The nurse in the pre-natal clinic should explain the pregnant client in the third trimester that the esophageal Spencer relaxes and allows acid to be regurgitated.
Heartburn, also known as pyrosis, is a condition that develops in the second part of pregnancy as a result of esophageal sphincter relaxation and acid regurgitation. The issue is exacerbated by delayed stomach emptying brought on by impaired gastric motility and stomach displacement brought on by uterine expansion. During pregnancy, gastric motility is diminished. The amount of acid that is regurgitated into the esophagus is reduced or eliminated when the stomach pH rises because the gastric secretions become more alkaline. Acid does not enter the small intestine and the pyloric sphincter does not relax.
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Suppose a member of your family has become increasingly depressed in recent months, and it’s apparent that the person needs treatment. You’re chosen to look into the options and to make decisions about the treatment.
A member of your family has become increasingly depressed in recent months, and it’s apparent that the person needs treatment in following ways-
In the process of deciding about a plan of action for the treatment of a family member’s depression. The first step would be to assist the severity of symptoms and determine the level of disintegration of The loved one into depression. Thus, if it isn’t found that the person has lost appetite, lacks the will to leave home, has terminated work and social life then a psychiatric or medical treatment would be sought. This is because, drug therapy under psychiatric treatment can bring symptoms under control and other psychotherapeutic techniques can be easily done with this programme. The latter form of therapy could help the family member deal with his or her emotional difficulties, negative and bad thoughts and beliefs, conflicting emotions by developing a greater insight into his her emotional and behavioral strengths and weaknesses, replace self defeating thoughts with more adaptive beliefs such as that emphasised by Cognitive Behvaioral Therapy. Such a therapy model would gradually increase family member’s capacity to adapt or difficult circumstances and ultimately be able to develop more nurturing relationship skills and successful and healthy work roles.To know more about depression visit :
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It originates at sea.
tornado
earthquake
hurricane
tornado
warning
watch
Answer:
it's a hurricane
Explanation:
what grade ru in?
Which of the following is true about hostility directed at pregnant working women? A. The stereotypes of mothers and pregnant women is that they are less committed to their work, which is found to be a truthful stereotype. B. Employers worry about decreased productivity. C. Employers still worry about how much it will cost in maternity leave, but that is now not an issue in the US because the government pays for parental leaves. D. A, B, & Care all correct answers,
The following is true about hostility directed at pregnant working women: B. Employers worry about decreased productivity. Hostility directed at pregnant working women are real and exists in the workplace. According to studies, pregnant women are perceived as less committed to their
work and are often targets of hostile behaviors directed at them by their coworkers. This is due to stereotypes of mothers and pregnant women that are often not truthful. Pregnancy discrimination can lead to decreased productivity and increases costs associated with replacing skilled workers.
Employers who discriminate against pregnant women can face legal action and penalties. Maternity leave is still a major concern for employers, particularly small business owners who may not be able to afford the costs associated with providing paid leave. The government does not provide paid parental leave in the US, but some employers do offer it as part of their benefits package.
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Who most likely qualifies for government health insurance? Check all that apply.
hospital administrator
soldier in the US military
seventy-year-old retired farmer
famous actress
The individuals who most likely qualify for government health insurance are B. seventy-year-old retired farmer and C. soldier in the US military
Seventy-year-old retired farmer: In many countries, including the United States, government health insurance programs such as Medicare or Medicaid often provide coverage for elderly individuals. Medicare is a federal health insurance program that primarily serves people aged 65 and older, while Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides health coverage to low-income individuals, including some older adults.
Soldier in the US military: Active-duty military personnel and their families typically qualify for government health insurance through the Department of Defense's TRICARE program. TRICARE provides comprehensive healthcare coverage for service members and their dependents.
It is important to note that eligibility for government health insurance programs can vary based on specific criteria, such as income level, employment status, and military service. The hospital administrator and famous actress mentioned in the options may or may not qualify for government health insurance based on their individual circumstances, such as their income level or access to employer-sponsored health insurance. Therefore, Option B and C is correct.
The question was incomplete. find the full content below:
Who most likely qualifies for government health insurance? Check all that apply.
A. hospital administrator
B. soldier in the US military
C. seventy-year-old retired farmer
D. famous actress
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How do the trillions of cells in the human body get what they need to function, and what do the cells do with the things they absorb
Cell is commonly described as the functional and structural unit of life which contains proteins and biomolecules required to ensure normal bodily functions.
Cells require energy and macronutrients which are obtained from the nutrients supplied majorly from the food we eat which when broken down contains these macronutrients required to ensure cell functionality.
The transport of blood and water requires energy which is supplied cell functions, similarly, repair to worn out tissues are effected by the macronutrients in proteins found in the cell.
Hence, the food we eat plays major role in activating normal cell functions.
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Cells get energy to function from the foods humans consume. After absorption things are used as energy.
Before our cells can utilize the proteins, lipids, and polysaccharides that make up the majority of the food humans consume—either as a source of energy or as building blocks for other molecules—they must first be broken down into smaller molecules. Food consumed from the outside must be broken down, but not the macromolecules found inside our own cells.
Energy and macronutrients are needed by cells, and these nutrients are found mostly in the food we eat, which, when broken down, includes the macronutrients needed to maintain cell activity.
Similar to how cell processes are powered by macronutrients present in proteins, the transfer of blood and water and the mending of worn-out tissues are both impacted by these nutrients.
Thus, food is the major source of energy for the cells.
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What is the major contribution to medical science made by alexander the great?
Answer:
See ExplanationExplanation:
"Alexander the Great" embraced the concept of “a healthy mind in a healthy body,” and their view of medicine incorporated both physical and mental wellbeing.
Faith is a patient who always disrupts the clinic. She is constantly complaining about everything from the moment he enters until the moment she leaves. Izzy is at the desk when she arrives to check out and pay her bill. When Izzy tells Faith that she has previous balance, she starts to argue with her and tells her she did not complete the paperwork properly. Izzy is not in charge of completing the paperwork and does not handle the billing. How can Izzy be courteous with Faith?
Answer: By telling faith that its not her job
Explanation:
5
Select the correct answer.
Cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby's cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby’s visual development. Which is the best way for her to do that?
A. by letting the baby watch television programs
B. by exposing the baby to fast moving objects
C. by limiting the baby's exposure to bright colors
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors
Answer:
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors
Explanation:
Newborns find high contrast colors easier to pick out.
They cannot see far away (more than 30 cm), so answer A is incorrect. Newborn sight is fuzzy and they are just learning to track objects with their eyes, so answer B is also incorrect.
the diamond shaped area between the thighs, bordered by the pubic symphysis, ischial tuberosities, and coccyx is the
The diamond-shaped area between the thighs, bordered by the pubic symphysis, ischial tuberosities, and coccyx, is commonly referred to as the perineum. This area is an important part of the human anatomy and is responsible for a variety of functions such as urination, defecation, and sexual intercourse.
The pubic symphysis is a joint located at the front of the pelvis where the two pubic bones meet. It is a fibrocartilaginous joint that provides stability and support for the pelvis. The ischial tuberosities are the bony protrusions located at the base of the pelvis where we sit. The coccyx, or tailbone, is the small bone located at the very bottom of the spine. The perineum is made up of a complex network of muscles, nerves, and blood vessels that work together to provide support and control over the various functions it performs. It is also an area that is susceptible to injury and trauma during childbirth, surgery, or other activities. Overall, the perineum and its components, including the pubic symphysis, ischial tuberosities, and coccyx, play an important role in our daily lives and should be properly cared for to maintain optimal function and health.
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Summarize the whole process step by step how your muscles enable you to do a
sit-up.
Start by lying on your back. Bend your knees at a 90-degree angle, with your feet flat on the floor. Put your fingertips on the back of your ears. Your elbows should be bent and pointing out at your sides. Lift your torso up as close to your thighs as possible. Do this with a smooth, steady motion, keeping your feet flat on the floor. When you’re done lifting your torso, your lower back should be off the floor. Lower your torso down to the floor so you’re back in the starting position.
stored form of sugar in the human body
Answer:
glucose? or maybe insulin.
Explanation:
Answer: glycogen
Explanation:
Glucose is the main source of fuel for our cells. When the body doesn't need to use the glucose for energy, it stores it in the liver and muscles. This stored form of glucose is made up of many connected glucose molecules and is called glycogen.
In what category of drug are amphetamines?
O Narcotics
O Depressants
O Stimulants
O Hallucinogens
the answer is the 3rd one / C
Explanation:
Amphetamines are stimulant drugs
give me BRAINLIEST pls
a client reports an itchy, bumpy scar around an old wound that is identified as a keloid. this occurs due to the increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ. which term best describes this condition?
A client reports an itchy, bumpy scar around an old wound that is identified as a keloid. this occurs due to the increase in the number of cells in a tissue, the term that best describes this condition is hyperplasia.
Hyperplasia refers to the increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, leading to its enlargement. In the case of keloids, there is an overproduction of fibroblast cells and excessive deposition of collagen, causing the formation of a raised, thick, and itchy scar. This scar extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound, making it different from a typical scar.
Keloids can result from various skin injuries, including surgical incisions, burns, or even minor scratches. They can be challenging to treat and may recur even after removal. Treatment options include corticosteroid injections, silicone gel sheeting, cryotherapy, laser therapy, and surgery. It is important to consult a healthcare professional to determine the most suitable treatment for the individual case.
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Status epilepticus is seizure activity that lasts longer than five minutes or when seizures occur one right after the other in a short amount of time. True or false?.
True
I have epilepsy so I'm very aware of what it is lol. If you need a more in-depth explanation, here it is.
A seizure that lasts longer than 5 minutes, or having more than 1 seizure within a 5 minutes period, without returning to a normal level of consciousness between episodes is called status epilepticus. This is a medical emergency that may lead to permanent brain damage or death.
1. Explain how your scores compare to the Healthy Fitness Zone Standards. Based on this comparison, what should you do next
Answer:
My score are good.
Explanation:
My score are good because there is little difference and more similarities between my score and Healthy Fitness Zone Standards. Based on this comparison, we should follow the next level fitness due to promotion to the next level of fitness. If my score in every level is satisfactory so I will completed all the levels in a short period of time otherwise it takes too much time. I need more hard work to do it earlier.
Which of the following are benefits of common drugs?
Choose 3 correct answers.
Addiction
Correction of hormone imbalances
Defense against diseases
Overdose
Death of healthy cells
Pain relief
Answer:
Explanation:
The benefits of medicines are the helpful effects you get when you use them, such as lowering blood pressure, curing infection, or relieving pain. The risks of medicines are the chances that something unwanted or unexpected could happen to you when you use them.
Vicodin (hydrocodone/acetaminophen) ...
Simvastatin (Generic for Zocor) ...
Lisinopril (Generic for Prinivil or Zestril) ...
Levothyroxine (generic for Synthroid) ...
Azithromycin (generic for Zithromax, Z-PAK) ...
Metformin (generic for Glucophage) ...
Lipitor (atorvastatin) ...
Amlodipine (generic for Norvasc)
The purpose of this assignment is to evaluate the nutritional composition of a diet and the lab values from a patient with NAFLD, Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease. This will help you to make the connections between dietary intake, lab values, and liver disease to suggest practical recommendations for your future patients with this condition. The information gathered here will also provide a foundation for the final project (Patient Education Handout) that you will create at the end of the term.
Learning Outcome:
Students will:
Identify risk factors for NAFLD
Identify the dietary and lifestyle components to treat & prevent NAFLD.
Identify the differences between NAFLD and alcoholic-related liver disease.
Identify appropriate management of NAFLD
Step 2 Attach the Draft Patient Education Handout to a Post
It's important to work with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian to develop an individualized nutrition plan for patients with NAFLD.
What is Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease?A healthy diet for patients with NAFLD should include:
High fiber: Consuming high-fiber foods can help to reduce inflammation and improve insulin sensitivity. Include foods like whole grains, fruits, and vegetables.
Lean protein: Choose lean protein sources like skinless chicken, fish, and legumes to reduce the intake of saturated and trans fats.
Healthy fats: Incorporate healthy fats like olive oil, avocado, nuts, and seeds to improve insulin sensitivity and reduce inflammation.
Low sugar: Limit intake of added sugars and high-glycemic index carbohydrates to help improve insulin sensitivity.
Limit alcohol: Avoid or limit alcohol intake as it can increase the risk of liver damage.
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The hallux is the __digit of the foot.
Answer:
it is the fifth digit of the foot
Explanation:
it is the innermost of tetraphods(animals that have four limbs
A nursing instructor is leading a group discussion on congenital hydrocephalus. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which factor that determines the noncommunicating type?
Answer:
Hydrocephalus is produced when there is an imbalance between the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced by the choroid plexus and its absorption into the bloodstream. It is a congenital disease that can be divided into two major classes: communicating and non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus is caused by blockage of the CSF circulation pathway after exit from the ventricles, while the non-communicating type is caused by the obstruction of one or more ventricles in the brain. Thus, the disruption of the ventricular zone (i.e., both the obstruction within a ventricle and the connection between ventricles) is known to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, while the factors associated with communicating hydrocephalus include insufficient CSF reabsorption, excessive CSF production and defective flow of CSF.
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Janet is having difficulty with stiff joints and sore muscles. She's considering massage therapy to help alleviate these problems because she knows that it works on the body's
______ tissues and muscles to reduce stress and pain.
the answer is soft tissues!!!!!!!
plato/Edmentum thats why!
Quorum sensing affects biofilm development through control of __________.
Quorum sensing affects biofilm development through control of gene expression. Quorum sensing is a method of communication employed by bacteria to detect and respond to population density via the synthesis, secretion, and perception of autoinducers.
Significant changes in gene expression occur when bacteria reach a high population density, allowing the population to act as a collective, which can have a substantial impact on biofilm development. The ability of a bacterial population to sense the density of cells in its environment is referred to as quorum sensing, which controls a variety of traits in microorganisms, including biofilm formation and virulence factors.
Quorum sensing enables bacteria to interact with one another, allowing them to form biofilms and increase their survival in various niches. When bacteria sense the presence of other bacteria through quorum sensing, they may create biofilms, which are often observed as colonies or mats in various environments. Therefore, it can be concluded that Quorum sensing affects biofilm development through control of gene expression.
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List 11 body systems and give:
The main function of the system
• One disorder associated with the system listed
• One test ordered for the disorder listed
• The color top tube the sample is collected in for the disorder listed
• The laboratory department the sample is analyzed in
Answer:
Diagnostic tests and procedures are vital tools that help physicians confirm or rule out a neurological disorder or other medical condition. A century ago, the only way to make a definite diagnosis for many neurological disorders was to perform an autopsy after someone had died. Today, new instruments and techniques allow scientists to assess the living brain and monitor nervous system activity as it occurs. Doctors now have powerful and accurate tools to better diagnose disease and to test how well a particular therapy may be working.
Perhaps the most significant changes during the past 10 years have occurred in genetic testing and diagnostic imaging. Much has been learned from sequencing the human genome (the complete set of a person’s genes) and developing new technologies that detect genetic mutations. Improved imaging techniques provide high-resolution images that allow physicians to view the structure of the brain. Specialized imaging methods can visualize changes in brain activity or the amounts of particular brain chemicals. Scientists continue to improve these methods to provide more detailed diagnostic information.
Researchers and physicians use a variety of diagnostic imaging techniques and chemical and metabolic tests to detect, manage, and treat neurological disease. Many tests can be performed in a physician’s office or at an outpatient testing facility, with little if any risk to the person. Some procedures are performed in specialized settings to determine particular disorders or abnormalities. Depending on the type of test, results may be immediate or may take time to process.
Explanation:
Which antihistamine should be used only when necessary in the geriatric population?
One antihistamine that is often used cautiously or only when necessary in the geriatric population is
diphenhydramine. What is diphenhydramine?Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause sedation and cognitive impairment, which may be more pronounced in older adults. It can also increase the risk of falls and have anticholinergic effects, such as dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention.
Second-generation antihistamines, such as loratadine (Claritin), cetirizine (Zyrtec), and fexofenadine (Allegra), are generally considered safer options in the geriatric population. They have a lower likelihood of causing sedation and have a reduced risk of anticholinergic effects compared to first-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine.
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Which action is correct when bathing Mrs. Smith? A. Removing all of the covers B. Rinsing her skin thoroughly to remove all of the soap C. Washing from the dirtiest area to the cleanest area D. Rubbing the skin dry
The correct action when bathing Mrs. Smith is B) rinsing her skin thoroughly to remove all of the soap. Therefore. the correct answer is option B).
The process of bathing a patient may differ based on the individual. Bathing is a significant nursing care activity that is done to help patients maintain personal hygiene and cleanliness, as well as prevent skin breakdown and infection. In the case of Mrs. Smith, the following are some guidelines that a nurse can follow to ensure that the process is safe and successful:
When it comes to removing all the covers, this is not a recommended practice. Mrs. Smith may have a medical condition that requires her to be wrapped or a condition that causes her to feel cold. Thus, only remove the covers that are necessary for the area of the body you are washing. Rubbing the skin dry is not recommended because it can damage her skin. This process may cause skin irritation, especially if her skin is sensitive. Instead, it is better to pat the skin dry gently with a soft towel.
Washing from the dirtiest area to the cleanest area is not recommended as well. This process can spread the bacteria around her body, which could cause an infection. The proper way to wash a patient is to clean the cleaner areas first, such as the face and chest, then proceed to the dirtier areas.
Rinsing her skin thoroughly to remove all of the soap is the correct action when bathing Mrs. Smith. This practice prevents her skin from drying out or having a soapy residue, which may irritate her skin.
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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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Which of the following is a geologic emergency? A. Tornado B. Earthquake C. Heat wave D. Active Shooter
Answer:
B. Earthquake
Explanation:
Some other examples of Geological emergencies are volcanic eruptions, natural explosions, avalanches, and landslides.
I hope this helps!! :D
Is a geologic emergency a Earthquake because according to scientists, in the near future, could cause an earthquake.
What is earthquakes?Earthquake is a sudden and sudden movement of land resulting from a fault. Therefore, the rupture of a rock is the mechanism by which the earthquake is produced.
Earthquakes are a geological emergency because it is through geologists that we can try to avoid catastrophes for people.
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A drug company developed a honey-based liquid medicine designed to calm a child's cough at night. To test the drug, 105 children who were ill with an upper respiratory tract infection were randomly selected to participate in a clinical trial. The children were randomly divided into three groups - one group was given a dosage of the honey drug, the second was given a dosage of liquid DM (an over-the-counter cough medicine), and the third (control group) received a liquid placebo (no dosage at all). After administering the medicine to their coughing child, parents rated their children's cough diagnosis as either better or worse. The results are shown in the table below: Diagnosis Treatment Better Worse Total Control 4 33 37 DM 12 21 33 Honey 24 11 35 Total 40 65 105 In order to determine whether the treatment group is independent of the coughing diagnosis, a two-way chi-square test was conducted. Suppose the p- value for the test was calculated to be p = 0.0016. What is the appropriate conclusion to make when testing at a = 0.05? There is insufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is independent of the coughing diagnosis. There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis. There is insufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis. There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is independent of the coughing diagnosis.
There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis.
To begin, recall the following:-The null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis can be defined as follows: H0: The treatment group and the coughing diagnosis are independent. HA: The treatment group and the coughing diagnosis are dependent (associated).-We will calculate the expected value for each cell using the formula (row total x column total) / sample size, as we have three rows and three columns.
For example, the expected frequency of the Better Control Cell is (37 x 40) / 105 = 14.1, and so on.-After that, the chi-square value is calculated using the formula Σ(Observed - Expected)2 / Expected.-With 2 degrees of freedom, this chi-square value has a p-value of 0.0016, which is less than the significance level of 0.05.-So, there is enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the treatment group is associated with cough diagnosis. Therefore, There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis.
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What is diagnosis for patient with asymptomatic irregular flat patches on dorsum of the tongue with red centers and an irregular white periphery?
Answer:
geographic tongue (erythema migrans)
Explanation:
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What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?
Answer:
Explanation:
I don’t get any answer
the center of control for heart rate blood pressure and respiratory rate is
Answer:
192
Explanation: