Almost any compound can be toxic in high doses true or false

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

true

Explanation: just bc

Answer 2
almost any compound CAN be toxic in high doses

Related Questions

In what category of drug are amphetamines?
O Narcotics
O Depressants
O Stimulants
O Hallucinogens

Answers

amphetamines are stimulant drugs.

the answer is the 3rd one / C

Explanation:

Amphetamines are stimulant drugs

give me BRAINLIEST pls

which of the following is the least preferable way to refuse when someone offers you drugs at a patty?

Answers

Answer:

B."What? Drugs are illegal and you know it. If you ask me to try it again, I'll call the police."

Explanation:

Umm b/c u sound like a snitch if u say dis

It has been found that the use of medical abbreviations can be a source of confusion that presents a major risk in clinical practice. If this is true, then why do you think that medical abbreviations are still commonly used in healthcare settings? Do you think the benefits outweigh the costs of using them? Do you think there is more that can be done to increase the safety of using medical abbreviations? Please discuss.

Answers

It is true that the use of medical abbreviations can be a source of confusion and poses a major risk in clinical practice.

Despite this, medical abbreviations continue to be commonly used in healthcare settings for several reasons.

One reason for the continued use of medical abbreviations is convenience and efficiency. Healthcare professionals often need to document patient information quickly and accurately, and abbreviations can help save time and space in medical records, prescriptions, and other clinical documents.

Another reason is that medical abbreviations have become deeply ingrained in medical education and training. Healthcare professionals are exposed to a wide array of abbreviations during their education and throughout their careers. This familiarity can make it challenging to break the habit of using abbreviations, even though they may present a risk.

However, the risks associated with medical abbreviations are significant and include medication errors, misinterpretation of information, and potential harm to patients. The use of abbreviations can lead to confusion, especially when different healthcare professionals interpret them differently or when abbreviations have multiple meanings.

The benefits of using medical abbreviations must be carefully weighed against these risks. While they may save time and space, the potential harm caused by miscommunication or misunderstanding can far outweigh these benefits.

To increase the safety of using medical abbreviations, several strategies can be implemented. One approach is to promote standardized and approved abbreviations within healthcare organizations. This can help reduce the variability and ambiguity associated with different abbreviations.

Additionally, healthcare organizations can implement education and training programs to raise awareness about the risks of medical abbreviations and encourage healthcare professionals to use them judiciously. Emphasizing clear communication, including the use of unambiguous language and avoiding abbreviations whenever possible, can also help reduce errors.

Technology can play a significant role in increasing the safety of using medical abbreviations. Computerized physician order entry (CPOE) systems can include decision support tools that flag potentially problematic abbreviations or provide alternatives, reducing the risk of errors.

In summary, while medical abbreviations continue to be commonly used in healthcare settings for convenience and efficiency, the risks associated with their use are significant. The benefits of using abbreviations must be carefully balanced against the potential harm they can cause. To increase patient safety, promoting standardized abbreviations, education and training, clear communication practices, and leveraging technology can all contribute to reducing the risks associated with medical abbreviations.

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When reading and analyzing a research study, what is the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome?​


The sample was large with no exclusion criteria
Threats to validity suggest alternate causes of the outcome
Randomization controlled researcher bias
The literature review included ten relevant, current articles

Answers

When reading and analyzing a research study,  the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is the randomization controlled researcher bias and is denoted as option C.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery of the patient is achieved.

In a research, random selections are done so as to prevent any bias from being present. However, not all randomization are unbiased especially in a research which is used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment.

The nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is randomization controlled researcher bias because it questions the effectiveness which is therefore the reason why option C was chosen.

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health records management

Answers

Health records management refers to the process of collecting, organizing, and maintaining healthcare-related information for patients.

What is Health records management?

Health records management is important for several reasons, including:

Providing a comprehensive view of a patient's health history, which can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about diagnosis and treatment.

Ensuring accuracy and completeness of patient information, which is critical for effective healthcare delivery and patient safety.

Supporting communication and collaboration among healthcare providers, which can improve care coordination and patient outcomes.

Meeting legal and regulatory requirements for maintaining patient records, including privacy and security standards.

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A practitioner order is written for a continuous infusion of insulin at 3 units/hr; the premixed solution is composed of 100 units of regular U-100 insulin in 100 mL normal saline. At which rate (mL/hr) should the infusion run?

Answers

Answer:

3ml/hr

Explanation:

Number of units = 3units

Units per milliter = 100 ml

Number of mililiters in an hour = "X"

Hence, Given that 100 ml of solution have 100 units, each ml has 1unit, (100/100)

Therefore, in order to get 3 units in one hour the equation would be

number of units = units per mililiter * number of mililiters in an hour

3 = 1 * X

X = 3 / 1 = 3ml/hr

Therefore, the final answer is 3ml/hr.

Insulin is the harmone that regulate the blood glucose level.  The rate of infusion of insulin should 3 ml/hr.

Given here,

Number of units = 3 units

Milliliter per Units  = 100 ml

Number of mililiters in an hour = \(x\) = ?

So, 100 ml of solution have 100 units, it means each ml has 1 unit of Insulin.

To get 3 units per hour,

\(\rm number\ of\ units = units/ mL\times mL/ hr\)

Put the values,

\(3 = 1 \times x\\\\x= \dfrac 3 1 \\\\x = 3\rm \ ml/hr\)

Therefore, the rate of infusion of insulin should 3 ml/hr.

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using the cpt code book, assign code(s) for the following scenario: Dr. Smith admits Ralph to a nursing home. He performs a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination and medical decision making of high complexity. Code for the initial visit for admission of a patient to a nursing home. List the CPT code verified in the Tabular List.

Answers

Answer:

CPT Code 99306

Explanation:

Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph with a high medical decision making complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.

What is CPT code?

CPT code is an abbreviation for current procedural terminology code and it can be defined as the set of numbers that are formally assigned to each task and service that is being offered by a healthcare provider.

Basically, a current procedural terminology (CPT) code is typically used by an insurer to determine the amount of money that should be paid to a healthcare provider for the services rendered.

Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph, and the medical decision making is of high complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.

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Question 50
The major concern related to ultraviolet radiation within humans is with:
a. Liver cancer
b. Cataracts
c. Skin cancer
d. Reproductive organ cancer

Answers

The major concern related to ultraviolet radiation within humans is with skin cancer. UV radiation is a known carcinogen that damages DNA and can lead to skin cancer.

Skin cancer is one of the most common types of cancer in humans, and prolonged exposure to UV radiation, especially from the sun, increases the risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma. While UV radiation exposure may be associated with other health concerns, such as cataracts, skin cancer is the primary concern. Liver cancer and reproductive organ cancer are generally not associated with UV radiation exposure.

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Brent has been in a coma for three weeks. A doctor wanted to try a new drug to try and bring him out of the coma.
When Brent was given the drugs, he woke up front his coma. Which best describes what happened to Brent?

He experienced a positive incident.

He experienced a negative incident.

He experienced a positive accident.

He experienced a negative accident.

Answers

A, He experienced a positive incident.

What are the symptoms of thyroid problems in females.

Answers

Answer:

Fatigue

Increased sensitivity to cold

Constipation

Dry Skin

Weight gain

Puffy face

Hoarseness

Muscle weakness

Problems with metabolism
Headaches
Frequent tiredness
Hoarse voice

In normal healthy adult, Calculate the Gain of control system of cold temperature if A cold exposure is expected to bring the body temperature down to 20°C but brings it down only to 36.5°C?

Answers

Answer:

Increased intraluminal pressure may help maintain vasodilation in a dependent arm even after hypothermia triggers centrally mediated thermoregulatory vasoconstriction. We therefore tested the hypotheses that the threshold (triggering core temperature) and gain (increase in vasoconstriction per degree centigrade) of cold-induced vasoconstriction is reduced in the dependent arm during anesthesia. Anesthesia was maintained with 0.4 minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration of desflurane in 10 volunteers in the left-lateral position. Mean skin temperature was reduced to 31 degrees C to decrease core body temperature. Fingertip blood flow in both arms was measured, as was core body temperature. The vasoconstriction threshold was slightly, but significantly, less in the dependent arm (36.2 degrees C +/- 0.3 degrees C, mean +/- SD) than in the upper arm (36.5 degrees C +/- 0.3 degrees C). However, the gain of vasoconstriction in the dependent arm was 2.3-fold greater than in the upper arm. Consequently, intense vasoconstriction (i.e., a fingertip blood flow of 0.15 mL/min) occurred at similar core temperatures. In the lateral position, the vasoconstriction threshold was reduced in the dependent arm; however, gain was also increased in the dependent arm. The thermoregulatory system may thus recognize that hydrostatic forces reduce the vasoconstriction threshold and may compensate by sufficiently augmenting gain.

Implications: The threshold for cold-induced vasoconstriction is reduced in the dependent arm, but the gain of vasoconstriction is increased. Consequently, the core temperature triggering intense vasoconstriction was similar in each arm, suggesting that the thermoregulatory system compensates for the hydrostatic effects of the lateral position.

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Ans:

a. Well-groomed appearance
b. Ritualistic behavior
c. Flight of ideas
d. Command hallucinations

Answers

The nurse should expect the finding of "flight of ideas" when collecting data from a client with bipolar disorder.

Option (c) is correct.

When collecting data from a client with bipolar disorder, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms and behaviors that are characteristic of the condition. Among the options provided, "flight of ideas" is the finding most commonly associated with bipolar disorder.

Flight of ideas refers to a symptom of bipolar disorder where a person experiences rapid, continuous, and often disjointed flow of thoughts and speech. This phenomenon can manifest as the person rapidly changing topics, speaking quickly, and having difficulty maintaining a coherent conversation. The individual may jump from one idea to another without clear connections, making it challenging to follow their train of thought.

Other common symptoms of bipolar disorder may include extreme mood swings, periods of elevated or irritable mood (mania), periods of depression, decreased need for sleep, increased energy levels, impulsivity, and changes in activity and behavior.

Therefore, the correct option is (c).

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Any chemicals digestion changes blank to blank

Answers

Answer:

Any chemical digestion changes FOOD to SMALL FORMS:)

a nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child with failure to thrive who has orders for daily weights, strict intake and output, and calorie counts. which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Answers

The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to follow the orders for daily weights, strict intake and output, and calorie counts as closely as possible. Failure to thrive in a child can have serious consequences, so it is important to carefully monitor the child's nutrition and growth to identify any issues early on.

Here are some specific actions the nurse could take:

Weigh the child every day: Weighing the child every day will help the nurse monitor their growth and identify any changes in weight that may indicate a problem.

Monitor the child's intake and output: Keep track of everything the child eats and drinks, as well as how much they urinate and have bowel movements. This will help the nurse ensure that the child is getting enough nutrition and identify any potential problems, such as dehydration.

Count calories: Calculate the number of calories the child is consuming each day and compare it to the recommended daily intake for their age and weight. This will help the nurse ensure that the child is getting enough calories to support their growth and development.

Collaborate with the healthcare team: Work with the child's healthcare team, including their physician and any other specialists involved in their care, to ensure that the child's needs are being met and any issues are addressed promptly.

Monitor the child for signs of distress: Watch for signs of distress or discomfort in the child, such as fatigue, irritability, or changes in appetite. Report any concerns to the healthcare team immediately.

By following these actions, the nurse can help ensure that the child with failure to thrive is receiving the care and support they need to thrive and grow.

Describe a time when you had to interact with a challenging patient/customer. What was the situation, and how did you handle it?.

Answers

Explanation:

its asking you for your interaction not someone elses

How are agar plates inoculated for disk diffusion testing of antiseptics and disinfectants?

Answers

A swab is used to inoculate the entire surface of the plate, producing a lawn of growth.

What do you mean by the term agar plates?

Agar plates are Petri dishes used to cultivate microorganisms that contain a growth medium that has been made solid by agar. Antibiotics are one type of selective chemical that is occasionally added to affect growth. Spot experiments using yeast, fungal, or bacterial cells were conducted using 96 pinners. Placing a single bacterium on the plate will cause it to grow into a single colony, with each one being a genetic clone of the original (except for the low, unavoidable rate of mutation). Because of this, the plate can be used to create genetically pure cultures from a mixed culture of genetically diverse organisms or to quantify the concentration of organisms in liquid culture using a colony counter.

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Some research supports the claim that individuals with antisocial personality disorder may not exhibit the same increase in stress hormone levels when under stress as those without the disorder.
T or F

Answers

Answer:

The statement is true.

Explanation:

The results of the investigations carried out in relation to the link between cortisol secretion and personality reveal differences in the reported evidence. Some of this research indicates that personality traits or disorders play a relevant role in individual differences in the endocrine response to cortisol, both in its basal levels and in the face of stressful stimuli.The relationship between antisocial personality and cortisol levels has been described in several investigations. Among the most reported neuroendocrinological abnormalities in antisocial men is a decrease in cortisol secretion levels. In this regard, Moss, Vanyukov and Martin conducted a case control study comparing cortisol secretion in stressful situations in children between 10 and 12 years of age at risk of presenting aggressive and abusive behavior in adolescence based on their family history. The groups were formed in relation to the presence or absence of a family history of aggression and substance abuse, specifically in the parents. The results found showed that children had a higher risk of antisocial behavior, if their parents had a history of substance abuse and violent behavior, they had lower levels of cortisol secretion in stressful situations than children in the control group whose parents did not present these behaviors negative. The researchers argue that these results could be indicating that a lower increase in cortisol levels in the face of stressful situations could be a biological marker of future antisocial adolescents. Likewise, a longitudinal study with 38 school-age children who had symptoms of aggressive behavior (clinically reported), who were assessed for the circadian rhythm of cortisol in saliva during the second and fourth years of schooling; reported the relationship between the decrease in HPA axis activity and the presence of severe and persistent aggressive behaviors.

Answer:

true

Explanation:

The nurse is providing care for a client with acute myeloid leukemia. Which of the following nursing diagnoses are appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply)
Fluid volume excess
Imbalanced nutrition
Risk for autonomic dysreflexia
Ineffective protection
Acute confusion

Answers

The nurse is providing care for a client with acute myeloid leukemia. B. Imbalanced nutrition and D. Ineffective protection are nursing diagnoses that are appropriate for this client.

B. Imbalanced nutrition: Clients with acute myeloid leukemia often experience poor appetite, weight loss, and nutritional deficiencies due to the impact of the disease and its treatments on their nutritional status. This nursing diagnosis addresses the potential for inadequate intake or absorption of nutrients, which can lead to imbalanced nutrition.

D. Ineffective protection: Acute myeloid leukemia compromises the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections and impaired ability to fight off pathogens. This nursing diagnosis focuses on the increased risk of infection and the need for interventions to enhance the client's protection against potential harm.

These nursing diagnoses are appropriate for addressing the specific needs and risks associated with acute myeloid leukemia. However, it is important to perform a thorough assessment of the client's condition to identify any additional nursing diagnoses that may be relevant based on their individual circumstances.

Therefore, options B and D are correct.

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Glia cells play a supportive role to the neuron. A few of the functions of the glial cells include providing nutrition, maintaining homeostasis, stabilizing synapses, and myelinating axons. The glial cells are categorized as microglia and macroglia. Of these two cell types, which one plays an active and critical role in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist required for glutamate receptor function?

Answers

Macroglia play an active and critical role in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist required for glutamate receptor function.

What are macroglia?

Macroglia are specialized glial cells that are well known to control  neuronal function in the nervous system.

These cells (macroglia) are also known to help in the retina's metabolic functioning and blood.

In conclusion, macroglia play an active and critical role in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist required for glutamate receptor function.

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A 36-year-old client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. What are two contraindications for the use of digoxin?

Answers

Answer:

Acute myocardial infarction. Hypersensitivity to the drug. Ventricular fibrillation.

Explanation:

most items in which of the following exchanges contain 2 to 3 grams of fiber?

Answers

Fiber is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining a healthy digestive system. It helps regulate bowel movements, lower cholesterol levels, and control blood sugar levels.

Most adults require around 25-30 grams of fiber per day.Foods that are high in fiber include fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, and nuts. For example, one medium-sized pear contains about 5.5 grams of fiber, and a cup of cooked lentils contains around 15.6 grams of fiber.

In general, foods that contain 2 to 3 grams of fiber per serving are considered to be a moderate source of fiber. Examples of such foods include whole-grain bread, brown rice, sweet potatoes, apples, and strawberries.

It's important to note that increasing your fiber intake too quickly can cause digestive discomfort, such as bloating and gas. Therefore, it's recommended to gradually increase your fiber intake over time while drinking plenty of water to help your body adjust.

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Individuals with schizophrenia display varying degrees of neurocognitive impairments that are evidenced by which factor? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1 Psychosis
2 Disorganized thinking
3 Substance abuse
4 Disorganized personality
5 Disorganized speech

Answers

Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a variety of neurocognitive impairments, including psychosis, disorganized thinking, disorganized personality, disorganized speech, and substance abuse.

Psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, and altered perceptions of reality. Disorganized thinking involves difficulty organizing thoughts and following logical patterns of thought.

Disorganized personality involves difficulty in controlling emotions, forming relationships, and managing daily activities. Disorganized speech is characterized by difficulties in finding the right words, maintaining a conversation, and understanding what is being said.

Substance abuse is often a symptom of schizophrenia and can manifest as the use of drugs to self-medicate. These neurocognitive impairments can vary in severity from person to person, but they can have a significant impact on a person’s functioning and quality of life.

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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

set as brainliest

keratinnized stratified squamous epithelium is

Answers

Answer:

of the epidermis

Explanation:

It forms the outermost layer of the skin

protects the body against various external influences, such as mechanical stress, radiation, microbial and penetration.

Who can update a patient's plan of care, but cannot initiate that plan of care?
LPN/LVN
RN
UAP/CNA
CNS
NOT SURE

Answers

An LPN/LVN, UAP/CNA, or CNS can update a patient's plan of care, but they cannot initiate that plan of care. Only an RN can initiate a patient's plan of care.

LPN/LVN and UAP/CNA are different types of healthcare professionals. LPN stands for Licensed Practical Nurse, while LVN stands for Licensed Vocational Nurse. These two terms are used interchangeably depending on the region, and they refer to the same profession. LPNs/LVNs work under the supervision of registered nurses (RNs) and physicians, providing basic nursing care to patients.

UAP stands for Unlicensed Assistive Personnel, and CNA stands for Certified Nursing Assistant. These terms also refer to the same profession, with UAP being a broader term and CNA being a specific certification within the field. UAPs/CNAs work under the supervision of licensed nurses, such as LPNs/LVNs and RNs, and they primarily assist with activities of daily living (ADLs) and other basic patients plan of care tasks.

Therefore, the correct answer is LPN/LVN, UAP/CNA, or CNS.

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A teacher gave similar tests two days in a row because the teacher was concerned with the___
of tests.

Answers

A teacher gave similar tests two days in a row because the teacher was concerned with the reliability of the tests.

The concept of reliability pertains to the consistency of the test scores. A test is considered reliable if it produces consistent scores each time the test is taken by a student. If a teacher wants to make sure that a test is reliable, he or she can administer the same test twice. By giving the same test twice, the teacher can identify if the scores produced are consistent, which is a sign of a reliable test. If the scores are inconsistent, the teacher knows that the test is not reliable and will need to be revised. This process ensures that the test results are accurate and that students are being evaluated fairly based on their abilities. In summary, the teacher's decision to give similar tests two days in a row was motivated by their desire to evaluate their students accurately, fairly, and consistently.

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You are seated at a table in your favorite coffee shop. You have studied all night and
you fell asleep. You are suddenly awakened by the fire alarm: this chain of events is
an example of what process?

Answers

Not sure I just need help

little confused SOMEONE TELL ME <3
someone please hurry my time is running out !!!

little confused SOMEONE TELL ME &lt;3someone please hurry my time is running out !!!

Answers

B. Leaving without telling the boss is irresponsible and could cause her some issues. She cannot wear a hat that is too big because in a dangerous environment something that is not fit for you causes more danger. Leaving during lunch is bad because she’s supposed to wear it at all times. Not working on dangerous machinery also doesn’t work for if she’s required to wear it at all time it’s not just the machines that cause danger.

a brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movement occurring at irregular intervals (motor or vocalizations) is the definition of a:

Answers

A brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movement occurring at irregular intervals (motor or vocalizations) is the definition of a Facial tics.

A face tic is an uncontrollable, involuntary facial muscular spasm. The tic is unwelcome and typically happens frequently enough to bother the individual experiencing it.Similar to holding in a sneeze, a person can briefly suppress a tic, but doing so frequently makes the individual more uncomfortable.Facial tics can be brought on by a few different conditions, although they often don't signify a serious illness.In children, facial tics are more frequent than in adults, and males seem to be far more prone than girls to develop facial tics, according to a paper in Pediatric Neurology. After a few months, most children's facial tics disappear.

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This is the act of carrying or transporting.

A. Assault

B. Cataclysm

C. Conveyance

D. Military operation

Answers

Hi...

«────── « ⋅ Your answer will be is ⋅ » ──────»

\(\bold{C. \: Conveyance.}\)

╰┈➤ Explanation :

Because this is a act of transporting. Cause- "Conveyance" means that the action or process of transporting someone or something from one place to another.

Hope It Helps You...

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in reporting on a nonpublic entity's internal control over financial reporting, an accountant should include a paragraph that describes the: multiple choice documentary evidence regarding the control environment factors. changes in the entity's internal control since the prior report. potential benefits from the accountant's suggested improvements. inherent limitations of internal control. how did king david and king solomon include judaism as a part of their rule use a proportion to find the missing side length in the following similar figures.a. x= 4.5cmb. x= 18cmc. x= 8m d. x= 2.25cm - Xeference Reference Future Value of $1 Periods Period 1 Period 2 Period 3 1.030 1.061 1.041 1.082 Period 4 Perlod 5 1.051 1.104 Period 6 1.082 1.126 Period 7 1.072 1.149 Period 8 Period 9 Period 10 What is a context clue answer key? x+4y=22 solve the system by elimination (show work)4x+y=13 AICPAAdaptedSometimes a business entity may change its method of accounting for certain items. 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Accordingly, Hyde will prepare consolidated financial statements for Hyde and Patten for the year ended December 31, 2013.Situation IIIHyde decides in January 2013 to adopt the straight-line method of depreciation for equipment. The straight-line method will be used for new acquisitions, as well as for previously acquired equipment for which depreciation had been provided on an accelerated basis.DirectionsFor each of the preceding situations, research the related generally accepted accounting principles and prepare a short memo to the president that explains the following: type of accounting change; manner of reporting the change under current generally accepted accounting principles, including a discussion, where applicable, of how amounts are computed; effect of the change on the balance sheet and income statement; and note disclosures that would be necessary. Cite your references and applicable paragraph numbers. The sun is 1.5 X 1011 m from earth. 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If density ussualy increases with decreasing temperature why does ice float on liquid water a corporate travel department determines that employees have been staying in 15 different hotel chains. the director of corporate travel mandates that travelers may only stay in four designated hotel chains. this action is an example of: Overflow during a heavy rainstorm from a wastewater treatment plant would result inA. polluted runoff into nearby ponds.B. flooding in the local aquifer.C. weakened housing foundations.D. over-treated drinking water.