Abbas is two years younger than Brad. Two years ago, the sum of their ages was the same as Brad's current age. How old are the boys now?

Answer:

A. -20p - 2

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Algebra I

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

2 - 4(5p + 1)

Step 2: Simplify

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Apply the distributive property

2-20p-4

Simplify expression

-20p-2

Answer choice A is correct

Given:

The total distance of the trip is, d = 433 miles.

The percentage of trip travelled is, t = 29.1%.

The objective is to find the travelled distance and the remaining distance.

Explanation:

The travelled distance can be calculated as,

To find remaining distance:

The remaining distance can be calculated as,

Hence, the travelled distance is 126 miles and the remaining distance is 307 miles.

The art teacher can make a maximum of 24 identical kits using all the crayons and drawing paper for proper distribution.

To determine the largest number of identical kits the art teacher can make using all the crayons and drawing paper, we need to find the greatest common divisor (GCD) of the quantities.

The GCD represents the largest number that can divide all the quantities without leaving a remainder.

The GCD of the quantities of crayons can be found by considering the prime factorization:

\(72 = 2^3 * 3^2\\\\48 = 2^4 * 3\\\\48 = 2^4 * 3\\\\48 = 2^4 * 3\\\\\)

The GCD of the crayons is \(2^3 * 3\), which is 24.

Now, we need to find the GCD of the quantity of drawing paper:

120 = \(2^3 * 3 * 5\)

The GCD of the drawing paper is also \(2^3 * 3\), which is 24.

Since the GCD of both the crayons and drawing paper is 24, the art teacher can make a maximum of 24 identical kits using all the crayons and drawing paper.

Each kit would contain an equal distribution of crayons and drawing paper.

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At the end of the year, Achley Company's owner's equity is $4,685,000 and can be calculated by starting with the beginning owner's equity, adding the revenues, subtracting the expenses, and subtracting the owner's withdrawals.

To calculate Achley Company's owner's equity at the end of the year, we start with the beginning owner's equity of $5,175,000. We then add the revenues of $225,000 and subtract the expenses of $165,000. This gives us the net income, which is the difference between revenues and expenses, and represents the increase in owner's equity.

So, net income = revenues - expenses = $225,000 - $165,000 = $60,000. Next, we subtract the owner's withdrawals of $550,000 from the net income. Owner's withdrawals are personal expenses or cash withdrawals made by the owner and reduce the owner's equity.

Owner's equity at the end of the year = Beginning owner's equity + Net income - Owner's withdrawals.Owner's equity at the end of the year = $5,175,000 + $60,000 - $550,000. Calculating the above expression, we find that Achley Company's owner's equity at the end of the year is $4,685,000.

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Melanie should take A and B, being r(loan a)= 9.699% annually, r(loan b)=9.862% annual

It is given that

Loan A: 9.265% nominal rate, compounded weekly

In order to find the easiest effective rate, we need to divide this rate by 52 (which are the weeks in a year). Once we do that, we convert this effective weekly rate into an effective annual rate. Let´s walk you through all this.

\(r(Eweek)=\dfrac{0.09265}{52} =0.00178173\)

Or 0.178173% effective weekly. Now we can transform it into an effective annual rate.

\(r(e,a)=1+(r(e.week))^{52} -1\)

\(r(e,a)=1+(0.00178173)^{52} -1=0.09699\)

Or 9.669% annual, which is less than 9.955%, so this one is selected, let´s check the next.

Loan B: 9.442% nominal rate, compounded monthly

Just like we did with Loan A, we need to divide this rate too, only this time, we will divide by 12, therefore obtaining an effective monthly rate.

\(r(Emonth)=\dfrac{0.09442}{12} =0.00786833\)

Or 0.786833% effective monthly, let´s turn it into an effective annual rate.

\(r(e,a)=1+(r(e.month))^{12} -1\)

\(r(e,a)=1+(0.00786833))^{12} -1=0.09862\)

Or 9.862% annual, so this rate would work for Melanie too. This means that option C) is the answer we are looking for but, let´s walk that extra mile and turn that Loan C rate into an annual rate.

\(r(Eweek)=\dfrac{0.09719}{4} =0.0242975\)

or 2.42975% effective quarterly, now, let´s convert it into an effective annual rate.

\(r(e,a)=1+(0.0 242975))^{12} -1=0.010079\)

That is 10.079% effective annual, therefore, Loan C is not an option for Melanie.

Thus Melanie should take A and B, being r(loan a)= 9.699% annually, r(loan b)=9.862% annual

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Answer:

y = -8/5x + 16

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope-intercept form is y = mx + b

m = the slope

b = y-intercept

The slope = rise/run or (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1)

Pick 2 points (0,16) (5,8)

We see the y decrease by 8 and the x increase by 5, so the slope is

m = -8/5

The Y-intercept is located at (0,16)

So, the equation is y = -8/5x + 16

a) The distribution is roughly symmetric and bimodal. b) The histogram has two modes, which may be due to the different shoe size scales used for men and women in the U.S. but not in Europe.

The histogram of European shoe sizes of 269 male and female college students converted from their reported US shoe sizes is not visible based on the information provided, but the questions are clear.

a) The shape of the distribution is not visible, but it is mentioned that it is "roughly symmetric and bimodal".

b) There are two modes in the histogram. This could be because shoe sizes in the United States are defined differently for men and women, but not in Europe. As a result, the histogram of the distribution of European shoe sizes for both men and women may show two distinct peaks.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(0, -4), (2, -8)

(-8 + 4)/(2 - 0) = -4/2 = -2

y + 4 = -2(x - 0)

y + 4 = -2x + 0

y = -2x - 4

f(x) = -2x - 4

Option A is the answer

Answer:

31.5 (multiplied it after)

Step-by-step explanation:

I love algebra anyways

The ans is in the picture with the  steps how i got it

(hope this helps can i plz have brainlist :D hehe)

Answer:

31.5

Step-by-step explanation:

6x+7=10x

-6x   =-6x

7= 4x

x= 7/4

If x= 7/4

18(7/4)= 31.5

The probability that the pin is red is 0.4. The probability that the pin is white is 0.6, or 60%.

To find the probability that the pin is white, we need to consider that there are only two possible outcomes: red or white. If the probability of the pin being red is 0.4, then the probability of the pin being white can be found by subtracting the probability of it being red from 1.

Let's denote the probability of the pin being white as P(white). We know that P(red) = 0.4. Since there are only two options (red or white), we have:

P(white) = 1 - P(red)

P(white) = 1 - 0.4

P(white) = 0.6

Therefore, the probability that the pin is white is 0.6, or 60%.

This means that out of all the pins in the box, there is a 60% chance that a randomly selected pin will be white. The probability is calculated based on the assumption that each pin has an equal chance of being selected and that the selection process is random.

It's important to note that the sum of the probabilities for all possible outcomes must always be equal to 1. In this case, P(red) + P(white) = 0.4 + 0.6 = 1, which confirms that our probabilities are valid.

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Answer:

1 3/4, 9 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

continue the pattern

Answer:

x=3.333(approximated to thousanths)

3x3.3 - 4 = 6

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7/9

..............................

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If point T is on the line SU, then ST+TU = SU. Given  TU=4x+1, SU=8, and ST=3x

Substituting the given values into the expression ST+TU = SU

8 = 3x+4x+1

8 = 7x+1

collect like terms;

7x = 8-1

7x = 7

Divide through by 7

7x/7 = 7/7

x = 1

Substitute x = 1 into the expression TU = 4x+1 to get the length of TU

TU = 4(1)+1

TU = 4+1

TU = 5

Hence the length of TU is 5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: the answer is 5

Answer:

28

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

28

Step-by-step explanation:

(1/2)56 = a - b

28 = a - b

a + 28 = 56

a = 28

Answer:

length = 78 m , width = 27 m

Step-by-step explanation:

let w represent width then length l = 3w - 3

the perimeter (P) is calculated as

P = 2l + 2w = 210 , substitute values

2(3w - 3) + 2w = 210 ← distribute parenthesis and simplify left side

6w - 6 + 2w = 210

8w - 6 = 210 ( add 6 to both sides )

8w = 216 ( divide both sides by 8 )

w = 27 and l = 3(27) - 3 = 81 - 3 = 78

Then length = 78 m and width = 27 m

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

900-300=600

600 divided by 30 is 20

Answer:  $14.5

Step-by-step explanation: you divide 58 by 4 . each box is 14.5. total cost is $68 if you add postage

Answer: 6x10°+97

Step-by-step explanation:

6x10°-4-10-1+30-3+7x10+2x10-5

6x10°-4-10-1+30-3+70+2x10-5

6x10°-4-10-1+30-3+70+20-5

6x10°+97

Answer:

x + x + 7 + x -4 = 300

3x = 297

x = 99 First Piece

x2 = 106 Second Piece

x3 = 95 Third piece

Step-by-step explanation:

If the inflation rate is 180%, the average prices will double in less than one year.

This is because inflation measures the increase in the prices of goods and services over a period of time. Therefore, the formula for calculating how many years it will take for average prices to double at a given inflation rate is:Years to double = 70/inflation rate

In this case, the inflation rate is 180%.

Therefore:Years to double = 70/180%

Years to double = 0.389 years

This means that average prices will double in approximately 4.67 months (0.389 years multiplied by 12 months per year).

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Identifying Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors, A should be a n x n matrix. By resolving the det(λI−A)=0 problem, first determine the eigenvalues of A. Find the fundamental solutions to (λI−A)X=0 to determine the fundamental eigenvectors X≠0 for each.

In linear algebra, a nonzero vector is said to have an eigenvector, or characteristic vector, when a linear transformation is applied to it; this characteristic vector only changes by a scalar amount. The scaling factor for the eigenvector is known as the associated eigenvalue, frequently represented by the symbol. Linear transformations are made intelligible by the usage of eigenvectors. Eigenvectors can be thought of as a non-directional stretching or compressing of an X-Y line chart. In mathematics, eigenvalues are regarded as the factor by which a transformation is stretched, whereas eigenvectors are the real non-zero eigenvalues that point in the direction stretched by the transformation. The direction of the transformation is negative if the eigenvalue is negative.

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Answer:

2s/5 + 8

Step-by-step explanation:

if you wanted it simplified..

The exact value of the curvature of f(x) = sin^3(x) at x = π/2 is 3. To find the curvature of the function f(x) = sin^3(x) at x = π/2.Calculate the second derivative of f(x).

2. Substitute x = π/2 into the second derivative.

3. Use the formula for curvature, which is given by the expression |f''(x)| / (1 + [f'(x)]^2)^(3/2).

Let's calculate the curvature of f(x) at x = π/2:

1. Calculating the second derivative of f(x):

f(x) = sin^3(x)

Using the chain rule, we find the first derivative:

f'(x) = 3sin^2(x) * cos(x)

Differentiating again, we find the second derivative:

f''(x) = (6sin(x) * cos^2(x)) - (3sin^3(x))

2. Substituting x = π/2 into the second derivative:

f''(π/2) = (6sin(π/2) * cos^2(π/2)) - (3sin^3(π/2))

Since sin(π/2) = 1 and cos(π/2) = 0, the expression simplifies to:

f''(π/2) = 6 * 0^2 - 3 * 1^3

f''(π/2) = -3

3. Calculating the curvature using the formula:

curvature = |f''(π/2)| / [1 + (f'(π/2))^2]^(3/2)

Since f'(π/2) = 3sin^2(π/2) * cos(π/2) = 0, the denominator becomes 1.

curvature = |-3| / (1 + 0^2)^(3/2)

curvature = 3 / 1^3/2

curvature = 3 / 1

curvature = 3

Therefore, the exact value of the curvature of f(x) = sin^3(x) at x = π/2 is 3.

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Answer:

.700

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.700

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the simplest form I can give, any more questions you have contact your teacher.

Answer:

45 words in 9 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

90/18= 5 words per minutes

5*9= 45

8 cans equal 2 and not 1/4

The value of a(t) is -1 and b(t) is 55 + \(e^t\)

No, the given equation y' - y = 55 + \(e^t\) is not in the standard form of a first-order linear differential equation.

In the method for solving a first-order linear differential equation, an integrating factor is a function used to transform the equation into a form that can be easily solved.

For an equation in the standard form y' + a(t)y = b(t), the integrating factor is defined as:

μ(t) = e^∫a(t)dt

To solve the equation, you multiply both sides of the equation by the integrating factor μ(t) and then simplify. This multiplication helps to make the left side of the equation integrable and simplifies the process of finding the solution.

To put it in standard form, we need to rewrite it as y' + a(t)y = b(t).

Comparing the given equation with the standard form, we can identify:

a(t) = -1

b(t) = 55 + \(e^t\)

Therefore, The value of a(t) is -1 and b(t) is 55 + \(e^t\)

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To add cells C4, C5, and C6 using semi-selection in cell C7, we can use the following formula:

=SUM(C4:C6)

This formula uses the SUM function, which adds the values of the selected range of cells. The semi-selection in this case is C4:C6, which selects the range of cells from C4 to C6, inclusive of both endpoints. The SUM function then adds the values in these cells and returns the result in cell C7.

Alternatively, we could also use the plus operator to achieve the same result:

=C4+C5+C6

This formula simply adds the values in cells C4, C5, and C6 and returns the result in cell C7. However, using the SUM function is generally considered more efficient when adding a larger range of cells or when the range of cells may change in the future.

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