Answers
All perineal injuries should be treated with direct pressure using a sanitary napkin. If at all feasible, let the baby breastfeed.
When the nurse notices a prolapsed chord, what is the safest posture for a lady in labour?If the foetus is viable, position the mother in a head-down tilt in the left lateral position or knee-chest position (patient facing the bed, chest level to bed, knees tucked under chest, pelvis and buttocks elevated) and apply upward pressure against the presenting part to lift the foetus away from the prolapsed cord.
Doing a vaginal exam has the following purposes: Measure the cervix's dilation to determine whether genuine labour has started and what stage it has reached.
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Related Questions
Which of the following is one of the five guidelines identified by the APhA Board of Trustees in 2019 to assist pharmacists in incorporating immunization activities into their practice?A. PreventionB. SolidarityC. QuantityD. Power
Answers
A. Prevention is one of the five guidelines identified by the APhA Board of Trustees in 2019 to assist pharmacists in incorporating immunization activities into their practice.
The other four guidelines are: provision of patient-centered care, professional development, collaboration and coordination, and advocacy.The American Pharmacists Association (APhA) Board of Trustees is the governing body of the APhA. The Board is responsible for setting the strategic direction of the organization and for making decisions on behalf of the membership. The Board is composed of pharmacists elected by the APhA membership, as well as ex-officio members who are appointed or elected to serve in specific roles. The Board meets regularly to discuss and vote on important issues related to the practice of pharmacy and the advancement of the profession.
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an individual arrives in the emergency department in a coma with a possible drug overdose. which drugs would cause the pupils to be dilated and fixed? (select all that apply.)
Answers
The drugs which would cause the pupils to be dilated and fixed include the following below:
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
D. Amphetamines
What is Drug?This is referred to as a chemical substance which is used to treat or cure an illness or disease and there are different types with the unique structure and functions.
Drug overdose on the other hand is referred to as the taking too much of a drug and is as a result of lack of prescription and also the illegal use of these types of drugs.
Drugs such as amphetamines, scopolamine etc have some forms of psychoactive effect in the body system of an individual and it changes the size of the pupil and cause blurred vision which is therefore the reason why option A, B and D was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Opiates
D. Amphetamines
Which client statement indicates understanding of content taught about removing his or her three-way indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation (CBI)
Answers
The client statement tht indicates Deliberate dilution of the client’s urine understanding of content taught about removing his or her three-way indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) is that "probably will experience some burning on urination."
As a result of the trauma to the mucous membranes of the urinary tract, there will be a burning on urination as a known response but it will subside.The urine often slight pink in color due to the trauma from the surgery and the presence of the catheter.
The three-way irrigation catheter is simply known as a big indwelling urinary catheter that comprises of three lumens.
The catheter side by side allows fluid to run into and drain out of the bladder.
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What nutrient provides the body with more stored energy than carbohydrates?
A.Protein
B.Lipids
C. Simple sugar
D.Cholesterol
Answers
Do you think DUN messages are important?
Answers
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
DUN messages refer to "do not use" messages that aim to warn clinicians about potential safety issues with medications.
How do moderate fevers help fight infection?; What is the benefit of a moderate fever?; How does a fever help the immune system?; How does a fever work?
Answers
When we have a moderate fever, the heat helps our immune system by bringing disease-fighting cells quickly to an infection.
Define moderate fever.
The term "moderate fever" refers to a fever that is over 102.2-104F or 39.1-40C.
Whether we're babies, teenagers, or adults, a fever might actually be (mainly) healthy for us. A recent study demonstrates how it moves infection-fighting cells faster to the areas where they will benefit the body.
When you have a fever, your body is attempting to eradicate the bacteria or virus that brought on the infection. When your body is at its normal temperature, the majority of those bacteria and viruses thrive. However, they have a harder time surviving if you have a fever.
Arousing the hypothalamic set point causes vasoconstriction, which reduces heat loss, and the shunting of blood from the periphery, which increases heat production. These processes continue until the blood bathing the hypothalamus reaches the new set point, which causes a fever to develop. Sweating and vasodilation are brought on by lowering the hypothalamic set point, as with antipyretic medications, for example.
Endogenous pyrogens, such as interleukin-1 (IL-1), tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), and IL-6 and other cytokines, which then activate cytokine receptors, or exogenous pyrogens that directly activate Toll-like receptors, are responsible for the development of fever. A crucial role seems to be played by prostaglandin E2 synthesis.
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You are having difficulty drawing blood from a patient and try two successive light-blue–stoppered citrate tubes for the collection of a PT test. Both tubes fill only half full. To avoid redrawing the patient, you pour one tube into the other to make a full tube and send it to the laboratory. Will this affect the test results?
Answers
The anticoagulant will be doubled in the tube and the results will be altered in this scenario.
What are Anticoagulant?These are substances which prevent the clotting of blood and are present in light-blue–stoppered citrate tubes.
When you pour one tube into the other, the anticoagulant will be doubled which will affect the result due to the presence of foreign substances in the tubes.
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Subjective: Here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. No new problems. Feeling well. Medications are per medication sheet. These were reconstituted with the medications that she was discharged home on. Objective: Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Neck is supple. Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Assessment: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. Plan: 1. Prothrombin time to monitor long term use of anticoagulant. 2. Follow up with me in one month or sooner as needed if she has any other problems in the meantime. Will also check a creatinine and potassium today. What diagnosis code(s) are reported
Answers
Diagnosis code(s) are reported :
F03.90M25.511I11.9E11.9Diagnosis codeTo categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field. Diagnostic coding is the process of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization.
In the clinical coding procedure for medical categorization, diagnostic codes are utilized with intervention codes. A medical classification expert such as a clinical coder or a health information manager assigns the diagnostic and intervention codes.
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The nurse, as a leader, is planning to provide information about personal hygiene to a group of clients. Which communication methods should the nurse use to talk to the clients? Select all that apply.
Being sensitive to nonverbal communication
Providing the opportunity for dialogue and feedback
Presenting information that addresses the listener's self-interest
Answers
The nurse, as a leader, is planning to provide information about personal hygiene to a group of clients, communication methods that the nurse should use to talk to the clients are : Being sensitive to nonverbal communication, Providing the opportunity for dialogue and feedback, Presenting information that addresses the listener's self-interest
1. Being sensitive to nonverbal communication: The nurse should pay attention to the nonverbal cues of the clients, such as their facial expressions, body language, and tone of voice. By doing so, the nurse can adjust their communication style to better suit the needs of the clients.
2. Providing the opportunity for dialogue and feedback: The nurse should encourage the clients to ask questions and provide feedback during the presentation. This will help to ensure that the clients fully understand the information being presented and can apply it to their own personal hygiene routines.
3. Presenting information that addresses the listener's self-interest: The nurse should tailor the information being presented to the specific needs and interests of the clients. For example, if the clients are primarily concerned about preventing the spread of infectious diseases, the nurse should focus on the importance of hand hygiene and other measures that can reduce the risk of transmission.
By using these communication methods, the nurse can effectively communicate information about personal hygiene to a group of clients and help to improve their overall health and wellbeing.
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how the current state of higher education negatively influences nursing education and staff development
Answers
The current state of higher education negatively influences nursing education and staff development because there are issues of:
Ethical dilemmas that are not familiar.The issue of credential requirements.The issue of funding for ''public-health"-linked activities, etc.What are the factors affecting nursing education?There are a lot of factors that is said to be inside of the nursing program, as well as outside of the nursing program, that can have an influence on the nursing program as well as its success.
The Sources of external effect on nursing are financial funding, rules and regulations, accreditation, and others.
Hence, The current state of higher education negatively influences nursing education and staff development because there are issues of:
Ethical dilemmas that are not familiar.The issue of credential requirements.The issue of funding for ''public-health"-linked activities, etc.Learn more about higher education from
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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
Answers
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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the four steps for testing a change are:
Answers
The Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle is an acronym for testing a change by organizing it, putting it into practice, evaluating the outcomes, and taking action based on what is discovered.
An improvement project includes four phases: planning, preparation, execution, and closeout. In order to improve teamwork and help organizations run more efficiently, researcher Bruce Wayne Tuckman published "Tuckman's Stages" in 1965.It discussed the four developmental phases that all teams experience throughout time: training, forming, norming, and performing. Write out a work plan, share anecdotes to illustrate why the QI project is personally relevant to people, and create a team roster so everyone is aware of who is on the team and how to contact one another.
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3. A Medical Assistant's friend, who is a patient where she works, asks her to bring home some
antibiotics for her because she cannot afford to pay for them at the pharmacy. Is this a personal or
professional ethical conflict? Provide possible ways the Medical Assistant could reconcile this
conflict. What impact would this have?
Answers
Answer:This is a personal ethical conflict because not only would The medical assistant may lose her his/her job but they can also be charged with a crime the Medical Assistant could reconcile this by telling his/her friend that they would love to help but that is against the law but he/she can go to the pharmacy and help the friend sign up
Explanation:
THIS CAME STRAIGHT FROM MY HEAD AND MY TEACHER SO I HOPE THIS HELPS
How many milliliters (mL) are there in 2 tablespoons?
Answers
Answer:
29.57 mL
Explanation:
tablespoons milliliters
2 tbsp 29.57 mL
3 tbsp 44.36 mL
4 tbsp 59.15 mL
5 tbsp 73.93 mL
A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately:
Answers
Answer:
12 to 18 hours
Explanation:
Select the correct answer.
Dr. Smith and Dr. Walters are leading a team in charge of deciding which new MRI equipment to purchase. They are helping build consensus. What
should be obtained when building consensus?
A. a deadline
B. a report
C. a compromise
D. a milestone
E. an option
Answers
According to the given statement a report should be obtained when building consensus.
What equipment is used in MRI?Large, magnetized tubes make up the majority of MRI equipment. The magnetic field in an MRI scanner causes your body's water molecules to momentarily rearrange. These aligned atoms emit tiny signals that are utilized to make cross-sectional MRI pictures, which resemble the slices of bread.
What are the MRI's fundamental tenets and equipment?Protons inside the body are forced to align with the magnetic field created by the strong magnets used in MRI machines. The protons are activated and spun out of equilibrium when a microwave current is pulsed through the person, which causes them to struggle against the magnetic field.
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a 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department (ed) and is diagnosed with bradycardia. the client tells the nurse that the client is taking donepezil (aricept), a cholinergic agent, for alzheimer's disease. the nurse knows that the drug of choice for bradycardia is:
Answers
A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department and is diagnosed with bradycardia. the client tells the nurse that the client is taking donepezil, a cholinergic agent, for alzheimer's disease. The nurse knows that the drug of choice for bradycardia is atropine.
What is Bradycardia?This refers to a health condition in which the heart beats very slow when compared to the normal rate and is usually fewer than 60 times per minute which is difficult as it may lead to difficulty in breathing etc.
Atropine is the appropriate drug which is used to cure bradycardia because it increases the heart rate and improves the atrioventricular conduction thereby making it the most appropriate choice in this type of condition.
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a toothpaste with high abrasive is recommended to remove plaque. T/F
Answers
Answer:
T
Explanation:
False. A toothpaste with high abrasives is not recommended to remove plaque. In fact, using a toothpaste that is too abrasive can actually damage the enamel on your teeth.
Plaque is best removed through regular brushing and flossing, as well as regular dental cleanings. It is important to choose a toothpaste that contains fluoride, which helps to strengthen tooth enamel and prevent cavities. Additionally, some toothpastes may contain ingredients such as triclosan or hydrogen peroxide, which can help to reduce plaque and prevent gum disease. It is always best to consult with your dentist to determine the best toothpaste for your individual needs.
False. A toothpaste with high abrasiveness is not recommended to remove plaque. Abrasive toothpastes can damage tooth enamel and gum tissue, leading to dental problems. Instead, choose a toothpaste with a moderate level of abrasiveness and fluoride to effectively remove plaque while protecting your teeth and gums. Additionally, proper brushing technique and regular dental check-ups are essential for maintaining good oral hygiene.
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You suspect that Mary has seriously sprained her knee. TO care for Mary you decide to apply a splint to her leg. The splint should immobilize the
Answers
Include the bones above and below the knee, Mary has seriously sprained her knee So, to care for Mary you decide to apply a splint to her leg.
You can probably take care of a grade I or grade II sprain at home. To get specific advice, it would be prudent to speak with a physical therapist.To stop the sprain from getting worse for the first two weeks, rest and protect your knee. You can do this by avoiding physically demanding activities or wearing a knee brace.Additionally, you might apply an elastic bandage to help with the swelling. Additionally, if your degree of discomfort permits, consider performing a few simple physical therapy activities at home.You might use ice or painkillers to lessen the discomfort in the sprained knee. Use them cautiously though, as some research suggests they might slow down the healing process.To know more about sprain check the below link:
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The nurse made an error in documenting
nurse use for correcting a documentation
a patient's care. Which method would the
error in a paper chart?
Answers
Given that the nurse has made this error the way that she would be able to take care of the documentation error would be to draw a single line across the error she made along with her initials then she would follow through with the correct details.
What is meant by documentation error?This is the term that is used to refer to the error that the nurse would make while trying to write on what should be the information as it concerns a patient and the medication that they are to adhere to.
When she makes such an error she has to take the measure above before she would go ahead to do the right thing on paper. The nurse has to change this so that she would be able to communicate what is to be the correct information to the right people. If she keeps it as it was without corrections, she would be sending the wrong messages and this may bring confusions as well as misunderstanding.
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2. The growth plate is also known as the
a. Articular cartilage
b. Diaphysis
c. Epiphyseal plate
d. Lamella
e. Lacuna
Answers
Answer:
The epiphyseal plate is the answer ok
ASAP plzzzzzzzz
A midline incision below the
isthmus of the thyroid gland
is performed. Which of the
following vessels are most
likely to be present at the site
?of incision
Cricothyroid artery and inferior
thyroid vein.
O
Middle thyroid vein and inferior
thyroid artery.
Inferior thyroid vein and thyroidea
ima artery
O O O O
Inferior thyroid artery and inferior
thyroid vein.
Left brachiocephalic vein and
inferior thyroid artery.
Answers
Answer: inferior thyroid vein and thyroid Ima artery
Explanation:
Component of choice for the treatment of hemorrhagic episode during intensive chemotherapy:_____.
Answers
The component of choice for the treatment of a hemorrhagic episode during intensive chemotherapy can be platelet transfusion.
Platelets are blood cell fragments involved in clot formation, and they play a crucial role in controlling bleeding. During intensive chemotherapy, the bone marrow's ability to produce platelets may be compromised, leading to a decrease in their count and an increased risk of bleeding. In the case of a hemorrhagic episode, platelet transfusion can be administered to rapidly increase the platelet count and promote clotting, helping to stop or control the bleeding.
It's important to note that the decision to administer platelet transfusion or any other specific treatment for a hemorrhagic episode during intensive chemotherapy should be made by a healthcare professional, such as an oncologist or hematologist, based on the individual patient's condition, clinical factors, and appropriate management guidelines.
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What type of blood disorder caused by an infection
Answers
a client is complaing of chest pain, the client is on terbutaline and propranolol. what contraindications can lead to chest pain in a client on these medications
Answers
Given that they have opposite physiological effects, propranolol and terbutaline combined may diminish the therapeutic benefits of both drugs.
Additionally, propranolol has the potential to occasionally restrict the airways, which could exacerbate breathing issues or lead to severe asthmatic attacks. When used in conjunction with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants, or within two weeks of stopping these medications, terbutaline should be used extremely cautiously because it may increase their effects on the vascular system. Additionally, propranolol is contraindicated in those with bradycardia because its primary side effect is to lower the heart rate (less than 60 beats per minute).
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what is the effector cells?
Answers
Answer: the relatively short-lived activated cells that defend the body in an immune response
Explanation - So they basically respond to short lived cells -v-
BM40006E Molecular Biology Module: Assessment A3
4
Question 7
The image below summarizes the process of RNA spicing
A: which number in the image above corresponds to the lariat structure?
Answers
RNA splicing is a crucial process in the nucleus where introns are removed, exons are joined, and a mature mRNA transcript is formed. Splicing is mediated by the spliceosome and coupled to transcription, ensuring proper gene expression and protein isoform generation.
RNA splicing is a process that takes place within the nucleus of a cell. During this process, specific sequences within an RNA molecule, known as introns, are removed, while other sequences, known as exons, are spliced together to form the mature mRNA transcript. The lariat structure corresponds to number 3. The internal branch point corresponds to number 4. The intron/exon boundary corresponds to number 2. The 5’ end of the RNA corresponds to number 1. The 3’ end of the RNA corresponds to the number 7. The protein/RNA complexes that are responsible for mediating the splicing reaction are called the spliceosome. Splicing is coupled to transcription, which helps to ensure that the introns are removed in the correct order.RNA splicing is a highly regulated process that is essential for gene expression in eukaryotes. The process involves the removal of non-coding regions known as introns from the pre-mRNA molecule, which is then spliced together to form the mature mRNA transcript. The splicing reaction is mediated by the spliceosome, which is a large protein/RNA complex that recognizes specific RNA sequences and catalyzes the splicing reaction. The splicing process is coupled to transcription, which ensures that introns are removed in the correct order. This process is essential for the regulation of gene expression and the generation of diverse protein isoforms.For more questions on RNA
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The correct question would be as
The image below summarizes the process of RNA splicing A: which number in the image above corresponds to the lariat structure? B: which number in the image above corresponds to the internal branch point? C: which number in the image above corresponds to the intron/exon boundary? D: which number in the image above corresponds to the 5’ end of the RNA? E: which number in the image above corresponds to the 3’ end of the RNA? F: which protein/RNA complexes are responsible for mediating the splicing reaction? G: which process is splicing coupled to in order to ensure the introns are removed in the correct order?
What points would the nurse discuss when teaching cane walking to a client for the first time.
Answers
The nurse should Instruct the client to advance the cane 4 to 12 in (10 to 30 cm) and then to advance the weaker foot forward, parallel to the cane, while maintaining balance on the stronger leg and the cane.
The client should hold the cane with your stronger (or uninjured) side facing forward.Verify that the top of the cane touches the crease in the wrist by standing up straight. The elbow should be slightly bent while they grip your cane.To avoid falling, keep the cane away from the feet.Move cautiously.Place the cane roughly one tiny stride ahead of they as you begin to walk. Next, take a step on the damaged side. With the sound leg, complete the step.Learn how to climb stairs safely. Use the hand opposite your damaged (or weaker) side to hold your cane. If you can, use your free hand to hold onto a handrail.Next, take the cane and the weaker leg to the same step. Take it gradually and one step at a time.learn more about nurse here: https://brainly.com/question/6685374
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when can a gag reflex return after ERCP postoperative
Answers
Answer:
Typically, you can go home after the sedation wears off, which takes about an hour or two. Someone else should plan to drive you home. You can drink clear fluids when your gag reflex returns, which can take two to four hours. After that, you may resume your usual diet unless instructed otherwise.
Explanation:
why we can’t open the tube and addition more saliva in collection of saliva
Answers
Reopening the tube to try to introduce more saliva is not advised. When the tube is open, do not place it on top of a table. It'll topple over.
Technologies in salivary bioscience, such electrophoresis, are frequently used to diagnose the state of a person's overall health. Since the sample is simple to gather and the process is affordable and non-invasive, saliva sampling has become a popular way for making diagnoses.
Even the possibility of substituting salivary diagnostics for serum protein indicators has been noted. The best method for gathering saliva hasn't yet been determined, though.
When handling samples from healthy volunteers in many scientific contexts, such as randomised controlled trials, sampling and statistical errors frequently occur. These mistakes may result from volunteer psychology, subject nonadherence, questionnaire parameters, data collection techniques, or sample processing.
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