a + x = -3 với a = 5 . Tìm x

To solve the given equation -0.9411 = 7 e, we need to apply natural logarithms. Let us first write the equation as e raised to a power.7e = e^1 ln 7e = ln e^1

Using the logarithmic property of ln that ln a^b = b ln a,ln 7e = ln 7 + ln e = ln 7 + 1

Now, the equation becomes:ln 7 + 1 = -0.9411

We can solve this equation for ln 7 as:ln 7 = -1.9411

Now we can substitute the value of ln 7 in the first equation which is 7e = e^1,7e = e^(ln 7)

The base of the natural logarithm, e is raised to the power of ln 7 to get the value of 7e. We get,7e = 0.1441

Therefore, t = -0.9411/0.1441 = -6.5256

Hence, the solution of the given equation is t = -6.526.

To solve the given equation -0.9411 = 7 e using natural logarithms, we first wrote the equation in a form where e is raised to a power. Then we applied the logarithmic property of ln to take the natural logarithm of both sides of the equation. We solved the resulting equation to get the value of ln 7. Then we substituted this value of ln 7 in the original equation and solved it to get the value of t. The solution of the given equation is t = -6.526.

To know more about natural logarithms visit:

brainly.com/question/29154694

#SPJ11

The only point of intersection between the graphs of f(x) = x^2(x-1) and g(x) = x-1 is :

(-1, 0).

There are different methods to solve this problem, but one of the simplest and most straight forward methods is to set the functions equal to each other and then solve for x. That is:

f(x) = g(x)x^2(x-1) = x - 1x^3 - x + 1 = 0

Now we have a cubic equation.

We can either solve it by factoring, or by using the cubic formula.

Let's try factoring first.

x^3 - x + 1 = (x-a)(x^2 + ax + b)

If we expand the right-hand side and equate the coefficients, we get:

a+b = 0ab - a = -1a^2 + b = 0

Solving these equations simultaneously, we get:

a = -1b = 1

The cubic equation factors as:

x^3 - x + 1 = (x+1)(x^2 - x + 1)

Setting each factor equal to zero, we get:

x+1 = 0

=> x = -1x^2 - x + 1 = 0

This is a quadratic equation that can be solved by using the quadratic formula. We get:

x = (-b ± √(b^2 - 4ac))/2a, where a = 1, b = -1, and c = 1.x = (-(-1) ± √((-1)^2 - 4(1)(1)))/2(1) = (1 ± √(-3))/2

The discriminant is negative, so there are no real solutions to this quadratic equation. Therefore, the only point of intersection between the graphs of f(x) and g(x) is (-1, 0).

To learn more about quadratic equations visit : https://brainly.com/question/1214333

#SPJ11

Answer:$20.23 initial fee

Step-by-step explanation:

7.75 for 1 hour +7.75 for 1 hour =15.50

subtract 15.50 from the total cost of $35.73

Answer:

d)X=4 or x=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

X²-2x=8

X²-2x-8=0

(x-4)(x+2)=0

X-4=0 or x+2=0

X=4 or x=-2

Answer: D. x = 4 or x = -2

The correct answer is x = 4 or x = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps =)

Answer:

equation 'b':  y = -3/4x + 5

equation 't':  y = 4/3x - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

parallel lines must have the same slope

the slope of perpendicular lines must be opposite and reciprocal

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

1/3 of 33=11

11=number of seniors

2/3 of 33=22

22+11=33

22=number of underclassmen

plz can i get brainliest:)

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

The range is the biggest number minus the smallest number.

The biggest number is 12.

The smallest number is -6 .

Range = 12-(-6) = 18

The dividend in 2018 was $2.95, and it is expected to grow at a rate of 7.4% for the next five years and 2.6% thereafter. With an equity cost of capital of 8.6%, the value per share at the end of 2018 can be calculated.

To calculate the value per share at the end of 2018, we need to discount the expected future dividends using the dividend-discount model. The model assumes that the value of a stock is equal to the present value of all its expected future dividends.

First, we need to calculate the dividends for each year from 2019 to 2023. We start with the dividend in 2018, which was $2.95. We then increase it by 7.4% each year for the next five years:

Dividend in 2019 = $2.95 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.17

Dividend in 2020 = $3.17 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.40

Dividend in 2021 = $3.40 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.65

Dividend in 2022 = $3.65 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.92

Dividend in 2023 = $3.92 * (1 + 7.4%) = $4.22

After 2023, the dividend is expected to grow at a rate of 2.6% per year. To find the value per share at the end of 2018, we discount the future dividends to their present value using the equity cost of capital of 8.6%.

The present value of the dividends can be calculated as follows:

PV = (D1 / (1 + r)) + (D2 / (1 + r)^2) + ... + (Dn / (1 + r)^n)

where PV is the present value, D1 to Dn are the dividends for each year, r is the equity cost of capital, and n is the number of years.

In this case, n = 5 because we are discounting the dividends for the next five years. Let's calculate the present value:

PV = ($3.17 / (1 + 8.6%)) + ($3.40 / (1 + 8.6%)^2) + ($3.65 / (1 + 8.6%)^3) + ($3.92 / (1 + 8.6%)^4) + ($4.22 / (1 + 8.6%)^5)

PV = $3.17 / 1.086 + $3.40 / 1.086^2 + $3.65 / 1.086^3 + $3.92 / 1.086^4 + $4.22 / 1.086^5

PV ≈ $2.91 + $3.07 + $3.24 + $3.41 + $3.59

PV ≈ $16.22

Therefore, the estimated value per share of Procter and Gamble at the end of 2018 using the dividend-discount model is approximately $16.22.

Learn more about cost here: brainly.com/question/14566816

#SPJ11

The dividend in 2018 was $2.95, and it is expected to grow at a rate of 7.4% for the next five years and 2.6% thereafter. With an equity cost of capital of 8.6%, the value per share at the end of 2018 can be calculated.

To calculate the value per share at the end of 2018, we need to discount the expected future dividends using the dividend-discount model.
The model assumes that the value of a stock is equal to the present value of all its expected future dividends. First, we need to calculate the dividends for each year from 2019 to 2023. We start with the dividend in 2018, which was $2.95. We then increase it by 7.4% each year for the next five years:

Dividend in 2019 = $2.95 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.17
Dividend in 2020 = $3.17 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.40
Dividend in 2021 = $3.40 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.65
Dividend in 2022 = $3.65 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.92
Dividend in 2023 = $3.92 * (1 + 7.4%) = $4.22

After 2023, the dividend is expected to grow at a rate of 2.6% per year. To find the value per share at the end of 2018, we discount the future dividends to their present value using the equity cost of capital of 8.6%.
The present value of the dividends can be calculated as follows:
PV = (D1 / (1 + r)) + (D2 / (1 + r)^2) + ... + (Dn / (1 + r)^n) where PV is the present value, D1 to Dn are the dividends for each year, r is the equity cost of capital, and n is the number of years.

In this case, n = 5 because we are discounting the dividends for the next five years. Let's calculate the present value: PV = ($3.17 / (1 + 8.6%)) + ($3.40 / (1 + 8.6%)^2) + ($3.65 / (1 + 8.6%)^3) + ($3.92 / (1 + 8.6%)^4) + ($4.22 / (1 + 8.6%)^5)
PV = $3.17 / 1.086 + $3.40 / 1.086^2 + $3.65 / 1.086^3 + $3.92 / 1.086^4 + $4.22 / 1.086^5
PV ≈ $2.91 + $3.07 + $3.24 + $3.41 + $3.59
PV ≈ $16.22
Therefore, the estimated value per share of Procter and Gamble at the end of 2018 using the dividend-discount model is approximately $16.22.

Learn more about cost here: brainly.com/question/14566816

#SPJ11

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

not sure 2

Answer:

Option: A is the correct answer A.

Begin with a line segment on the paper and fold the paper so that the segment's endpoints lie on top of each other.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that a perpendicular line segment is formed with the help of paper folding in following steps: Draw a line segment on a paper. Fold the paper so that the endpoints of the line segment are on each other. The crease that is formed on the paper and pass through the line segment is the perpendicular line to the given line segment. The point on the line segment is the mid point of the line segment. Hence, option: A is the correct answer.

Option: B is the correct answer i.e. "Begin with a line segment on the paper and fold the paper so that the segment's endpoints lie on top of each other."

Thus, Option: B is the correct answer i.e. "Begin with a line segment on the paper and fold the paper so that the segment's endpoints lie on top of each other."

Learn more about parallel lines here:

https://brainly.com/question/24607467

#SPJ2

As a result of answering the given question, we may state that Rounding equation up to the nearest hundred dollars, the car's value 19 years later is around $2,500.

In mathematics, an equation is a statement stating the equality or two expressions. An equation consists of two sides split by an algebraic equation (=). For illustration, the argument "2x + 3 = 9" argues that the statement "2x + 3" is equal to the value "9". The goal of equation solving is to find the value or values of the variable(s) to make the equation true. Simple or complex equations, regular or nonlinear, and including one or more factors are all possible. For example, the equation "x2 + 2x - 3 = 0" has the variable x raised to the second power. Lines are used in many fields of mathematics, including algebra, calculus, or geometry.

Because the car depreciates by half every six years, the car's value after t years is provided by:

\(V(t) =18000*(1/2)^(t/6)\)

To determine the worth of the car 19 years after purchase, we must analyse V(19):

\(V(19) = 18000*(1/2)^(19/6) ≈ $2,480.32\)

Rounding up to the nearest hundred dollars, the car's value 19 years later is around $2,500.

To know more about equation visit:

https://brainly.com/question/649785

#SPJ1

Solution

For this case we can find the area like this:

Then we can find the cost per each square inch like this:

Part b

For this case we can do this:

Answer:

I determined it's cherry pie because the typical slice size allows 10 slices and that is enough for 10 people to enjoy it's goodness quite amazing

The first Venn diagram is the Venn diagram that shows a shaded sample space that represents students who are not participating in soccer and track.

A Venn Diagram divides a data-set into separate regions, which are correspond to each activity in the context of the problem.

The intersection region is the region that corresponds to students doing both activities.

For this problem, we want to shade the students that do none of the activities, that is, we want the circles to be empty, hence the first option is the correct option for this problem.

More can be learned about Venn Diagrams at https://brainly.com/question/24713052

#SPJ1

Answer:

17

Step-by-step explanation:

if you subtract 4 from 89, which is the shipping cost. 89 - 4 = 85. Then divided 85 by 5 because that will show how much he paid for them in total, by how much a singular book is. Telling you how many books he bought. 85/5 = 17.

Answer:

A.) 5b+4=89

B.) 17 books

Step-by-step explanation:

To find A.), we must create a linear equation. Let b be the number of books Sam ordered. We write 5b because each book is 5 dollars. Then we add 4 dollars to the equation to represent the shipping fee. Then we write "equals to 89",  because it says that is the total cost. So we get the equation 5b+$4=$89

To find B.), we must solve the equation. Isolate the variable, by subtracting 4 from both sides. We then get 5b=$85. Now we divide by 5 to get only the variable and to get rid of the coefficient. We get b=17. So Sam bought 17 books.

To determine which gym membership is more cost-effective, you would need to compare the total cost for a given period. Let's consider a time frame of one month.

For Gym A, the monthly payment is $50. This means that regardless of how many times you visit the gym, you will pay a fixed amount of $50 each month.

For Gym B, the cost is $10 per visit. To calculate the total cost for a month, you need to estimate the number of times you plan to visit the gym in that period. Let's assume you plan to visit the gym 10 times in a month.

The total cost for Gym B would then be calculated as:

Total Cost for Gym B = Number of Visits * Cost per Visit

Total Cost for Gym B = 10 visits * $10 per visit

Total Cost for Gym B = $100

Comparing the total costs, we find that for Gym A, the monthly payment is $50, and for Gym B, the estimated cost for 10 visits is $100. In this case, Gym A would be the more cost-effective option if you plan to visit the gym at least 10 times in a month. However, if you anticipate visiting the gym less than 10 times in a month, Gym B might be the more affordable choice.

By using basic arithmetic to calculate the total costs based on the given pricing structures, you can make an informed decision regarding the gym membership that fits your budget and lifestyle.

Learn more about Budget here -: brainly.com/question/8647699

#SPJ11

=========================================

Work Shown:

f(x) = x^2 - 2x

f(2) = 2^2 - 2*2 ... replace every x with 2

f(2) = 4 - 4

f(2) = 0

----------------------------

g(x) = 12-8x

g(3) = 12-8*3 ... replace every x with 3

g(3) = 12-24

g(3) = -24

----------------------------

Subtract the results of the previous two sections

f(2) - g(3) = 0 - (-24)

f(2) - g(3) = 0 + 24

f(2) - g(3) = 24

Answer:

4 and one-half miles

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer closest to the correct answer is 4 and one-half miles.

To get the answer, you multiply 3 times the length of one lap which is 1 and \(\frac{3}{8}\) miles.  To multiply the fraction, you take 3 times the top number in the fraction.  So 3 x 1 \(\frac{3}{8}\) = 3 \(\frac{9}{8}\).  The fraction can actually be reduced to 1 and \(\frac{1}{8}\) miles.  So you're total correct answer is 4 and \(\frac{1}{8}\) miles.

The second selection is 3 and \(\frac{1}{2}\) which can also be written as 3 and \(\frac{4}{8}\) to make it easier to determine which answer is correct.  The second answer is therefore \(\frac{5}{8}\) shorter than the correct answer.

The third selection is 4 and \(\frac{1}{2}\) which can be written as 4 and \(\frac{4}{8}\) so it is only \(\frac{3}{8}\) longer than the correct answer.  So this selection is the closest to the actual miles ran.

The answer is c. 36. A permutation is an arrangement of objects in a particular order, and in this case, the word PASS has four distinct letters.

Therefore, the number of distinguishable permutations of the letters of the word PASS is 4! (4 factorial) which is equal to 4 x 3 x 2 x 1, or 24. Since there are no duplicate letters, each permutation is distinct, so the total number of distinguishable permutations is 36.
To understand this better, let's consider an example of a word with four distinct letters: TAPE. There are 4! (4 factorial) possible permutations of the letters in this word, which is equal to 24. Each of these permutations is distinct, so the total number of distinguishable permutations is also 24.
In summary, the number of distinguishable permutations of the letters of the word PASS is 4! (4 factorial) which is equal to 4 x 3 x 2 x 1, or 36.

For more such Questions on Permutation

https://brainly.com/question/12468032

#SPJ11

Answer:

y = -2x + 9

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Use the equation y = mx + c (m being gradient and c being y-intercept)

2) Substitute all the values to get 7 = -2(1) + c

3) Solve to get c:

4) Final answer: y = -2x + 9

Answer:

$87.20

Step-by-step explanation:

The one above is incorrect, It showed up as wrong for me! The correct answer is $87.20

The sales price of the outfit is $87.2.

The correct option is (2).

A ratio or value that may be stated as a fraction of 100 is called a percentage. And it is represented by the symbol '%'.

Given:

Kendra is buying an outfit that is on sale for 20% off.

The original price of the outfit is $109.

The discount,

= 20% of 109

= 20 x 109 / 100

= 21.8

The sales price,

= 109 - 21.8

= 87.2

Therefore, the price is $87.2.

To learn more about the percentage;

https://brainly.com/question/24159063

#SPJ2

The margin of error associated with the confidence interval is 0.02.

The 95% confidence interval for the population proportion is defined as:

p ± z(0.05 / 2) × √[p ( 1 − p )/ n]

We have,

p − z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n ] = 0.73                                     ----------- ( 1 )

p + z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n ] = 0.77                                    ----------- ( 2 )

Adding the above two equations,

p − z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n ] + p + z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n ] = 0.73 + 0.77

2p = 0.73 + 0.77

2p = 1.5

p = 0.75

Now, Subtracting the equations ( 1 ) and (2),

We get,

p − z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n ] - p - z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n ] = 0.73 - 0.77

−2 × z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n ] = -0.44

z( 0.10 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n] = 0.02

The margin of error is defined by the formula:

M E = z(0.05 / 2) × √[ p ( 1 − p )/ n]

Therefore, The margin of error will be:

M E = 0.02

Learn more about margin of error here:

brainly.com/question/10218601

#SPJ4

Check the picture below.

\(\textit{using the pythagorean theorem} \\\\ c^2=a^2+b^2\implies \sqrt{c^2-b^2}=a \qquad \begin{cases} c=hypotenuse\\ a=adjacent\\ b=opposite\\ \end{cases} \\\\\\ \sqrt{19.5^2-18^2}=r\implies \sqrt{56.25}=r \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\)

\(\textit{lateral area of a cone}\\\\ LA=\pi r\sqrt{r^2+h^2}~~ \begin{cases} r=radius\\ h=height\\ \stackrel{slant~height}{\sqrt{r^2+h^2}}\\[-0.5em] \hrulefill\\ r=\sqrt{56.25} \end{cases}\implies \begin{array}{llll} LA=\pi \sqrt{56.25}\stackrel{slant~height}{(19.5)} \\\\\\ LA\approx 459.46~cm^2 \end{array}\)

Answer:

149.7 since you add the two together

If the pennants have a base of 2 meters, the area of one of the larger pennants is 4m².

It is determined by multiplying the length of the rectangle by its width. The formula for area of a rectangle is Area = Length × Width (A = L × W).

To calculate this, we can use the formula for area of a rectangle which is length multiplied by width.

In this case, the length and width of the pennant is both 2 meters, so we can calculate the area by multiplying 2m * 2m= 4m².

The sports team asked Katie to make 30 larger pennants, so the total area of all the pennants will be 120m² (4m² * 30).

This means that the total area of the 30 larger pennants is 120m².

The formula for area of a rectangle can be used to calculate the area of any shape that is rectangular in nature.

Therefore, it can be used to calculate the area of a pennant, or any other shape that is rectangular in nature.

For more questions related to  rectangle

https://brainly.com/question/2607596

#SPJ1

\(\pi \int\limits^6_0 {\frac{26}{3} } \, x^{2} -\frac{1}{9} x^{4} dx\) is the integral that uses the method of disks/washers to find the volume v of the solid obtained by rotating the region bounded by the given curves about the specified lines.

A method for determining the volume of a solid of revolution of a solid-state material while integrating along an axis "parallel" to the axis of revolution is known as disc integration, also known as the disc method in integral calculus.

This technique stacks an endless number of discs with varied radii and minuscule thickness to produce the final three-dimensional form. To create hollow solids of revolutions, the same ideas may also be applied when using rings in place of discs (this is known as the "washer technique").

As opposed to this, shell integration integrates along an axis that is parallel to the axis of revolution. The solution can be seen in the attached images below.

Here is another question with an answer similar to this about disc method: https://brainly.com/question/27338580

#SPJ4

Answer:

1.5 Hours

Step-by-step explanation:

So, 90 minutes is between 1 hour and 2 hours (2 x 60 = 120 minutes). It is exactly half way between, hence 90 minutes is 1 and 1 half hours (or less formally, 1 and a half hours).

or  

90 Minutes = 1.5 Hours = 1 Hour and 30 Minutes. Minutes to hours Time Converter 90 hours to minutes. This conversion of 90 minutes to hours has been calculated by multiplying 90 minutes by 0.0166 and the result is 1.5 hours.