Answers
The body develops proprioceptors to compensate for the missing limb that's why the person feels phantom limb pain while stroking other body parts.
The straight channel paradigm of pain makes it challenging to explain the "phantom limb" occurrence. The phantom pain may, at least in part, be explained as the brain's reaction to conflicting information. Following an amputation, certain parts of the spinal cord and brain no longer receive signals from the amputated limb, and they adapt to this detachment in unforeseen ways. The excitatory glutamatergic (Glu) neurons in the putamen and caudate nucleus of the striatum are part of the direct pathway, which extends from the cortex. Inhibitory GABAergic striatal neurons project their axons to the medial (internal) globus pallidus and the substantia nigra, pars reticulate (SNr).
The complete question is:
A person with an amputated hand is evaluated by a neurologist who gently strokes the patient's cheek. why might the patient report a phantom limb experience?
a) The experience is purely psychological.
b) Sensory neurons previously associated with the limb fire action potentials associated with pain.
c) Sensory neurons previously associated with the limb are damaged.
d) The body develops proprioceptors to compensate for the missing limb.
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Related Questions
a group of adolescents has gathered at a park drinking beer. at the end of the outing, they get into an automobile driven by one of the teens. before even getting out of the park, the teen driver hits a tree and the air bags are deployed. looking around, everyone seems alright except the unconscious teen in the passenger seat who was not wearing a safety belt. the group decides to drop their friend off at the local hospital emergency department, hoping to avoid getting in trouble for underage drinking.
Answers
Assess for tinnitus or hearing difficulty. These are manifestations of a basilar skull fracture.
Observe the area behind the client’s ears. Battle’s sign refers to ecchymosis behind the ears, and it is a common manifestation of a traumatic brain injury.
What is tinnitus?Tinnitus is when you experience ringing or other noises in one or both of your ears. The noise you hear when you have tinnitus isn't caused by an external sound, and other people usually can't hear it. Tinnitus is a common problem. It affects about 15% to 20% of people, and is especially common in older adults.
Tinnitus is usually caused by an underlying condition, such as age-related hearing loss, an ear injury or a problem with the circulatory system. For many people, tinnitus improves with treatment of the underlying cause or with other treatments that reduce or mask the noise, making tinnitus less noticeable.
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Complete question:
14. Thomas is 3 months old and weighs 15 lb 6 oz. Thomas is prescribed a medication q6h. The label states that there's 400 mg of the drug in 10 ml
suspension. The recommended dose of the medication for infants is 50 mg/kg/day. How much should Thomas receive per dose?
O A. 1.2 ml
OB. 4.2 mi
O C.3.2 ml
O D. 2.2 ml
Answers
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
Dosage
A dosage is the amount of a medicine or drug that someone takes or should take, and how ` they should take it.
1 oz = 0.0283495 kg; also 1 lb = 0.453592 kg.
Hence 15 lb 6 oz = (15 lb * 0.453592 kg/lb) + (6 oz * 0.0283495 kg/oz) = 6.97 kg
Since the dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Hence amount of mg given is:
Amount of mg = 50 mg/kg/day * 6.97 kg = 348.5 mg per day
Each 10 ml contains 400 mg; hence:
ml = 348.5 mg * 10 ml per 400 mg = 8.71 ml per day
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
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the nurse is providing discharge education to an adult client who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. how can the nurse best determine if the client is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?
Answers
The nurse can best determine if a patient going to begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma will be able to self-administer these medications by: asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of her medications.
Ocular medications are the drugs that are administered into the eyes for any disease affecting the vision. Care should be taken while administering these medications so that the condition does not worsen and any sort of infection is not spread.
Glaucoma is an eye disease where the optic nerve becomes damaged. The function of optic nerve is to send the vision signals from the eye to the brain.
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Person centered care means that staff should treat all residents exactly the same true or false
Answers
I think it is: False
I hope this helped! Sorry if you get it wrong! :)
The use of mortgage debt to finance an income property investment has certain tax consequences. For example, up-front financing costs for investment properties are not fully deductible in the year in which they are paid. Instead, they must be amortized over the life of the loan. If up-front financing costs on a 30-year loan total $6,000, what is the maximum amount per year that the investor can deduct when calculating taxable income from rental operations
Answers
the investor can deduct $200 per year ($6,000 divided by 30) when calculating taxable income from rental operations. This deduction represents the portion of the up-front financing costs that can be allocated and deducted each year over the life of the loan.
When up-front financing costs for an investment property, such as mortgage debt, are incurred, they cannot be fully deducted in the year they are paid. Instead, they must be amortized over the life of the loan.
In this case, if the up-front financing costs for a 30-year loan amount to $6,000, the maximum amount that the investor can deduct per year when calculating taxable income from rental operations would be $6,000 divided by 30.
the investor can deduct $200 per year ($6,000 divided by 30) when calculating taxable income from rental operations. This deduction represents the portion of the up-front financing costs that can be allocated and deducted each year over the life of the loan.
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temporal lobe; parietal lobe; frontal lobe; occipital lobe function; temporal lobe function; parietal lobe function; occipital lobe pain
Answers
The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. It consists of the cerebral cortex and other subcortical structures. The cerebrum of brain is further divided into four section or lobes. Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Occipital lobe and temporal lobe.
What are the functions of lobes of the brain?Frontal lobe: It is associated with parts of speech, planning, reasoning, problem-solving and movements.
Parietal lobe: Help in movements, the perception of stimuli and orientation.
Occipital lobe: It is related to visual processing.
Temporal lobe: This region is related to perception and recognition of memory, auditory stimuli, and speech.
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The various part of cerebrum are Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Occipital lobe and temporal lobe.
What are the lobes of the brain?
The front of the brain is where the Frontal Lobes are found. They are enormous and serve numerous purposes. We think of our frontal lobes as our emotional control center.
On the side of your brain, just over your ears, are the Temporal Lobes. Our ability to hear and comprehend sounds like musical notes and speech is one of their crucial roles.
The Parietal Lobes are situated above the temporal lobes and behind the frontal lobes. One of their key purposes is to help us understand the objects we touch, such as whether something is solid or soft, smooth or sharp.
Back of the brain is where the Occipital Lobes are situated. Because they enable us to see, they play a crucial function in vision.
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What is the answer plz?
Answers
The nurse who works on a postpartum floor is mentoring a new graduate. She informs the new nurse that a postpartum assessment of the mother includes which assessments
Answers
The nurse explains to the new graduate that the following is part of the mother's postpartum evaluation: The threshold of pain, the mother's vital signs, as well as a head-to-toe examination. This assessment will be followed by an in-depth full-body checkup.
Postpartum is the time after childbirth when a childbearing woman's reproductive health is at its worst. This time frame is thought to only endure for six weeks, following which the new mother is required to go to the hospital for a checkup.
The following assessments are anticipated to be performed:
The mother's vital signs will be used to track the physiological condition of her body's vital organs.The nurse will be able to gauge the extent of healing following the delivery of the child based on the patient's level of pain.head-to-toe examination: This will aid the nurse in finding any disorders that might be brought on by childbirth.To know more about evaluation, please visit
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There is only chemotherapy and radiation treatment for cancer paitents?
True
False
HURRY
Answers
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Chemotherapy is a form of cancer treatment where a patient is given drugs designed to kill cancer cells. Radiation, on the other hand, is a type of cancer treatment where high doses of radiation are delivered to cancerous tumors in the body.
In general, a ________-minute wait is accepted by most patients.
30
40
50
20
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
20
What is diagnosis for patient with asymptomatic irregular flat patches on dorsum of the tongue with red centers and an irregular white periphery?
Answers
Answer:
geographic tongue (erythema migrans)
Explanation:
I hope this helps! If it does could you please mark me brainliest.
Which of the following serologic markers indicate HBV clearance?
a.
HbSAg.
b.
HbCAg IgG antibody.
c.
HbCAg IgM antibody.
d.
HbSAg Antibody.
e.
HbCAg
Answers
Answer:
a
Explanation:
the onset of bipolar ii is typically around what age?
Answers
Bipolar II disorder usually begins in late adolescence or early adulthood, with the average age of onset being around 20-30 years old. However, it is important to note that the onset can vary depending on individual circumstances and environmental factors.
Early intervention and appropriate treatment can help manage symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected by Bipolar II disorder.
The onset of bipolar II disorder can vary among individuals and there is no specific age range that applies to everyone. However, research has shown that the most common age of onset for bipolar II disorder is between 20 and 30 years old, with a smaller peak occurring in the late 40s and early 50s.
It is important to note that bipolar II disorder can also occur in children and adolescents, although it is less common. In addition, it is possible for individuals to develop bipolar II disorder later in life, although this is also less common. Overall, the onset of bipolar II disorder can be influenced by a variety of factors, including genetics, environmental factors, and life stressors.
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Should you wear cast if your arm hurts?
Answers
Answer:
if its not broken. NO
Explanation:
:)
Answer:
no
Explanation:
just cause your arm hurts doesnt mean its broken or anything
hope this helps ya
Give the Prescription and the preparation process of how to make
tea tree essential oil into emulsion ...
Answers
An emulsion is a type of mixture that contains two immiscible liquids, such as oil and water, that are stabilized by a third component called an emulsifier.
Here is the prescription and preparation process of how to make tea tree essential oil into an emulsion: Ingredients required: Tea tree essential oil, glycerin, liquid lecithin, and water prescription:
Tea tree essential oil – 10%Glycerin – 10%Liquid lecithin – 10%Water – 70%Preparation process:
Step 1: In a clean bowl, add 10% tea tree essential oil, 10% glycerin, and 10% liquid lecithin and mix thoroughly.
Step 2: Add 70% of water to the mixture and mix until emulsified. Keep mixing until the mixture becomes homogeneous.
Step 3: Once the mixture is prepared, pour it into a clean, dry bottle, and store it in a cool, dark place for future use. The emulsion is now ready to use.
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Learning Task 1: Identify the organs of digestion being described. Select
your answer from the list. Do this on your answer sheet.
Mouth
stomach
esophagus
small intestine
Large intestine
1. a long coiled connected from the stomach.
2. a long muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the throat to
the stomach.
3. a large J-shaped organ at the end of the esophagus, on the left
side of the body.
4. Is the first part in the digestive system composed of teeth and the
tongue.
5. a large coiled tube attached to the end of the small intestine.
Answers
1. a long coiled connected from the stomach. small intestine
2. a long muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the throat to
the stomach. esophagus
3. a large J-shaped organ at the end of the esophagus, on the left
side of the body. stomach
4. Is the first part in the digestive system composed of teeth and the
tongue. mouth
5. a large coiled tube attached to the end of the small intestine. large intestine
A biochemical process by which the body breaks the large complex food molecules into small soluble molecules is called digestion.
The correct answers are:
1. A long coiled connected from the stomach: small intestine.
It is a coiled tube connected to the stomach responsible for the absorption of nutrients and water from the food.2. A long muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the throat to the stomach: esophagus
It transports the food and fluid from the mouth to the stomach.3. A large J-shaped organ at the end of the esophagus, on the left
side of the body: stomach
It is a muscular gland that secretes digestive enzymes responsible for breaking the food particles.4. Is the first part of the digestive system composed of teeth and the tongue: mouth
Also known as the oral cavity contains teeth and saliva for mastication.5. A large coiled tube attached to the end of the small intestine: large intestine.
In this part, some of the remaining nutrients and electrolytes are absorbed and the waste is excreted out from the body.To learn more about digestive system follow the link:
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In addition to oil-in-water and water-in-oil emulsions, there are also double emulsions called water in oil. How much sodium chloride powder is needed to prepare 100ml of 0.9% NaCI solution?
Answers
Answer:
900 mg sodium chloride
Explanation:
the medical industry leveraged a new vaccine-building method called mrna to create a vaccine for the coronavirus. this made it possible to create a vaccine without the use of the live virus, but the vaccines required extreme cold storage.
Answers
Yes, the medical industry did leverage a new vaccine-building method called mrna to create a vaccine for the coronavirus. However, the vaccine did not require extreme cold storage and was able to be stored at regular refrigerator temperatures.
What is coronavirus?
The coronavirus is currently understood to spread through airborne droplets and virus particles that are released when an infected individual breathes, talks, laughs, sings, coughs, or sneezes. Small infectious particles could indeed linger in the air and build up indoors, especially in crowded areas with inadequate ventilation, where larger droplets may fall down in a matter of seconds. This is why protecting against COVID-19 requires the use of masks, good hand hygiene, and physical separation. A then-new coronavirus later known as SARS-CoV-2 was the cause of the first case of COVID-19, which was reported on December 1, 2019.
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Determine how violating health regulations and laws regarding technology could impact the finances of the institution if these violations are not addressed. Be sure to support your response with examples.
Answers
Explanation:
Health rules and legislation covering the usage of technology, such as the use of EHRs, i.e. Infringement of health and safety regulations and software laws influences patient network security, as manually managed data is interesting to perform with, more vulnerable to fraud, faults, destruction, mistakes, and is often difficult to store. Infringement of health and safety regulations and technology laws affects patient network security.
Hose handwritten records are often vulnerable to fraud, since they are only a hard disk, while if those documents are stored in EHRs software, the person trying to unlawfully access the records of any other patient would need the login information of the institution's appropriate quantity, that is much harder to do.
the nurse is assessing a client at 14 weeks' gestation at a routine prenatal visit and notes the fundal height is at the umbilicus. the nurse will most likely interpret this finding to indicate which situation?
Answers
This finding will probably be interpreted by the nurse as multiple fetal pregnancy.
What is umbilicus?The umbilical cord connects to the abdomen at the navel, also known as that of the umbilicus and belly button. The navel can be protruding, flat, or recessed. A navel is present in all placental mammals, though it is typically more noticeable in humans. The abdomen can be visibly divided into four quadrants using the umbilicus. The umbilicus is just a noticeable scar on the belly, and human beings generally have the same position for it. The tenth long thoracic nerve supplies the skin all around waist just at level of a umbilicus (T10 dermatome). The location of the umbilicus varies across individuals normally between the L3 or L5 vertebrae, which corresponds to the junction of the L3 & L4 vertebrae.
Is the umbilicus the belly button and write its fucntions?Technically known as the umbilicus, your navel is also referred to as the "belly button." Every person has them. Other mammals also have them, but they are often flat or smooth, and frequently simply a thin line that is covered by fur.
The umbilical cord is regarded as the fetus's and mother's physical and psychological connection. This arrangement enables the exchange of nutrients and oxygen from the mother's blood into the fetal blood while also eliminating waste materials from the fetal blood for elimination by the mother.
Briefing:
At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is usually when at level of the umbilicus. The fundal height is therefore higher than anticipated, raising the possibility of multiple gestation, polyhydramnios, fetal abnormalities, or macrosomia. Smaller measures than anticipated could indicate intrauterine growth restriction or a possible lack of amniotic fluid. The uterus would be displaced by urinary retention.
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all of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
Answers
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for hypoglycemia. The correct answer is option a.
Air polishing is a dental procedure that uses a jet of air, water, and abrasive particles to remove stains and plaque from the teeth.
While it is generally safe and effective, there are certain situations or systemic conditions where air polishing may not be recommended.
Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not directly related to the safety or suitability of air polishing.
Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood glucose levels, and it primarily affects the body's energy metabolism.
It does not have a direct impact on the respiratory system, lung function, or the risk of infection.
On the other hand, conditions such as emphysema, active tuberculosis, and asthma can be contraindications for air polishing.
Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that affects the air sacs in the lungs, impairing breathing and increasing the risk of lung complications.
Active tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs, and air polishing may increase the risk of spreading the infection.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and increased sensitivity, and the use of air polishing may trigger asthma symptoms or cause respiratory distress in some individuals.
So, the correct answer is option a. Hypoglycemia.
The complete question is -
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Emphysema
c. Active tuberculosis
d. Asthma
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The term myalgia (my/algia) denotes _______ in a __________.
Answers
Is the use of addictive and dangerous drugs good or bad? Why?
Answers
Answer:
Illegal drugs aren't good for anyone, but they are particularly bad for a kid or teen whose body is still growing. Illegal drugs can damage the brain, heart, and other important organs. Cocaine, for instance, can cause a heart attack even in a kid or teen.
What is the kneecap to the ankle
Answers
Answer:
The second largest bone in the leg and the human body is the tibia
providers chosen according to is a common bias or prejudice in today's society
Answers
"Confirmation bias" is a common bias or prejudice in today's society where individuals tend to selectively search for and interpret information in a way that confirms their pre-existing beliefs or attitudes, while ignoring or rejecting information that challenges them.
This can lead to a distorted perception of reality and reinforce stereotypes and prejudices.
For instance, if an individual holds a negative attitude towards a particular group of people, they may selectively seek out information that confirms their negative beliefs and reject information that contradicts them.
This can perpetuate discrimination and inequality in society, and it is important to be aware of and actively work against this bias.
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witnesses state that a 49-year-old man had a seizure that lasted approximately 5 minutes. if the patient truly experienced a seizure, you would most likely find that he:
Answers
If a patient experienced a seizure, there are certain signs and symptoms that healthcare providers would expect to find:
Loss of consciousnessAbnormal movementsChanges in breathingIncontinenceConfusion or disorientationHow is seizure detected?If witnesses report that a 49-year-old man had a seizure lasting around 5 minutes, healthcare practitioners will most likely examine the patient for these signs and symptoms to corroborate the seizure's existence.
It is crucial to remember that not all seizures exhibit the same symptoms, and healthcare experts must perform a comprehensive examination to discover the underlying cause of the seizure and design an effective treatment strategy.
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clinical trials are experiments that aim to determine cause and effect. this is accomplished by having at least two groups of subjects, including a group that does not receive an intervention. there are several factors to consider when evaluating the quality of a clinical trial. which of the following are characteristics of a well-designed clinical trial?
Answers
Clinical trials are research projects carried out on humans with the purpose of testing a therapeutic, surgical, or behavioral intervention. They are the main method used by researchers to determine whether a new treatment, such as a new medication, diet, or medical gadget (such as a pacemaker), is secure and efficient in people.
What are the four phases of clinical trials?Clinical trials move forward through four stages to test a medication, determine the right dosage, and search for negative effects. The FDA approves a drug for clinical usage and continues to evaluate its effects if researches discover a drug or other intervention to be secure and efficient after the first three phases.The phases of drug clinical trials are often discussed. When deciding whether to approve a medicine for use, the FDA normally requires that Phase I, II, and III trials be completed.In a Phase I study, an experimental treatment is tested on a small, frequently healthy population (20–80) in order to assess its safety, potential adverse effects, and the ideal dosage of the drug.A Phase II study involves more participants (100 to 300). While safety was prioritized throughout Phase I, effectiveness was prioritized during Phase II. Preliminary information on the drug's efficacy in treating a specific disease or condition is sought at this phase. Also being studied in these trials is safety, which includes immediate side effects. It may take years for this phase to complete.By examining other groups, varying dosages, and using the medication in combination with other medications, a Phase III trial accumulates more data on safety and efficacy. Several hundred to around 3,000 subjects are often included in an experiment. The FDA will accept the experimental medication or gadget if it decides the study results are encouraging.Following FDA approval for usage, a Phase IV trial is conducted for medications or devices. The efficiency and safety of a medical gadget or medicine are evaluated in sizable, diverse populations. Sometimes it takes using a drug for a longer period of time before the adverse effects of it become obvious to more people.To Learn more About Clinical trials refer To:
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It is said that the brutality of football is necessary to satisfy the blood lust of the fans. Do you think that this is a valid reason for keeping the players' "heads in the game?"
Answers
Answer:
No it isn't
Explanation:
Football shouldn't be so brutal just to satisfy the blood lust of fans because those football player could get injured
A patient has a urinary tract infection so Dr. Padron prescribes Ancef. A 1200 mL bag contains 400 mg of Ancef. If the patient receives 600 mL of fluid, how many mg of Ancef did the patient receive?
Answers
Answer:
The patient received 200 mg of Ancef
Explanation:
The bag contained 1200 mL and 400 mg, with this information we know that the amount of mg is a third of the amount of mL so if it is 600 mL that means there is 200 mg of Ancef
two technicians are discussing shopkeypro technician a says that the 1search module is the preferred module to use because it is the quickest and most efficient way of gathering all diagnostic and repair related information about a code component or system. technician b says the service manual module is prefered search method because it is also built for speed and efficiency
Answers
Technicians are a group of engineers who help to understand the equipment and it makes it easy for people.
Who is the technician?Technicians are engineers which help in the study of equipment and machines.
In the medical field, machines are required for various purposes. Various medical instruments such as ECG, dialysis, and many other instruments are required.
Two scientists say that the first module is preferred because it is the quickest and technician b says the service module is preferred because it is used to build for speed and efficiency.
Two technicians are saying this from their perspectives because they both have different perspectives and both are true.
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