An otherwise healthy 65-year-old woman is taken to the ED with probable stroke. Which of the following are the most urgent diagnostic studies?
A
Coagulation studies
B
ECG and cardiac enzymes
C
Bedside blood glucose and CT scan of the head
D
MRI of the head with and without contrast
The correct answer is C.

Answers

Answer 1

the most urgent diagnostic studies include a bedside blood glucose test and a CT scan of the head.

The bedside blood glucose test is necessary to rule out hypoglycemia, which can present with symptoms similar to stroke. The CT scan of the head is essential to determine if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, as the management differs for each type. It helps identify any bleeding in the brain and assess the extent of the damage. Coagulation studies, ECG and cardiac enzymes, and MRI of the head are important diagnostic studies in specific situations but may not be the most urgent in this case.

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Related Questions

With which old testament character is saint catherine's monastery at mt. sinai associated?

Answers

Saint Catherine’s Monastery at Mt. Sinai is associated with the Old Testament character, Moses. Saint Catherine of Alexandria was a fourth-century martyr. She was a learned woman who openly defended Christianity.

Emperor Maxentius ordered Catherine to be tortured and executed for her beliefs, but she continued to hold fast.

She was later buried in Sinai in the same place where the monastery was built later, and she became the monastery's patron saint.

The Monastery of St. Catherine's in the Sinai Peninsula The Monastery of Saint Catherine was built in the 6th century A.D. by Emperor Justinian I.

It is located at the base of Mount Sinai, which is where Moses is said to have received the Ten Commandments from God.

The monastery's library houses a large number of ancient manuscripts and the oldest surviving copy of the Christian Bible, which is the Codex Sinaiticus.

The monastery is a center of Christian pilgrimage, attracting visitors from all over the world.

It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site that is open to tourists.

The Monastery of Saint Catherine, which is one of the oldest working Christian monasteries in the world, has a unique location, architecture, and cultural heritage and is, therefore, considered to be one of the most important sites in the history of Christianity.

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Help me please !!!!!

Help me please !!!!!

Answers

Answer:

( 1)250 mg every 6 hours, or 500 mg every 12 hours.

a client with an esophageal stricture is about to undergo esophageal dilatation. as the bougies are passed down the esophagus, the nurse should instruct the client to do which action to minimize the vomiting urge?

Answers

Take long, slow breaths action to minimize the vomiting urge.

What about vomiting urge?

The symptoms of many various ailments, including infection ("stomach flu"), food poisoning, motion sickness, overeating, obstructed intestines, illness, concussion or brain injury, appendicitis, and migraines, can cause nausea and vomiting.A person experiencing nausea feels as though they could vomit. Other warning indications of impending vomiting include the need to shift or lean over, gagging, retching, coughing, and involuntary stomach reflexes. The mouth is also filled with saliva to shield the teeth from stomach acid.Vomiting is the body's method of removing dangerous items from the stomach, yet it can also be a reaction to something that has irritated the digestive tract. Gastroenteritis is one of the most often occurring reasons for vomiting in adults.Throwing up is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents known as vomiting. It can be a one-time occurrence connected to something that upsets the stomach. Underlying medical issues may be the cause of recurrent vomiting.

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susan, a coding manager, has done an assessment of her him skills and she realizes that she needs to learn some new ways to interpret all the productivity and quality statistics that the inpatient coding area is generation. susan needs to enhance her skills.

Answers

Susan, accounting manager, has done an assessment of her HIM skills and she realizes that she needs to learn some new ways to interpret all the productivity and quality statistics that the inpatient coding area is general reading. Susan needs to enhance her data analysis skills.

She needs to improve her ability to evaluate and analyze data. She is in charge of comprehending and evaluating productivity and quality information connected to inpatient coding as an accounting manager in the healthcare sector. This calls for the capacity to examine huge amounts of data, spot trends and patterns, and derive valuable insights from the data.

By enhancing her data analysis skills, Susan will be able to effectively interpret the statistics and make informed decisions based on the findings. This may involve using statistical techniques, data visualization tools, and critical thinking to extract valuable insights from the data. Additionally, improving her interpretation skills will allow her to communicate the findings to other stakeholders in a clear and meaningful way.

Overall, enhancing her data analysis and interpretation skills will enable Susan to make better-informed decisions, identify areas for improvement, and contribute to the overall efficiency and quality of the inpatient coding area.

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Complete question :  

Susan, accounting manager, has done an assessment of her HIM skills and she realizes that she needs to learn some new ways to interpret all the productivity and quality statistics that the inpatient coding area is general reading. Susan needs to enhance her _____________ skills.

HURRY
Which trait gained during childhood will help a young adult succeed?
A child’s increase in fine motor skills will allow for lasting friendships in adulthood.
A child’s sense of right and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
A child’s increase in gross motor skill will allow for vision acuity in adulthood.
A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.

Answers

Answer: B

A child's sence of rights and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.

Answer:

the last one A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.

Explanation:

Cause and effect if a child is lease dependent on their parents, that will allow for more things without their parents like money.

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. Which of the following action should the nurse take?
Perform a vaginal exam to determine cervical dilation every 2 hr. Instruct the client to ambulate in the hallway once every 4 hr.
Administer betamethasone to the client via IM injection. Initiate continuous external fetal monitoring

Answers

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The administration of betamethasone helps to mature the baby's lungs, which can be beneficial if preterm birth is necessary due to placenta previa complications.

The nurse should initiate continuous external fetal monitoring for the client with placenta previa at 35 weeks of gestation. This is important to assess fetal well-being and monitor for any signs of distress. Performing a vaginal exam every 2 hours could cause further damage to the placenta and increase the risk of bleeding. Instructing the client to ambulate in the hallway once every 4 hours may also increase the risk of bleeding in a client with placenta previa. Administering betamethasone via IM injection may be indicated if preterm delivery is anticipated, but this decision should be made by the healthcare provider.


If a nurse is caring for a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer betamethasone to the client via IM injection and initiate continuous external fetal monitoring.
Performing a vaginal exam to determine cervical dilation every 2 hours or instructing the client to ambulate in the hallway once every 4 hours are not recommended actions, as they can increase the risk of bleeding in a patient with placenta previa.
The administration of betamethasone helps to mature the baby's lungs, which can be beneficial if preterm birth is necessary due to placenta previa complications. Continuous external fetal monitoring is important to monitor the well-being of the baby and identify any signs of fetal distress.

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Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.

-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.

-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.

A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.

-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.

-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.

-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.

-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.

-
Middle layer of the meninges.

-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body

Answers

A would be your answer hope this helped

The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

What is the blood brain barrier?

This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.

Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

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True or false? HIV-1 occurs primarily in Africa.
True or false? HIV-2 occurs globally.

Answers

The first statement HIV-1 occurs primarily in Africa is true while the second HIV-2 occurs globally is false

HIV-1 occurs primarily in Africa.

HIV-1, the most common and widespread strain of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), is indeed primarily found in Africa. This region has been heavily affected by the HIV epidemic for several decades, with a significant number of HIV infections and AIDS-related deaths occurring there. Factors such as a high prevalence of other sexually transmitted infections, limited access to healthcare, cultural practices, and social inequalities have contributed to the spread of HIV-1 in Africa. However, it is important to note that HIV-1 is not exclusive to Africa and can be found in other parts of the world as well, albeit at lower prevalence rates.

HIV-2 does not occur globally.

Unlike HIV-1, HIV-2 is primarily found in West Africa and certain parts of Central Africa. HIV-2 is less common and less virulent compared to HIV-1, and its global distribution is much more limited. The majority of HIV-2 infections are concentrated in these specific regions, although cases have been reported in other parts of the world due to migration and travel. However, the prevalence of HIV-2 outside of Africa remains relatively low, making it inaccurate to claim that HIV-2 occurs globally.

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Type your one-page report here. Be sure to answer all of the following questions:

Name of the mental disorder and medication available and commonly used to treat it.
What effects does the medication have on correcting the disorder?
How does it help a person function normally?
What are the benefits of taking this medication?
How does the medication change behavior?
What are the disadvantages of taking this medication? Are there any side effects?
Why do you personally think people resist taking mental disorder medication?

Answers

Answer: Antidepressants. Antidepressants are used to treat depression, anxiety and sometimes other conditions. ...

Anti-anxiety medications. These drugs are used to treat anxiety disorders, such as generalized anxiety disorder or panic disorder. ...

Mood-stabilizing medications. ...

Antipsychotic medications.

Explanation:

3 Explique como se pode fazer a determinação indirecta do sulfato presente numa amostra usando a Espectrofotometria de Absorção Atómica. Descreva as equações envolvidas neste processo e explique a sua relacção com a intensidade do sinal medido.

Answers

Answer:

what ok then

Explanation:

what ok then

which time period would the nurse choose to prepare a preschooler for a surgical procedure before the actual surgery

Answers

The nurse starts preparing your preschool-aged child three days before the surgery procedure.

What is the procedure before surgery?

Stop drinking and eating for a definite period before the time of surgery. The nurse bath or cleans, and possibly shaves the area to be utilized on. Doing various blood tests, X-rays, electrocardiograms, or other policies necessary for surgery.

The nurse does usual tests that your surgeon may ask you to have if you have not had them recently are blood tests such as an absolute blood count (CBC) and kidney, liver, and blood sugar tests. Chest x-ray to check your lungs. ECG (electrocardiogram) is to examine your heart.

So we can conclude that when the surgery is complete, the anesthesiologist back the medications to wake you up.

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the state public health nurse would like to gather info on general predictive risk factors r/t stroke. the nurse has identified the US Adults: National Health Interview Survey sponsored by the CDC as a good place to being the search. why would the nurse choose this type of assessment tool?

Answers

The correct option is D) In this survey, data are analyzed to identify mortality risks for a population

Measures of a community's health condition include life expectancy, birth and death rates, access to care, and rates of morbidity and mortality from disease and injury. After the general assessment is finished, the nurse will determine the patient's height, weight, and vital signs.  Four main categories of observation make up the general survey: patient behavior, mobility, mental state, and outward appearance. The exposure route of a hazardous substance is crucial when deciding how to respond in an emergency. The method by which a person can come into touch with a dangerous substance is referred to as an exposure pathway.

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Full Question ;

The state public health nurse would like to gather information on general predictive risk factors r/t stroke. The nurse has identified the US Adults: National Health Interview Survey sponsored by the CDC as a good place to begin the search. Why would the nurse choose this type of assessment tool?

a) this assessment identifies problems specific to a subset of individuals

b) data are analyzed to identify risk to select populations and groups

c) these surveys are completed every 2-3 years, so information is current

d) in this survey, data are analyzed to identify mortality risks for a population

What is diagnosis for patient with asymptomatic irregular flat patches on dorsum of the tongue with red centers and an irregular white periphery?

Answers

Answer:

geographic tongue (erythema migrans)

Explanation:

I hope this helps! If it does could you please mark me brainliest.

The national institute on alcohol abuse and alcoholism reports that ____percent of college students report academic consequences from drinking including missing class, falling behind in class, and doing poorly in class O 23O 25O 22O 26

Answers

Answer:

not sure ask ater

Explanation:

3. What advice would you give to a friend with tennis elbow about how she should
lift a frying pan onto the stove?

Answers

Answer:

She should lift the pan with her palm facing up (underhand grip). This will use the flexor muscles. Injured tendons (as in tennis elbow) are best healed with rest.

Explanation:

chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease, are linked to

Answers

Chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease, are linked to a variety of lifestyle and environmental factors. Some of the most common risk factors include:

Unhealthy diet: A diet high in saturated and trans fats, cholesterol, salt, and added sugars can increase the risk of heart disease.

Lack of physical activity: Physical inactivity and sedentary behavior are major risk factors for cardiovascular disease.

What are Chronic diseases?

They also includes:

Smoking: Smoking or exposure to secondhand smoke can cause damage to the heart and blood vessels, increasing the risk of heart disease.

High blood pressure: High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, can put extra strain on the heart and blood vessels, increasing the risk of heart disease.

Lastly, Genetics and family history of heart disease: Some people may have a higher risk of developing heart disease because of their family history or genetics.

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QUESTION 16
Stanley Milgram's famous research (The fake electric shock experiment) investigated:
Obedience to an authority figure
O Bystander apathy
O The effects of watching violence on TV
O Prejudice

Answers

Watching tv violence might be the answer

Identify a true statement about the initial experiments carried out in the 1960s on self-administration of morphine on monkeys.

Answers

True statement: The monkeys were allowed to experience the initial stages of withdrawal in the initial experiments

The "self-administration" behavioral paradigm represents the human illness of addiction using an animal behavioral model. Animal test participants are operant-conditioned to carry out a single action during the task—typically, pressing a lever—in exchange for a medication.

Drug self-administration techniques give researchers a way to investigate addiction in the lab under carefully controlled circumstances. In these techniques, a human volunteer or animal subject makes a response—such as pulling a lever—that causes a dose of a drug—such as cocaine or heroin—to be administered.

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The following question may be like this:

Identify a true statement about the initial experiments carried out in the 1960s on self-administration of morphine on monkeys.

Multiple choice question.

The monkeys were allowed to experience the initial stages of withdrawal in the initial experiments.These experiments were based on the predominant view that drug use is driven by behavioral dependence.The monkeys were directly attached to the morphine-releasing apparatus without a controlling equipment.These experiments concluded that drug use is driven by a combination of acute and chronic toxicity of the drug.

Ventilation/Perfusion mismatch (V/Q). Explain what this is about and list two issues/conditions that affect the ventilation side and two for the perfusion side.

Answers

Answer:

Ventilation perfusion mismatch or "V/Q defects" are defects in total lung ventilation perfusion ratio. It is a condition in which one or more areas of the lung receive oxygen but no blood flow, or they receive blood flow but no oxygen due to some diseases and disorders.

Explanation:

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What are the differences between otitis externa and otitis media?

Answers

The inflammation is usually due to an infection. Otitis externa means that the inflammation is confined to the external part of the ear canal and does not go further than the eardrum. See separate leaflet called Ear Infection (Otitis Media), for an infection of the middle ear.
Otitis externa is an inflammation of the ear canal. The inflammation is usually caused by infection, although it can sometimes be due to allergy or irritation. Treatment with ear drops is usually effective. Further episodes of the condition can often be prevented by the tips given below.

Otitis externa usually clears within a week or so. When otitis externa is short-lasting, it is described as 'acute otitis externa'. However, sometimes it persists for three months or more and is then described as 'chronic otitis externa'.

Otitis means inflammation of the ear. The inflammation is usually due to an infection. Otitis externa means that the inflammation is confined to the external part of the ear canal and does not go further than the eardrum.

Otitis externa is an infection of the skin of the ear canal and is very common. The ear canal is a narrow, warm, blind-ended tunnel, which makes it a good protected environment for germs to grow in if they are given a chance. Most infections are caused by a germ (bacterium). Occasionally, they can be due to a fungal or yeast infection.

Some things can make you more prone to otitis externa - for example:

Substances entering the ear
If you regularly get water in an ear then this may provide moisture for germs to grow. It may also cause itching. You may then scratch or poke the ear. This can damage the skin in the ear canal and cause inflammation. Inflamed skin can quickly become infected. A vicious circle may then develop. The inflammation and infection cause more itch, you then scratch more, which then can makes things worse.

If you get shampoo, hairspray or other products into your ear this may have the same effect and may be worse, as the chemicals may additionally irritate the sensitive skin of the canal.

Swimming
Otitis externa is much more common in regular swimmers, due to water getting into the ear canal. In fact, otitis externa is sometimes called swimmer's ear. It is more likely if you are swimming in water which isn't clean, such as ponds.

Warm weather
Otitis externa is more likely to develop in hot, humid and 'sweaty' weather. It is more common in hot countries.

Skin problems
Eczema or psoriasis may affect the ear canal and make the skin inflamed and flaky. If this happens then otitis externa is more likely.

Excessive earwax
This can lead to trapping of water and debris in the ear canal. Bugs (bacteria) can thrive in these conditions and infection then occurs easily.

Ear syringing to clear earwax
This may irritate the delicate lining of the ear canal and cause inflammation. Earwax is protective of the ear canal, and if too little is left it is easier for infection to take hold.

Middle ear infections
Sometimes middle ear infections (otitis media) can produce persisting discharge which can become stuck in the ear canal and then cause otitis externa.

The only difference between these three 'types' of otitis externa is the length of time for which you have had the condition.

Acute otitis externa - this term means you have had the condition for less than three months. Usually, in fact, you will only have it for a week or so.

Recurrent otitis externa - this term means the condition keeps coming back. You have episodes that get better (or seem to get better) but then you develop the same symptoms again.

Chronic otitis externa - this term means the condition has lasted (persisted) for more than three months. Sometimes it can last for years. This is often because, even though you have had treatment, the underlying reasons for it are still there.

Most people with otitis externa are given treatment without having any tests, as the diagnosis is usually clear from examination of the ear. If you recognise the condition yourself you could try some ear drops for otitis externa. These are available without prescription, such as those containing 2% acetic acid.

Ear drops are usually enough to cure a bout of short-lasting (acute) otitis externa. However, other treatments are sometimes added. This is more likely to be necessary if you notice any of the following:

Your ears are particularly painful or swollen.
Your ears are completely blocked (so that the drops can't penetrate properly).
Your otitis externa keeps coming back or has become persistent (chronic).
It is also very important that you take steps to help things settle down, as if the conditions that caused the otitis externa in the first place are unchanged, it may well come back.

The inflammation is usually due to an infection. Otitis externa means that the inflammation is confined to the external part of the ear canal and does not go further than the eardrum. See separate leaflet called Ear Infection (Otitis Media), for an infection of the middle ear

a final diagnosis for a patient in the er is copd with acute bronchitis due to echovirus. how is this diagnosis coded?

Answers

The final diagnosis for a patient in the emergency room with COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) with acute bronchitis due to echovirus would be coded using the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) system. The codes used would depend on the specific version of the ICD in use.

For example, in ICD-10, the diagnosis of COPD would be coded as J44.0 (Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with acute exacerbation), while acute bronchitis due to echovirus would be coded as J20.8 (Acute bronchitis due to other specified organisms). The specific echovirus causing the acute bronchitis would not be coded as there is not a specific code for it in ICD-10.

It is important to note that coding for medical diagnoses is complex and requires a thorough understanding of the ICD system and any relevant coding guidelines. Health care providers and coders must take care to accurately and consistently code diagnoses to ensure that the patient's medical record accurately reflects their conditions and to ensure that appropriate reimbursement is received.

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A diet consisting of only meat and potatoes would be considered
Adequate
Fair and Balanced
Inadequate
Substantial

Answers

A diet consisting of only meat and potatoes would be considered inadequate.

This is because a balanced diet is one that contains a variety of food groups in the appropriate proportions to meet the body's nutrient needs. Meat and potatoes are both high in certain nutrients, but they do not provide a balanced variety of essential nutrients for optimal health.

Meat is a rich source of protein, vitamin B12, and iron. However, it is also high in saturated fat and cholesterol. Consuming too much saturated fat can increase the risk of heart disease, while a diet high in cholesterol can raise blood cholesterol levels. In contrast, potatoes are high in carbohydrates and provide some vitamins and minerals, such as vitamin C and potassium. But they do not provide protein, vitamin B12, or iron.

A balanced diet should include a variety of foods from all the food groups, including fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean protein sources, and low-fat dairy. This provides the body with a range of essential nutrients, such as vitamins, minerals, fiber, and antioxidants. A diet that consists of only meat and potatoes would be deficient in several essential nutrients, including fiber, vitamin A, vitamin C, folate, and calcium.

In conclusion, a diet consisting of only meat and potatoes would be considered inadequate as it does not provide a balanced variety of essential nutrients for optimal health. It is essential to consume a variety of foods from all the food groups to meet the body's nutrient needs and maintain good health.

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Which of the following body reactions is characteristic of the stress response? Pupils constrict Blood pressure increases Body temperature drops Heart rate decreases

Answers

Answer:

obviously blood pressure increases.

The body's reactions are characteristic of the stress response as Blood pressure increases. Thus the correct option is B.

What are the Characteristics?

Characteristics refer to any feature or trait of any object which provides any information about the concept. These are unique in nature and makes difference from one another.

The body's system for responding to emergencies is the stress response. The stress response involves both physical and mental reactions to the events you experience.

Once you meet a danger that you believe you lack the capacity to support, you experience stress, which is a bodily and psychological reaction. Examples of it include increased breathing and heart rate, elevated blood pressure, sweating, or chills.

Therefore, option B is appropriate.

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a 71-year-old woman with a longstanding diagnosis of emphysema developed community-acquired pneumonia 3 weeks ago and was admitted to the hospital for treatment. a combination of respiratory therapy and iv antibiotics has resolved the woman's infection and she is now preparing to return to the home she shares with her husband. what phase in the trajectory model of chronic illness is this patient currently experiencing?

Answers

This patient is currently in the phase of the trajectory model for chronic illness known as "comeback," which stands for "recovery after acute episode."

What are chronic illnesses?

Generally speaking, chronic diseases are problems that last for a year or longer, necessitate continuous medical care, restrict everyday activities, or both. In the US, the most common causes of death or disability are chronic illnesses like diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.

Is it possible to heal a chronic disease?

Chronic diseases are debilitating ailments that can typically be managed but not cured. People with chronic illnesses frequently have to deal with daily symptoms that reduce their quality of life and encounter acute health issues or complications that can reduce their life expectancy.

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Difference between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke.

Answers

An ischemic stroke occurs when a blood vessel supplying the brain becomes blocked, as by a clot. A hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood vessel bursts, leaking blood into the brain.

A nurse is teaching a client about tricyclic antidepressants. The nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the client states________

Answers

The nurse determines that the teaching the client about the tricyclic antidepressants has been effective when the client states that is why he is having constipation.

Tricyclic antidepressants are also called as cyclic antidepressants. These are among the earliest antidepressants developed. These are effective but  generally been replaced by antidepressants that cause fewer side effects. Cyclic antidepressants are designated as tricyclic or tetracyclic depending upon the number of rings in their chemical structure. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved these tricyclic antidepressants to treat depression are amitriptyline, amoxapine, Doxepin, Imipramine, Nortriptyline, Protriptyline, Trimipramine. Some  side effects included are drowsiness, blurred vision, constipation, dry mouth, drop in blood pressure when moving from sitting to standing, which can cause lightheadedness, urine retention.

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its a song...........

its a song...........

Answers

Explanation:

correct me if I'm wrong but isn't that falling down by lil peep and xxxtentacion

Falling down by lil peep and Xxxtentacion released in September 19 2018 and recorded in 2017

Randy has a preexisting condition for which coverage has been excluded since his Medicare Supplement Policy became effective 4 months ago. If Randy were to replace his Medicare Supplement Policy, what could be said about the preexisting condition under the new policy

Answers

Answer:He could tell them about it and see what kind of help he gets

Explanation:

The diversity of both students and faculty poses important considerations for teaching and learning. Reflect on the characteristic differences in gender, race, and culture, as well as the differences among the diverse generations in today’s nursing education classroom. When considering your personal philosophy of teaching, discuss how you might use these characteristic differences and diverse backgrounds and experiences of today’s nursing students as a teaching tool to connect students to nursing content and increase their understanding. In other words, how might you incorporate the background and experiences of your students into your teaching methods to enhance the ability of all students in your classroom to think critically and problem solve patient-care issues?

Answers

Answer:

As of 2016, the ethnic breakdown of the United States was 61.3 percent white (non-Hispanic/Latino), 17.8 percent Hispanic/Latinx, 13.3 percent black/African-American, 5.7 percent Asian, 1.3 percent Native American/Alaskan Native, and 2.6 percent reporting two or more races. In the same year, about 70 percent of all nurses were white — significantly more than the general population. African-American and Latinx populations in particular were underrepresented as a proportion of the nursing profession. The contrast was even more stark when considering nursing educators. In 19 states, the percentage of minority nursing students was at least double that of minority faculty.

This disparity can be a barrier to effective nursing education. Studies by respected organizations, such as the Sullivan Commission on Diversity in the Healthcare Workforce, show that educational outcomes improve when nurse educators reflect, value, and celebrate the diverse attributes of the student groups they teach. On the other hand, educational outcomes suffer when nurse educators fail to do these things. Diversity within an organization’s teaching staff is therefore a helpful tool for attracting, retaining, and training enthusiastic and skilled nursing students.

a 3-year old child arrives for an outpatient venipuncture clutching a very dirty doll. As you introduce yourseld, they hold it even tighter. Which of the following actions should you take?

Answers

Answer:

Try to get them to talk using gentle words.

Offer to wash the doll for him/her.

Try and find the child's parents.

A 3-year-old child arrives for an outpatient venipuncture clutching a very dirty doll. The appropriate action to take in this situation is: Allow the child to keep the doll. (Option 3)

Children, especially at a young age, often form strong attachments to comfort objects like stuffed animals, blankets, or toys. These objects provide them with a sense of security and familiarity, particularly in unfamiliar or potentially anxiety-inducing situations, such as a medical procedure like a venipuncture.

By allowing the child to keep the dirty doll with them during the procedure, you are showing understanding and empathy for their emotional needs. This can help create a more comfortable and cooperative environment for the child, making the procedure less stressful. It demonstrates that you are considering the child's emotional well-being alongside the medical procedure.

While maintaining a sterile and clean environment is important in a medical setting, it is equally important to prioritize the emotional needs of the child, especially when their comfort object can provide them with a sense of security during a potentially frightening experience. In this case, allowing the child to keep the doll is a compassionate and child-centered approach that can lead to a more successful and positive experience for both the child and the medical staff.

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The complete question is:

A 3-year-old child arrives for an outpatient venipuncture clutching a very dirty doll. As you introduce yourself, they hold it even tighter. Which of the following actions should you take?

Tell the child's guardian to take the doll.

Gently ask the child to put the doll down.

Allow the child to keep the doll.

Spray the doll with an antimicrobial spray.

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