A phenomenon known as tolerance occurs when the body becomes accustomed to an opioid for pain management and needs a larger does each time for pain relief.
A person can develop a tolerance to the drug when the drug is used repeatedly. For example, when using morphine or alcohol for a long time, larger and larger doses must be taken to produce the same effect. Most of the time, tolerance develops because the metabolism of the drug increases (often because the liver enzymes involved in the drug become more active) and because of the number of sites (cell receptors) that the drug interacts with them or the strength of the bond (relationship) between. the receptor and the drug decreases.
This phenomenon, known as tolerance, means that you need more of the same medication to achieve the same level of pain relief. Long-term use of opioids can lead to dependence on these drugs and, eventually, addiction.
The longer you use opioids, the higher your risk of becoming addicted. However, even using opioids to control pain for more than a few days increases your risk. Researchers at the Mayo Clinic found that the odds of being on opioids a year after starting a short course increased after just five days on opioids.
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what is the medical assistant's role during the eye irrigation?
During eye irrigation, the medical assistant plays a crucial role in assisting the healthcare provider and ensuring the procedure is performed safely and effectively. Their responsibilities may include:
1. Preparing the Equipment: The medical assistant gathers the necessary equipment for eye irrigation, which typically includes an eye irrigating solution, sterile irrigation set or bulb syringe, clean towels or gauze, and a clean basin or tray to catch the irrigation fluid. They ensure that all equipment is clean and readily accessible.
2. Assisting the Patient: The medical assistant helps the patient prepare for the procedure. They explain the process, ensuring the patient understands what to expect. The assistant also ensures the patient is comfortably positioned, with their head stabilized and proper eye exposure for irrigation.
3. Sterilizing and Preparing the Area: Before the procedure, the medical assistant ensures the area around the eye is clean and sterile. They may assist in cleaning the eyelids and surrounding area with an antiseptic solution, minimizing the risk of infection during the procedure.
4. Handing Instruments and Irrigation Solutions: During the irrigation, the medical assistant assists by handing the necessary instruments and irrigation solutions to the healthcare provider. They ensure that the irrigation solution is at the appropriate temperature and readily available for use.
5. Assisting with Patient Comfort: The medical assistant helps ensure patient comfort during the procedure. They may hold the patient's head or assist in keeping the eye open or properly positioned for effective irrigation. They provide reassurance and support to the patient throughout the process.
6. Monitoring the Procedure: While the healthcare provider performs the eye irrigation, the medical assistant closely observes the patient for any signs of discomfort, pain, or adverse reactions. They communicate any concerns or changes in the patient's condition to the provider promptly.
7. Post-Procedure Care and Documentation: After the irrigation is completed, the medical assistant may assist the patient in post-procedure care, such as providing instructions on the use of prescribed eye drops or applying an eye patch, if necessary. They may also document the procedure, including details about the irrigation process, any complications, and the patient's response, in the patient's medical records.
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_____ is often rated the most commonly used treatment among practicing therapists, and it uses a variety of techniques depending on the client and the problem.
Answer:
Eclectic psychotherapy
The Nuclear Medicine section lists body systems by name for character 2. There is one character 2 heading that is not identified with the word systems. These terms are all:
Answer:
hope this helps
Explanation:
the body systems in which the procedure is preformed.
Word parts that are followed with a dash (-) like gastro- in gastrointestinal are
Answer:
called combining forms or combining words. They are word parts that are used to create compound words, often in the field of medicine and biology. These word parts are typically derived from Greek or Latin roots and are used to describe various body parts, diseases, conditions, and procedures.
The word "gastro-" is a combining form that refers to the stomach. For example, "gastrointestinal" means "relating to the stomach and intestines." Other examples of combining forms that are used in medical terms include "cardio-" (relating to the heart), "neuro-" (relating to the nerves), "hepat-" (relating to the liver), and "renal" (relating to the kidneys).
Combining forms are also used in other fields, such as chemistry, geology and other sciences to create compound words, and they are an important tool in building new terms in the field of medicine and biology, and many other fields.
A 56 year old woman with Left extremity weakness
A 56 year old woman with a past medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with left extremity weakness.
The condition initially began in January with weakness in her left foot and ankle. This remained stable until motor vehicle accident in April. The patient was evaluated for whiplash injury.
Two to three weeks following the accident, the patient noticed that the weakness had progressed up the leg.
As of July, the patient had developed weakness of the left hand.
By October, the patient had started to use a walker and then a wheelchair to ambulate.
In December, the patient was unable to grasp objects with her left hand and presented with atrophy of the hand muscles
Review of Pertinent Symptoms
No bulbar symptoms
No sensory loss
No neck pain
No bowel/bladder dysfunction
Chronic lower back pain
Localize neurologic lesions
Cortex/subcortex
Brainstem
Spinal cord
Peripheral Nerve
neuromucular Junction
Muscle
Physical Exam
Mental status intact
Cranial nerves (CNS) Intact
Motor Function
Strength
Left upper extremity 3/5 strength, except 2/5 strength in the dorsal interossei
Left lower extremity 3+/5 strength to all muscle groups tested
Right upper extremity/right lower extremity 5/5 strength.
Bulk significant atrophy in the left hand
Reflexes 3+ throghout
Sensation: intact throughout
Fasciulations within the left arm in the multiple muscle groups and less frequently in the right arm
The patient has typical Combined UMN and LMN disease findings
Rule out Mimics
Creatine kinase: 53
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C- reactive protein WNL
Antinuclear antibodies: negative
Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 1:2
Serum protein electrophoresis without M spike
Free light chains WNL
Rapid plasma reagin RPR was Negative
Vitamin B12 level WNL (533 pg/mL)
Copper level WNL (119 mcg/dL)
Negative for Lyme disease test
Vitamin E WNL
Human Immunodeficiency virus HIV was negative
Electromyography (EMG) Nerve Conduction Velocity
Consistent with Motor neuron disease
Left median motor and ulnar motor responses revealed low amplitude
All sensory nerve studies were intact with normal values
Needle EMG showed abnormal spontaneous activity with obvious neurogenic pattern on activation in all four extremities
Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Based on the patient's clinical history, physical examination findings, and diagnostic tests, the most likely diagnosis for this 56-year-old woman with left extremity weakness is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as motor neuron disease.
What is ALS?ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations in the muscles. The patient's symptoms of weakness initially starting in the left foot and ankle, and then progressing up the leg and involving the left hand, along with the atrophy of hand muscles and abnormal findings on electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction velocity testing, are consistent with the diagnosis of ALS.
Other potential mimics of motor neuron disease have been ruled out through laboratory tests and imaging studies, and the patient's clinical presentation is characteristic of combined upper motor neuron (UMN) and lower motor neuron (LMN) involvement, which is typical of ALS. Further evaluation and management should be done by a neurologist specializing in motor neuron diseases.
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Flu shots can help you not catch...
A) Acid
B) Flu
C) Chickenpox
Answer:
Flu shots help you so you don't get the flu
what is the main procedure used for large pleural effusions?
If the sinus node stops discharging, what is the expected heart rate (in beats/minute) if the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker?
If the sinus node stops discharging, the expected heart rate if the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker would be between 40 and 60 beats per minute.
The sinus node is the primary pacemaker of the heart and typically generates electrical impulses at a rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute. However, if the sinus node stops discharging, the A-V node can take over as the cardiac pacemaker.
The A-V node is located in the lower portion of the right atrium and normally relays electrical impulses from the sinus node to the ventricles. When the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker, it generates electrical impulses at a slower rate than the sinus node, typically between 40 and 60 beats per minute.
In summary, if the sinus node stops discharging, the expected heart rate if the A-V node takes over as the cardiac pacemaker would be between 40 and 60 beats per minute.
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Interrupted or restricted breathing associated with breathing-related sleep disorders can also cause disrupted sleep and daytime sleepiness. Extreme cases involve short periods in which a person may stop breathing altogether, referred to as sleep apnea. If the cessation of breathing is due to a complete lack of respiratory activity, a person is experiencing?
A. Mixed Sleep Apnea
B. Obstructive Sleep Apnea
C. Central Sleep Apnea
how important is the function of each organ in our body
A student entering a doctoral program in educational psychology is required to select courses from the list of courses provided as part of his or her program. (a) List all possible -course selections. (b) Comment on the likelihood that EPR 626 and EPR 693will be selected.
EPR 627, Fieldwork Methods in Educational Research
EPR 626, Methods of Multivariate Analysis
EPR 607, Theory of Measurement
EPR 693, Research in Child Development
The solutions for both A and B are :
Options A, B, C, D, I, J, k, l, MThis is further explained below.
What is aList all possible -course selections? (b) Comment on the likelihood that EPR 626 and EPR 693will be selected.?From the given data,
Counsels = EPR619, EPR 64Y
EPR646, EPR 655, EPR.697
a) All possible two Conofe Selections are:
* 619,644 ; * 619,646 * 619,655 ; * 619,697* 644,646 ; * 644,655$ * 644,697 ; * 646,655$ * 646,697 ; * 655,697
options A, B, C, D, I, J, k, l, M, and we are correct.
In conclusion,
b) The likelihood that IPR 646. and EPR 697 will be filled is 1 in 10.
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____11.Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the Institute of Medicine (IOM) has made the following recommendations:
Increase transparency and disclosure: Healthcare professionals and organizations should disclose their financial relationships with pharmaceutical companies to ensure transparency and minimize potential conflicts of interest. This includes disclosing any financial incentives, gifts, or sponsorships received from pharmaceutical companies.
Strengthen regulation: There should be stricter regulation and oversight of pharmaceutical marketing practices to ensure they are accurate, evidence-based, and not misleading. This includes monitoring the content of promotional materials, such as advertisements and educational materials, to ensure they provide balanced and unbiased information.
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Which of the following complaints or signs is associated with barotrauma of descent in SCUBA divers?
A. severe pain in the ears
B. altered mental status
C. frothy, bloody sputum
D. paralysis
The following complaints or signs is associated with barotrauma of descent in SCUBA divers is severe pain in the ears. Option A in the qustion
What is scuba diving?SCUBA diver, barotrauma of descent is frequently accompanied by excruciating ear pain. This happens as a result of barotrauma, which is caused by an imbalance in pressure between the middle ear and the outside environment during descent.
The ear structures may be damaged by the pressure change, resulting in pain and discomfort.
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What is pathological abnormality?
Answer:
Abnormal anatomical or physiological conditions and objective or subjective manifestations of disease, not classified as disease or syndrome.
Healthcare systems are working to improve care, reduce expenses, and improve the patient experience. The process of identifying, prioritizing, and implementing changes can be done right with the right tools, process, and people.
In this assignment, you will write an essay about the quality in healthcare. The minimum length requirement is 500 words. Respond to the following:
1. Give your definition of quality in healthcare. What are the characteristics of high quality healthcare?
2. Give an example of an approach to improve quality.
3. Why is quality in healthcare important? Provide evidence to support your opinion.
Please cite all your sources. Thank you.
This assignment discusses the concept of quality in healthcare, including its definition, characteristics of high-quality healthcare, an example of an approach to improve quality, and the importance of quality in healthcare.
To complete the assignment, "Quality in Healthcare," you can follow these steps:
1. Introduction:
a. Introduce the topic of quality in healthcare and its significance in improving care, reducing expenses, and enhancing the patient experience.
b. Provide a brief overview of the purpose of the essay and the structure of the response.
2. Definition of quality in healthcare:
a. Present your own definition of quality in healthcare.
a.biscuss the various dimensions and characteristics that contribute to high-quality healthcare.
c. Include factors such as patient safety, effectiveness of treatment, patient-centeredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity.
3. Example of an approach to improve quality:
a. Provide an example of a specific approach or methodology that has been used to improve quality in healthcare.
b. Describe the approach in detail, including its key components and how it addresses the identified dimensions of quality.
c. Discuss any evidence or research that supports the effectiveness of the approach in achieving quality improvement.
4. Importance of quality in healthcare:
a. Explain why quality in healthcare is crucial and its impact on various stakeholders.
b. Discuss the benefits of high-quality healthcare, such as improved patient outcomes, enhanced patient satisfaction, reduced healthcare costs, and increased efficiency.
c. Support your claims with evidence from reputable sources, including studies, reports, or expert opinions.
5. Conclusion:
a. Summarize the key points discussed in the essay.
b. Reinforce the importance of quality in healthcare and its role in achieving the desired goals of healthcare systems.
c. Emphasize the need for ongoing efforts to identify, prioritize, and implement changes that enhance the quality of care.
6. Citations:
a. Ensure that all sources used in the essay are properly cited.
b. Follow the appropriate citation style (e.g., APA, MLA) and provide in-text citations as well as a reference list or bibliography.
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When caring for a trauma patient a principle is what is necessary for patient improvement or survival. A preference is how the principle is achieved and depends upon four factors. The factors used to accomplish the preference in treating the patient include all except:
a. Condition of the patient
b. Equipment available
c. Situation that exists
d. Research information
When caring for a trauma patient a principle is what is necessary for patient improvement or survival. A preference is how the principle is achieved and depends upon four factors. The factors used to accomplish the preference in treating the patient include all except research information. Therefore, option d is the correct answer.
What is a Trauma Patient?
A trauma patient is someone who has suffered a serious injury. This injury could be physical or psychological. Trauma patients may require medical attention to keep them alive and help them recover.
What are the four factors used to accomplish the preference in treating a trauma patient?
The four factors used to accomplish the preference in treating a trauma patient include:
1. Condition of the patient
2. Equipment available
3. Situation that exists
4. Preference of the medical professional treating the patient
A preference is how the principle is achieved and depends upon four factors when caring for a trauma patient. The factors used to accomplish the preference in treating the patient include condition of the patient, equipment available, situation that exists, and preference of the medical professional treating the patient. Research information is not included as one of the factors.
Hence, the answer is option D.
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which of the following is not a part of person centered care
Answer:
please state the correct question and post the pic of the questions
Which of the following serologic markers indicate HBV clearance?
a.
HbSAg.
b.
HbCAg IgG antibody.
c.
HbCAg IgM antibody.
d.
HbSAg Antibody.
e.
HbCAg
Answer:
a
Explanation:
a child is brought to the emergency department with an asthma attack. assessment revealed the use of accessory muscles, a weak cough, audible wheezing sound, moist skin, and tachycardia. which drug will the nurse anticipate administering first?
In this scenario, the nurse would anticipate administering a short-acting beta-agonist medication such as albuterol as the first medication to help relieve the child's asthma symptoms and open up their airways.
How do short-acting beta-agonists work?Short-acting beta-agonists quickly relax the smooth muscles in the airways, reducing bronchospasm and increasing airflow to the lungs. These medications are often administered via inhalation, which allows them to act directly on the airways and provide rapid relief of symptoms.
Give some examples of short-acting beta-agonist.Albuterol is a common short-acting beta-agonist used to treat asthma, particularly during an acute asthma attack. Other medications that may be used to treat asthma include inhaled corticosteroids, leukotriene modifiers, and long-acting beta-agonists. Still, these medications are typically used in a more maintenance role to help prevent asthma symptoms.
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16. Which of the following is NOT an example of the body homeostasis?
a) Maintaining the body temperature of 98.6.
b) Body regulating sugar in the body.
c) Thinking.
d) The body making you thirsty when you are dehydrated.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
c
nancy walker, a medical assistant, ask a patient if he has been experiencing any pain,he says that he has not , but when he moves from the chair in to the examination room to the exam table nancy notices that he limps his facial mucsle are tense, and there is a light sweat on his forehead. What other nonverbal signals might indicate that the patient has not been completey honest
Answer:
Avoiding eye contact
Dr. Jones has a permit to perform CLIA-waived tests in his medical office. What is meant by a CLIA-waived test?
It is a simple test with low risk of incorrect results :)
which of the following genes is an example of a tumor-suppressor? group of answer choices rar brca1 c-myc c-kit
Out of the following genes, BRCA1 is an example of a tumor suppressor.
Tumor suppressor genes are genes that control and reduce the formation of cancer. These genes regulate the cell division cycle and prevent tumor formation by halting the growth of cells or by causing the death of cells that have developed genetic damage. In general, two categories of genes are associated with cancer: oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes. Tumor suppressor genes are the genes that protect against cancer and help to prevent uncontrolled cell growth or cell division cycle. Usually, the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes protect you from getting certain cancers. But some mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes prevent them from working correctly, so if you inherit one of these mutations, you are more likely to get breast, ovarian, and other cancers.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, BRCA1 is an example of a tumor-suppressor.
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PLEASE HELP
The brain stem is part of the:
Spinal Cord
(I think...if it not, I'm sorry)
Answer:
THE BRAINSTEM IS LOCATED IN THE INFERIOR PORTION OF THE BRAIN. BETWEEN THE BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD
Explanation:
HINDBRAIN??
sorry for caps i was rushing lol
Case Study 3 – Consent
A 14-year-old youth suffering depression does not want to discuss his problems with his parents. He seeks help from a community health centre. On his first visit he is provided with counselling and asked to return for a second visit where the possibility of medication will be discussed. He is reassured that his parents do not have to be involved if he does not want them to be. Researchers from the centre are looking for people to take part in a study that will find out if a new investigational drug can help in the treatment of depression. They invite the fourteen-year-old to participate in the randomised controlled trial. The researchers say that parental consent is not needed for the 14-year-old to access treatment so they do not need to obtain parental consent for him to participate in the research.
Questions
Is the researcher’s view correct?
Does it depend on the nature of the reasarch?
____ telephones first appeared they were called talking telegraphs.
A,when
B,then
C,later on
D, next
Answer:
A. When
Explanation:
That answer makes the most sense grammatically.
the charge nurse observes a staff nurse caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type i. which action by the nurse indicates that further instruction on transmission of this disease is needed
If the nurse fails to wear gloves or practice proper hand hygiene when caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type I, it indicates a need for further instruction on disease transmission.
If the charge nurse observes a staff nurse caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type I, an action that indicates the need for further instruction on the transmission of this disease would be if the nurse does not wear gloves or practice proper hand hygiene when providing care to the mother. Herpes simplex type I is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct contact with the oral lesions or the fluid they contain.
Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions, such as wearing gloves and practicing hand hygiene, to prevent the spread of the virus to the mother or other individuals in the care setting.
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What is the difference between the left and right lung?
Answer:
The lungs are not equal in size. The right lung is shorter, because the liver sits high, tucked under the rib cage, but it is broader/wider than the left. Each lung is separated into lobes branching off the main bronchus the right lung has three lobes, while the left has only two lobes. That's why the left lung and the right lung are difference.
Explanation:
I hope this helps. Or more in fact that this is the right answer. Let me know if is isn't. And if you need anymore help. Thank you have a good day.
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant you should palpate the _____ artery
Brachial
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of?
Cardiac dysrhythmia
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patients airway with the jaw thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should?
Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift maneuver
You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by?
Compressing the sternum between the nipples
When performing chest compressions on an adult the EMT should compress
At least 2 inches
The most appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes
Administering oxygen and transporting immediately
In most cases cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by?
Respiratory arrest
What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for adult cpr
30:2
A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately
Ventilate with a BVM
If gastric distention begins to make positive pressure ventilation difficult you should?
Reposition the patients airway
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9 month old infant is?
1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 1 1/2"
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilation when performing two rescuer child CPR
15:2
The AED gives the "no shock" message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. What should you do?
Resume chest compressions
What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child
10 seconds
When you are performing CPR on an adult or child. Approximately how often should you reassess the patient for return of respirations and or circulation
Every 2 min
You are off duty and come across a child lying on the ground at a playground unresponsive. She does not have a pulse and no one witnessed the collapse. What's should you do?
Do 5 cycles of CPR then call 911
When performing CPR on an infant where should you place hands
Place two fingers in the middle of the sternum just below the nipple lines
A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to the neutral position or beyond
Active compression-decompression CPR
Noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest and cardiac arrest
Basic life support
The combo of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
The total percentage of time during resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed
Chest compression fraction
Rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal
Hyperventilation
A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow
Ischemia
Brain damage is very likely on a brain that does not receive oxygen for?
6-10 min
What sequence of events describes the AHA chain of survival
Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated post arrest care
Answer:Brachial artery
Explanation:
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant you should palpate the Brachial artery.
What are the different diagnoses in cardiology?In cardiology, most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of Cardiac dysrhythmia. Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift maneuver for trauma patients.
During cardiac arrest compressing the sternum between the nipples, these compressions help the patient, while performing chest compressions on an adult the EMT should compress at least 2 inches.
The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR is 30:2. Ischemia is the term used for lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow.
Therefore, you should palpate the Brachial artery, when assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant.
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Blank is defined as chest pain caused by ischemia or lack of oxygen
Answer:
"Angina is chest pain that happens because there isn't enough blood going to part of your heart. It can feel like a heart attack, with pressure or squeezing in your chest. It's sometimes called angina pectoris or ischemic chest pain."
Explanation:
hope this helps.