a ship sails 400km in 18hours.how many days will it take to cover 1600km at the same rate?​

Let the numbers are x and y

and x is larger than y

so, 5 times the larger + 3 times the smaller = 47

So, 5x + 3y = 47

And 4 times the larger - 2 the smaller = 20

so, 4x - 2y = 20

so, we have :

5x + 3y = 47 (1)

4x - 2y = 20 (2)

solve for x and y

Multiply eq.(1) by 2 and eq.(2) by 3

10x + 6y = 94

12x - 6y = 60

Add the last 2 equations:

22x = 154

x = 154/22 = 7

so,

5 * 7 + 3y = 47

3y = 47 - 5*7 = 12

y = 12/3 = 4

So, the numbers are 7 and 4

Based on the information given, we know that the two triangles have two pairs of congruent angles. This is sufficient to prove that the two triangles are congruent using the AAS (Angle-Angle-Side) postulate. Therefore, the method I would use to prove the two triangles congruent is **AAS**.

Answer:

Train B travels faster

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachment for complete question

Since both trains are travelling at constant speed, we can pick any non zero equivalents of distance and time to calculate the rate at which they both travel.

For Train A

\(Distance = 12.5m\)

\(Time = 1s\)

\(Rate = Distance/Time\)

\(Rate = 12.5m/1s\)

\(Rate = 12.5m/s\)

For Train B

\(Distance = 100m\)

\(Time = 4s\)

\(Rate = Distance/Time\)

\(Rate = 100m/4s\)

\(Rate = 25m/s\)

By comparison:

\(25m/s > 12.5m/s\)

Hence,

Train B travels faster

The 99% confidence interval for the population proportion p is (0.776, 0.824).

To find the 99% confidence interval for a proportion, we can use the formula:

CI = p^ ± z*(SE)

where p^ is the sample proportion, SE is the standard error, and z is the critical value from the standard normal distribution corresponding to the level of confidence.

For a 99% confidence interval, the critical value z is 2.576.

Substituting the given values into the formula, we have:

CI = 0.80 ± 2.576*(0.03/√200)

Simplifying this expression, we have:

CI = 0.80 ± 0.024

This means that we are 99% confident that the true population proportion falls between 0.776 and 0.824. We can interpret this interval as a range of plausible values for the population proportion, based on the sample data.

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Answer: 4.1 is the answer.

Answer:

4.1

Step-by-step explanation:

When rounding up decimals, if it is 5 or greater than 5, add 1 to the left decimal and if it is less than 5, leave the left decimal as it is.

In 4.06, the decimal digit 6 is greater than 5 so we add 1 to the left decimal digit which is 0 and 4.06 becomes 4.1

The function represented by the graph with the given transformations is |–x| + 2.

The function represented by the given transformations is |–x| + 2.

Let's analyze the transformations step by step:

Reflection across the x-axis:

Reflecting the parent absolute value function across the x-axis changes the sign of the function. The positive slopes become negative, and the negative slopes become positive. This transformation is denoted by a negative sign in front of the function.

Translation right 2 units:

Translating the function right 2 units shifts the entire graph horizontally to the right. This transformation is denoted by subtracting the value being translated from the input of the function.

Combining these transformations, the function |–x| + 2 results. The negative sign reflects the function across the x-axis, and the subtraction of 2 units translates it right. The absolute value is applied to the negated x, ensuring that the function always returns a positive value.

Thus, the function represented by the graph with the given transformations is |–x| + 2.

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Answer: -lx-2l

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of years it would it take for there to be one person for every square yard is 108,325.68 years.

When there is one person for every square yard, it means that the population and land area are equal in value.

Number of years = (In FV / PV) / r

(In 19 billion / 4,079,000) / 0.043 = 108,325.68 years

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Answer:

4/9 = 1/2 x

Step-by-step explanation:  2.84 sands

Answer:

7 and 18

Step-by-step explanation

Use guess and check

Answer:

keep the model answer photo

Answer:

The coordinates of point X that divides the line in 1:4 are: (3,8/5)

Step-by-step explanation:

When a point divides a line with coordinates (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) in ratio m:n,

the coordinates of point are given by:

\((x,y) = (\frac{mx_2+nx_1}{m+n} , \frac{my_2+ny_1}{m+n})\)

Given points are:

(x1,y1) = (5,1)

(x2,y2) = (-5,4)

Putting the values in the formula

\(X(x,y) = (\frac{(1)(-5)+(4)(5)}{1+4} , \frac{(1)(4)+(4)(1)}{1+4})\\= (\frac{-5+20}{5}, \frac{4+4}{5})\\=(\frac{15}{5}, \frac{8}{5})\\=(3,\frac{8}{5})\)

Hence,

The coordinates of point X that divides the line in 1:4 are: (3,8/5)

Answer:

1/9x

Step-by-step explanation:

The parenthesis around the 9x means that the -1 exponent goes to the whole thing (the 9x) To "fix" a negative exponent push the 9x across a fraction bar to make the exponent positive. When you push the 9x down across a fraction bar that leaves a 1 on top of the fraction, that has nothing to do with the 1 exponent. Its a 1 on top because when you push the 9x down there is nothing left on top so it is a 1.

(9x)^-1

= 1/9x

To be clear, this is a 1 one top and a 9x on the bottom of a fraction.

Answer:

  $42

Step-by-step explanation:

You want the price with tax of a $35 pair of shoes subject to a 20% tax.

The tax is the cost of the shoes multiplied by the tax rate. The final price is the sum of the cost of the shoes and the tax:

  final price = price + price × tax rate

  final price = price × (1 + tax rate) = $35 × 1.20 = $42

The final price of the shoes is $42.

Answer:

42$

Step-by-step explanation:

tax increase will be

20% of 35$

= 20/100 × 35

= 7$

Final price = Old price + Tax

= 35 + 7

= 42$

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A counterclockwise rotation of 270° to triangle LMN would produce an image with this coordinates: L' (-1, 9), M' (-4, 3), and N' (-8, 5).

By applying this translation rule (x, y) - (x + 7, y - 2) to triangle LMN would produce an image with this coordinates: L' (-7, -3), M' (-1, -6), and N' (-3, -10).

In Geometry, the rotation of a point 270° about the origin in a counterclockwise direction would produce a point that has the coordinates (y, -x).

By applying a counterclockwise rotation of 270° to triangle LMN, the coordinates of triangle L'M'N' would be given by:

(x, y)                           →               (y, -x)

Points at L = (-9, -1)   →  Points at L' = (-1, -(-9)) = (-1, 9)

Points at M = (-3, -4)   →  Points at M' = (-4, -(-3)) = (-4, 3).

Points at N = (-5, -8)   →  Points at N' = (-8, -(-5)) = (-8, 5).

Next, we would translate triangle LMN by applying this translation rule (x, y) - (x + 7, y - 2):

Points at L = (-9, -1)   →  Points at L' = (-9 + 2, -1 - 2) = (-7, -3)

Points at M = (-3, -4)   →  Points at M' = (-3 + 2, -4 - 2) = (-1, -6).

Points at N = (-5, -8)   →  Points at N' = (-5 + 2, -8 - 2) = (-3, -10).

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter:  

     \(P=(x+y+z) \ cm\)

Semi-perimeter:

     \(SP=\frac{1}{2} (x+y+z) \ cm\)

Answer: 50 and 59

I divided 2950 by 25 because I knew it would somehow factor into that since it ends in 50. Then, I got 25 and 118. From there, I just divided 118 by 2 since I knew that it would end in a 9 and I multiplied 25 by 2. Not sure if this is really helpful, but you also try using a GCF calculator and look up all the factors of that number next time!

Hi!

Remember that an x-intercept is a point in which the line touches the x-axis (the horizontal line). And, the y-intercept is a point in which the line touches the y-axis (the vertical/up and down line)

-----------------

For A)

The coordinate of the y-intercept is (0,1)

The coordinate of the x-intercept is (3,0)

For B)

The coordinate of the y-intercept is (0,0)

The coordinate of the x-intercept is (0,0) !

*both the x and y axis meet at the origin. So, a line that goes through the origin (0,0) is intersecting with BOTH the x and y-axis.

Hope I helped! Comment if you have any questions or concerns.

-Gabby5792

The complete table using the function rule is

-1 = 4

0 = -2

1 = -8

5 = -32

This is further explained below.

Generally, The link between a dependent variable and an independent variable, expressed in the form of an equation, is known as a function rule. The function rule for a certain function provides an explanation of how to compute the value of the dependent variable, denoted by y, in terms of the value of the independent variable, denoted by x.

In conclusion, The table  values

-1 = 4

0 = -2

1 = -8

5 = -32

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Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that sin(13x) = cos(9x+2)

Since sintheta  = cos(90 - theta)

hence sin (13x) = cos (90 -13x)

Substitute into the original equation

cos (90 -13x) = cos(9x+2)

90-13x = 9x+2

-13x - 9x = 2 - 90

-22x = -88

x = 88/22

x = 4

Hence the value of x is 4

Answer:

-56

Step-by-step explanation:

(6 ✕–8) – 8

–48–8

= –56

Answer:

\(\sf 1. \quad \dfrac{3}{8}\)

\(\sf 2. \quad \dfrac{7}{24}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Spinner 1 is divided into 6 congruent sections.

There are 3 red sections, 2 blue sections and 1 yellow section.

Therefore, the probability of spinning each of the three colors is:

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(R_1)=\dfrac{3}{6}=\dfrac{1}{2}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(B_1)=\dfrac{2}{6}=\dfrac{1}{3}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(Y_1)=\dfrac{1}{6}\)

Spinner 2 is divided into 3 sections of differing sizes.

The red section is half of the spinner. The blue and yellow sections are quarters of the spinner.

Therefore, the probability of spinning each of the three colors is:

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(R_2)=\dfrac{1}{2}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(B_2)=\dfrac{1}{4}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(Y_2)=\dfrac{1}{4}\)

If each spinner is spun once, then:

The probability that both spinners both show red is:

\(\sf P(R_1)\;and\;P(R_2)=\dfrac{1}{2} \times \dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{4}\)

The probability that both spinners both show blue is:

\(\sf P(B_1)\;and\;P(B_2)=\dfrac{1}{3} \times \dfrac{1}{4}=\dfrac{1}{12}\)

The probability that both spinners both show yellow is:

\(\sf P(Y_1)\;and\;P(Y_2)=\dfrac{1}{6} \times \dfrac{1}{4}=\dfrac{1}{24}\)

Therefore, the probability that both spinners show the same colour is:

\(\sf P(R_1\;\&\;R_2)\;or\;P(B_1\;\&\;B_2)\;or\;P(Y_1\;\&\;Y_2)=\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{24}=\dfrac{9}{24}=\dfrac{3}{8}\)

If each spinner is spun once, the probability of getting a red from spinner 1 and a blue from spinner 2 is:

\(\sf P(R_1)\;and\;P(B_2)=\dfrac{1}{2} \times \dfrac{1}{4}=\dfrac{1}{8}\)

The probability of getting a blue from spinner 1 and a red from spinner 2 is:

\(\sf P(B_1)\;and\;P(R_2)=\dfrac{1}{3} \times \dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{6}\)

Therefore, the probability of getting a red-blue combination is:

\(\sf P(R_1\;\&\;B_2)\;or\;P(B_1\;\&\;R_2)=\dfrac{1}{8}+\dfrac{1}{6}=\dfrac{7}{24}\)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

For each of the following data sets, a. Create a scatterplot. b. Use LinReg (ax + b) to determine the best fit line and r.  Does the line seem to accurately describe the pattern in the data? c. For each of the different choices listed in the above chart, find the equation of the best fit curve and its associated r2 value. Of all of the curves, which seems to provide the best fit? Note: The r2 -value reported in each case is NOT the linear correlation coefficient reported when running LinReg(ax+B) Rather, the value will typically change depending on the curve. The reason why is that each time, the  -value is measuring how accurate the fit is between the data and that type of curve. A value r2 of  close to 1 still corresponds to a good fit with whichever curve you are fitting to the data.

Answer:

x =23/11, y =4/11

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract equation 1 from equation 2

2x-x + 5y-(-3) =6-1

x + 8y = 5

make x the subject of formula

x = 5-8y(equation#)

substitute x = 5-8y in equation 1

5-8y-3y = 1

5-11y = 1

collect like terms

5-1 = 11y

4= 11y

divide both sides by 11

4/11 = 11y/11

y = 4/11

put y = 4/11 in equation #

x = 5-8(4/11)

x = 5-32/11

LCM= 11

x = 55-32/11

x = 23/11

so, x =23/11, y = 4/11

Based on the description, the total area of the figure would be 45 square meters.

To find the total area of the figure, we need to divide it into two triangles and one rectangle.

The rectangle has a base of 9 meters and a height of 4 meters, so its area is 9 x 4 = 36 square meters.

The two triangles each have a base of 3 meters and a height of 3 meters, so each triangle has an area of 1/2 x 3 x 3 = 4.5 square meters.

Therefore, the total area of the figure is the sum of the area of the rectangle and the two triangles:

36 + 4.5 + 4.5 = 45 square meters

So the answer is 45 m2.

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Answer:

When \(x=0\), the value of f(x) is 1.

Each time x increases by 1, f(x) is multiplied by 4.

Equation of function: \(f(x)=1\cdot 4^x\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The detailed explanation is attached below.

The measure of the complement of a 1-degree angle is 89 degrees.

The complement of an angle is defined as the angle that, when added to the given angle, results in a sum of 90 degrees. To find the measure of the complement of a 1-degree angle, we need to determine the angle that, when added to 1 degree, equals 90 degrees.

Let's denote the measure of the complement as x degrees. According to the definition, we can set up the equation:

1 degree + x degrees = 90 degrees.

To solve for x, we need to isolate it on one side of the equation. By subtracting 1 degree from both sides, we have:

x degrees = 90 degrees - 1 degree.

Simplifying the right side, we get:

x degrees = 89 degrees.

In summary, when an angle measures 1 degree, its complement measures 89 degrees. Complementary angles are pairs of angles that add up to 90 degrees. In this case, since the given angle measures only 1 degree, its complement is significantly larger, nearly forming a right angle. The concept of complementary angles is fundamental in geometry and can be applied to various problems involving angles and their relationships.

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