the X-axis must be equal to zero.

The frictional force is defined as the product of the coefficient of friction by the normal force. In this way, we can calculate the coefficient of friction.

The process of solving this problem can be seen in the attached image.

Large-amplitude troughs and ridges in the midlatitudes can cause extreme weather events such as heatwaves, cold snaps, and storms.

Large-amplitude troughs and ridges in the midlatitudes of the atmosphere can cause significant disturbances in weather patterns. Troughs, which are elongated areas of low pressure, can bring cold air from the north and lead to stormy conditions, while ridges, which are elongated areas of high pressure, can bring warm air from the south and lead to dry conditions.

These large-scale patterns can have a major impact on the climate of a region, causing temperature extremes, heavy precipitation, and other severe weather events.

Learn more about midlatitudes

brainly.com/question/32141613

#SPJ11

2.42 x 10^18 molecules of Fe2O3 will be produced from the given number of molecules of FeS2.

If 9.7 x 10^17 molecules of FeS2 react with sufficient molecules of O2 according to the balanced chemical equation:

4 FeS2 (s) + 11 O2 (g) → 2 Fe2O3 (s) + 8 SO2 (g)

Then, we can use stoichiometry to determine the number of molecules of Fe2O3 produced. From the balanced equation, we know that 4 moles of FeS2 react to form 2 moles of Fe2O3. Therefore, we can use the following calculation:

9.7 x 10^17 molecules FeS2 × (2 moles Fe2O3 / 4 moles FeS2) × (6.022 x 10^23 molecules/mole) = 2.42 x 10^18 molecules of Fe2O3

So, 2.42 x 10^18 molecules of Fe2O3 will be produced from the given number of molecules of FeS2.

Know more about moles here: https://brainly.com/question/20486415

#SPJ4

Answer:

The shape of the graph would be a circle

Explanation:

Because the mirror is concave , which it's inner part will be curved.

Answer:

no work was done.

Explanation:

just because you put effort into something doesn't mean it pays off.

because the displacement was 0, the work is 0 too.

Answer:

Yes it is a physical change

Explanation:

The cookie is still a cookie even when it has been broken apart, so it cannot be a chemical change. The cookie only changed physically.

Answer:

The answer to your problem is, \(3.125 * 10^{19}\) in electrons per second

Explanation:

5A current is passing through the copper wire and the light bulb; it means that 5 Coulombs of charge per second is passing through the wire (as current = coulombs/second). To find the electrons per second, the following formula is used:

Electrons per second =

\(N_{e} = \frac{5}{e} = \frac{5}{1.60-10^{-19} }\)

\(= 3.125 * 10^{19}\)

Thus the answer to your problem is, \(3.125 * 10^{19}\)

The force exerted by the elevator on the man is 0N if a man weight is 800N.

We know very well for an elevator which is rising upward,its acceleration is given by the formula,

Net acceleration=g+a where g is the acceleration due to gravity and a is acceleration of elevator.

We know that g= 9.8m/sec² if we assume downward direction as positive direction, now we have given that value of a=-9.8m/sec².

Net acceleration is = 9.8 + (-9.8)=0m/sec²

Now, we know that according to newton second law of motion -. The acceleration of the body is straightforwardly relative to the net power following up on the body and conversely corresponding to the mass of the body. This really intends that as the power following up on an article is expanded, the speed increase of the item is expanded.

In other words,we have F=ma

where m is the mass of the body and a is the acceleration of the body.

We have a=0

So,F=m×0

=>F=0N

Hence, exerted force is 0N.

To know more about Force, visit here:

https://brainly.com/question/26115859

#SPJ4

The average vector force exerted by the ball on the bat during their interaction is approximately 690.48 Newtons.

To calculate the average vector force exerted by the ball on the bat, we can use Newton's second law of motion, which states that the force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum.

The momentum (p) of an object is defined as the product of its mass (m) and velocity (v). In vector form, momentum is given by

P = M * V

The change in momentum (∆P) during the interaction between the ball and the bat can be calculated by subtracting the initial momentum from the final momentum.

∆P = Pfinal - Pinitial

The average vector force (Favg) exerted by the ball on the bat during the interaction is given by

Favg = ∆P / ∆T

Where ∆t is the time duration of the interaction.

First, let's calculate the initial momentum (Pinitial) of the ball:

Pinitial = M * Vinitial

Where M is the mass of the ball and Vinitial is its initial velocity.

Given:

Mass of the ball (M) = 145 g = 0.145 kg

Initial velocity (Vinitial) = 41.0 m/s

Pinitial = (0.145 kg) * (41.0 m/s)

Pinitial = 5.945 kg·m/s

Next, let's calculate the final momentum (Pfinal) of the ball:

Pfinal = m * Vfinal

Where Vfinal is the final velocity of the ball after being hit.

Given:

Final velocity (Vfinal) = 51.0 m/s

Pfinal = (0.145 kg) * (51.0 m/s)

Pfinal = 7.395 kg·m/s

Now, we can calculate the change in momentum (∆P):

∆P = Pfinal - Pinitial

∆P = 7.395 kg·m/s - 5.945 kg·m/s

∆P = 1.45 kg·m/s

Next, we need to convert the time duration of the interaction (∆t) from milliseconds to seconds:

∆T = 2.10 ms = 2.10 × 1\(0^{-3}\)  s

Finally, we can calculate the average vector force (Favg):

Favg = ∆P / ∆T

Favg = (1.45 kg·m/s) / (2.10 × 1\(0^{-3}\) s)

Favg = 690.48 N

Therefore, the average vector force exerted by the ball on the bat during their interaction is approximately 690.48 Newtons.

To know more about average vector force here

https://brainly.com/question/29766766

#SPJ4

Answer: 3.3 x 10^-28 J

Explanation: just answered on a quiz!! :)

Answer:

540m/s

Explanation:

v= u + at

u change t to seconds

Answer:

Beryllium chloride

Explanation:

I hope this helps!

Can I get branliest?!

Answer:

25 m

this is the ans

thanks

When a 5.00 m-long ladder, with all weighing of 200 n, rests among a smooth vertical type of wall, then the ladder, will be measured among the the height = 0.488 m.

If θ be the angle ladder makes with the plane

cos θ = 1.2 / 5

Tan θ = 4.04

Let the height a person of weight 600 N  can climb be h from the ground .

Distance from the base point  where ladder touches the floor  = h / tanθ

= h / 4.04

Total reaction force = total downward force

R = 200 + 600

800 N

Frictional force = μ R

= .2 x 800

= 160 N

Taking moment of force about the point on the ladder  where it  touches the floor  and balancing them

= 200 x 1.2 x .5 + 600 x   h / tanθ  = μ R x  1.2 / tanθ ( reaction  at the top point of ladder where it touches the wall is  R₁ and R₁ =μ R   )

= 200 x 1.2 x .5 + 600 x   h / tanθ  = 160 x 1.2 / tanθ

120  - 600 h / 4.04 = 47.52

120 - 47.52 = 600 h / 4.04

72.48= 148.51 h

h = 0.488  m  

To learn more about friction, refer: brainly.com/question/24338873

#SPJ4