All of the following are advantages of exercise machines compared to free weights, except that machines require less skill. The correct answer is the option saying requires less skill.
Exercise machines can help an individual with a specific goal in mind. They can be used to target specific muscles or muscle groups. They also help in improving endurance and strength.
Exercise machines are preferred by people who have a low risk of injury or want to work out at their own pace. They are easier to use and don't require as much skill as free weights.
Safety is also an advantage of exercise machines. They have safety features built into them that minimize the risk of injury. They also allow for controlled movements to reduce the risk of injury.
Exercise machines are better for improving functional movement. The use of machines can help you achieve your goals faster than free weights.
But in the long run, they won't help you develop functional strength as much as free weights do. The exercises done on machines are not as functional as those done with free weights.
This is because most machines are designed to guide your movements and eliminate the need for balance.
So, the correct answer is the option mentioned requires less skill.
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Which of the following are consumer products that activate the estrogen receptor? You can choose more than one. 1. BPA 2. DES 3. DDT.
Both BPA (Bisphenol A) and DES (Diethylstilbestrol) are consumer products that can activate the estrogen receptor.
Both BPA (Bisphenol A) and DES (Diethylstilbestrol) are consumer products that can activate the estrogen receptor.
BPA: BPA is a chemical compound commonly found in plastics, food and beverage containers, and epoxy resins used in can linings. It has been shown to mimic estrogen in the body and can bind to estrogen receptors, thus acting as an endocrine disruptor.DES: DES is a synthetic estrogen that was prescribed to pregnant women between the 1940s and 1970s to prevent miscarriages and other pregnancy complications. It was later discovered to have harmful effects, including an increased risk of certain cancers and reproductive issues. DES directly activates the estrogen receptor.DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane), on the other hand, is an insecticide and not a consumer product that directly activates the estrogen receptor. DDT is an organochlorine pesticide that has been banned or heavily restricted in many countries due to its persistence in the environment and potential adverse health effects.
Therefore, the correct choices are 1. BPA and 2. DES.
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The blood pressure in someone's heart is 1.70 104 Pa at a
certain instant. An artery in the brain is 0.42 m above the heart.
What is the pressure in the artery? The density of blood is 1060
kg/m^.
The pressure in the artery is 4380.588 Pa.
Blood pressure in the heart and an artery in the brain A blood pressure of \(1.70 \times10^4\)Pa at a particular instant is present in someone's heart. The artery in the brain is 0.42 m above the heart. We need to calculate the pressure in the artery using the given information.
The hydrostatic equation relates the pressure difference to the height difference of a fluid column. As we have a fluid column, that is, blood in this case, we can use the hydrostatic equation to relate the pressure difference to the height difference of the column. Pressure is directly proportional to the density of the fluid column and the height of the column. P = ρgh
Where: P = Pressure ρ = Density g = Acceleration due to gravity h = Height of the fluid column As the density of the fluid column remains constant, we can directly relate the pressure difference to the height difference between two points. Using this information, we can relate the pressure at the heart and the artery.
Pressure at the heart = Pa Height difference between the heart and the artery = 0.42 mWe can now calculate the pressure at the artery using the above equation.Pressure at the artery = ρgh= 1060 kg/m³ * 9.81 m/s² * 0.42 m= 4380.588 Pa
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a client presents to the clinic reporting symptoms that suggest diabetes. what criteria would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes?
A client presents the criteria would support checking blood levels for the Fasting blood sugar test would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes.
Doctor check your blood sugar levels after a night of fasting (not eating). Prediabetes is defined as having a fasting blood sugar level between 100 and 125 mg/dL, diabetes as above 126 mg/dL, and normal blood sugar as less than 99 mg/dL.
Before a fasting blood glucose test, you might need to go without food for eight to ten hours. Before a blood test for iron, you might need to fast for 12 hours.
You should refrain from eating or drinking anything other than water for eight to twelve hours before to the fasting glucose test.
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postoperative clinical outcomes of balloon kyphoplasty treatment: would adherence to indications and contraindications prevent complications?
Adherence to indications and contraindications in balloon kyphoplasty treatment can help prevent complications and improve postoperative clinical outcomes.
Balloon kyphoplasty is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to treat vertebral compression fractures. Adherence to indications and contraindications is crucial to ensure the appropriate selection of patients for the procedure and minimize the risk of complications.
Indications for balloon kyphoplasty typically include painful vertebral compression fractures due to osteoporosis, cancer, or trauma. Contraindications may include active infection, severe osteoporosis, or spinal instability.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can identify patients who are likely to benefit from the procedure while avoiding potential risks. This adherence helps ensure that the procedure is performed on suitable candidates, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.
Complications associated with balloon kyphoplasty can include cement leakage, adjacent-level fractures, nerve injury, and infection. Adhering to indications and contraindications can help minimize these complications by selecting appropriate candidates and avoiding procedures in patients with higher risks.
In summary, adherence to indications and contraindications in balloon kyphoplasty treatment plays a crucial role in preventing complications and improving postoperative clinical outcomes.
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What kind of medication relieves constipation and facilitates passage of feces through the lower gi tract?.
Lubricant laxatives relieves the constipation and facilitates passage of feces through the lower GIT.
What is constipation?Chronic constipation is infrequent bowel movements or difficult passage of stools that persists for several weeks or longer.
Constipation is generally described as having fewer than three bowel movements a week.
What are lubricant laxatives?Lubricant laxatives are a type of laxatives mainly used for treating constipation, as they make the stool slippery. They lubricate the intestinal wall and stool mass by coating them with a waterproof film layer, preventing the feces from drying out.
What is lower GIT?The lower gastrointestinal (GI) tract is the last part of the digestive tract. The lower GI tract consists of the large intestine and the anus. The anus is a 1-inch opening at the end of your digestive tract through which stool leaves your body.
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On what does the World Health Organization base its standards?
research
first–hand observations
what other organizations are doing
solutions that make the most money
Answer:
Its research
Explanation:
I got it right in edge
1 pts
Question 1
treat heart failure, a heart attack, high blood pressure, or an irregular heartbeat.
Rheumatologists
Gastroenterologists
O Cardiologists
O Pulmonologists
1) A patient lying horizontally on his belly is in the _____ position?
a. laterally recumbent
b. prone
c. recumbent
d. supine
Answer:
Option B, prone
Explanation:
The prone position can be described as the patient laying with their torso making contact with a surface such as a bed or, hopefully not, the floor, which is also colloquially known as laying on one's belly.
A patient laying laterally recumbent describes their lateral chest wall making contact with a surface, known as laying on one's side. A patient laying supine can be described as their dorsum and the posterior of the lower extremities making contact with a surface, also known as laying on one's back. The "recumbent" position is not necessarily existent without a prefacing qualifier like the word "laterally" aforementioned or the word "dorsal" as in dorsal recumbent which can also be considered supine.
A patient lying flat on their belly is described to be in the prone position. This term is commonly seen in medical contexts such as surgery or physical therapy.
Explanation:A patient lying horizontally on his belly is in the prone position. This is a term used in medicine to describe a patient who is lying face downwards. Unlike the supine position where a patient lays flat on their back, or the lateral recumbent where a patient lies on their side, being prone means lying on your stomach. The term is often used in interventions such as surgery or physical therapy.
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which law or practice guideline did the occupational safety and health administration (osha) and the oncology nursing society (ons) establish?
The law or practice guideline which the OSHA and the ONS must establish are Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used when handling chemotherapy drugs, which means option C is correct.
OSHA refers to the laws pertaining to the safety of the worker at the workplace under which their health, ease of work, and other safety measures are taken. Proper lighting, availability of equipment and machinery etc. are important at workplace. Apart from this proper gloves and hats must be used by the workers at the site. The organization of ONS is aimed at providing financial help and medical assistance to the workers suffering from any kind of cancer. There are almost 35000 registered nurses under ONS.
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Refer to complete question at:
Which law or practice guideline did the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and the Oncology Nursing Society (ONS) establish?
Patients have the right to be free of restraint in hospitals and nursing homes.Staff should stay at least 3 ft away from a patient with a droplet-borne infection.Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used when handling chemotherapy drugs.Patients seen in an emergency department must have emergency medical screening examinations.Term birth, living male, cesarean delivery, with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility. Code the baby’s record.
ICD-10-CM:
ICD-10-CM:
Full-term, live male, cesarean delivery(ICD 10 - O82), with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility(ICD 10 - P55). Code in the baby registry.
ICD 10 - O82 Single delivery by cesarean sectionICD 10 - P55 Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newbornWhat does the ICD mean?The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, better known as the ICD, is one of the main epidemiological tools in everyday medical practice. The main function of the ICD is to monitor the incidence and prevalence of diseases, through universal standardization.
With this information, we can conclude that ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems
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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?
Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
What is learning theories?Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.
The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.
Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.
Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
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The backward effect of left heart failure may cause __________________. Select all that apply.
hypertension
pulmonary edema
pulmonary crackles
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
jugular vein distension
The backward effect of left heart failure may cause hypertension, pulmonary edema, and jugular vein distension. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is not typically associated with left heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2, 3, 4, hypertension, pulmonary edema, and jugular vein distension.
Left heart failure occurs when the left side of the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This can lead to a backup of blood in the veins, which can cause the pressure in the veins to increase and cause symptoms such as hypertension and jugular vein distension.
Left heart failure can also cause the right side of the heart to work harder to compensate for the left side's inability to pump effectively. This can lead to fluid buildup in the lungs, which can cause symptoms such as pulmonary edema and shortness of breath.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a type of shortness of breath that occurs at night and is often associated with lung conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or asthma. It is not typically associated with left heart failure.
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Of the following three types of fat, which type is the most unhealthy?
A formula calls for 0.5 milliliter of hydrochloric acid. Using a 10 -milliliter graduate calibrated from 2 to 10 milliliters in 1 milliliter divisions , explain how you would obtain the desired quantity of hydrochloric acid by the aliquot method ?
Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by
a
unwarranted suspiciousness and mistrust of other people
b
unusual preoccupation with rules and schedules
c
instability revolving around problems of mood and thought processes
d
lack of interest in social relationships
what is the common name for Proctalgia Fugax?
The sorting out, interpretation, analysis, and integration of stimuli by the sense organs and brain is
known as
Answer:
It is known as perception.
What is involved in cancer staging? And why is staging important?
Answer:
Cancer staging provides helpful information for both patients and doctors: The stage suggests the most likely outcome. Knowing the stage gives an educated estimate of life expectancy and the chance of a cure. Treatment will be planned and recommended based on the stage of the cancer.
Answer: The clinical stage is an estimate of the extent of the cancer based on results of physical exams, imaging tests (x-rays, CT scans, and more, endoscopy exams, and any biopsies that are done before treatment starts. For some cancers, the results of other tests, such as blood tests, are also used in clinical staging.
Cancer staging provides helpful information for both patients and doctors: The stage suggests the most likely outcome. Knowing the stage gives an educated estimate of life expectancy and the chance of a cure. Treatment will be planned and recommended based on the stage of the cancer.
Explanation:
6. Changes in circulation may cause an older adult who has been lying or sitting for a while to become confused, dizzy, and possibly stumble or fall when abruptly rising to stand. The appropriate intervention is to:
Changes in circulation may cause an older adult who has been lying or sitting for a while to become confused, dizzy, and possibly stumble or fall when abruptly rising to stand. The appropriate intervention is to assist the individual to rise slowly
By assist the individual to rise slowly can help prevent the sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur when standing up too quickly and can help reduce the risk of falls and injuries. It is also important to encourage the individual to take their time when getting up and to hold onto a stable surface for support if needed.
Additionally, it may be helpful to provide education to the individual about the importance of moving slowly and safely when getting up from a lying or sitting position. So, changes in circulation may cause an older adult who has been lying or sitting for a while to become confused, dizzy, and possibly stumble or fall when abruptly rising to stand. The appropriate intervention is to assist the individual to rise slowly
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why are regional and directional terms are extremely important in the medical and dental professions
Answer:
Below:
Explanation:
Understanding terminology ensures doctors and technicians have a shared method of communicating, which helps to avoid confusion when pinpointing structures and describing locations of lesions. Knowing your directional terms makes things clear and saves time!
Hope it helps...
It's Muska
is very painful injury is most often caused by a hard fall to the buttocks
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
yes
Not really, one of the most common injuries and one of the most painful is ankle sprains.
histomorphometry of small intestine
Small intestinal mucosa is lined by a simple columnar epithelium which consists primarily of absorptive cells (enterocytes), with scattered goblet cells and occasional enteroendocrine cells. In crypts, the epithelium also includes Paneth cells and stem cells
can you think of some interesting settings for for the kind of stories listed below:
1.Adventure-_______
2.Fairytale-_______
3.Action-______
4.Horror-_______
5.science Fiction-________
Plssss...
Answer:
Adventure: Mountains or Plains
Fairytale: garden or forest
Action: Highways, war zones.
Horror: Parking garage, graveyard, Forest at night.
Science fiction: space, futuristic cities.
Ling brought her little fox terrier, Sparks, on vacation with her. One thing she forgot was Sparks’ insulin. Ling goes to a local pharmacy to see if she can get insulin for Sparks. The pharmacist says that they are out of synthetic insulin, but they have beef-based insulin. How will Ling MOST likely react to this news? She will thank the pharmacist because Sparks can use beef-based insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because dogs can only use synthetic insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic. She will just plan to forgo giving Sparks his insulin for the trip.
She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic.
While auscultating a trauma victim's chest for breath sounds you believe you hear muffle heart sounds. You assess that this:
If a trauma victim's chest is auscultated for breath sounds and muffled heart sounds are detected, it could mean that they have a pneumothorax.
A pneumothorax is a collapsed lung resulting in air or gas collecting in the pleural space, causing a complete or partial lung collapse. A pneumothorax can be a medical emergency that needs immediate intervention and treatment. It can be caused by various injuries, such as blunt force trauma to the chest, rib fractures, or penetrating injuries to the chest wall.
A pneumothorax can be diagnosed using a chest X-ray, CT scan, or ultrasound. While auscultating a trauma victim's chest for breath sounds, if the practitioner hears muffled or absent lung sounds on the affected side and increased respiratory distress, it could be a sign of a pneumothorax. A chest X-ray can help diagnose the extent of the pneumothorax and how much of the lung has collapsed.
Treatment:
A pneumothorax has several treatment options, depending on the severity and extent of the lung collapse. Treatment can range from observation for small and mild pneumothorax to more aggressive treatment, including chest tube insertion or surgery for severe or life-threatening pneumothorax.
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What is the break-down of these words for medical terminology.
acromioclavicular
exophthalmos
onychocryptosis
somnambulism
Write the word.
Identify (write out), classify (prefix, root and/or combining form(s), suffix), and define the word parts.
Define the word.
NOTE: The definition of the word is not always the same as simply combining the definitions of the word parts. In this case, the root cellul means small cell, but the definition does not include the word small. Always look up the definition to verify that it is correct.
Samples:
Word: intracellular
Word part: -ar is a suffix (S) that means pertaining to
Word part: intra- is a prefix (P) that means within
Word part: cellul is a root (R) that means small cell
Definition of intracellular: (pertaining to) within a cell
Answer:
Medical terms can contain multiple root words, combining vowels etc. ... The root word is “card” which means “heart”, and the suffix meaning of ... This medical term's key parts are all roots: stern(root) – o – cleid(root) ... While proficiency in Latin is not required to learn medical terminology or ... nopqrstuvwxyz.
Explanation:
A medical assistant is preparing a patient for a procedure to have a mole excised. Which one of the following actions should the assistant take?
The medical assistant should cleanse the site with surgical soap and an antiseptic while preparing the patient for mole excision.
The removal of mole from a person is a very short process and takes very less amount of time. Moles generally do not need treatment unless the person himself decides to remove the mole. During the process of removal of mole, the doctor usually makes the area of the patient where the mole is present numb using some medical anesthesia.
After this the doctor cuts out the mole from the area. Along with the mole some amount of skin is also cut out if it is necessary in some cases. This can leave a mark that may be permanent unless treated. Some people with other skin issues may have some side effects due to this process of mole excision.
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The registered nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be
assigned to the pregnant nurse?
a. The client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia.
b. The client with radium implant for cervical cancer.
c. The client who is admitted for severe shingles.
d. The client who has been restrained due to confusion and combative
behavior.
The client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia should be assigned to the pregnant nurse. So, the correct answer is (A).
What is Anemia?
In anemia, the body is unable to make enough red blood cells (RBCs). RBCs provide oxygen to the cells or tissues of the body. Low hemoglobin is related to having anemia which leads to feeling tired and weak. The most common cause of anemia is not having enough iron.
There are many forms of anemia which have their own causes. It can be temporary or long term which can range from mild to severe.
Signs and symptoms of anemia include
Tiredness, weakness, pale skin, irregular heartbeat,shortness of breath, etc.Anemia is caused due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Anemia due to folate (folic acid) deficiency.
Thus, the client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia should be assigned to the pregnant nurse. So, the correct answer is (A).
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During shift report, the nurse states that a patient is receiving an oxytocin drip at 6 milliunits/min. The oxytocin concentration is 30 units in 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution. The IV pump should be set for how many milliliters per hour? _________mL/h
Answer:
... i think it should be 15
Explanation: